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Biology > Health, Disease and Medicine Development > Flashcards

Health, Disease and Medicine Development Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the definition of health?

A

WHO defines health as “a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity”

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2
Q

What is the definition of disease?

A

A condition where part of an organism doesn’t function properly.

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3
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

diseases that can be spread between individuals e.g. cholera, tuberculosis and malaria

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4
Q

What is a non-communicable disease?

A

cannot be transmitted between individuals e.g. cancer and heart disease.

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5
Q

What is the role of the immune system in protecting against disease?

A

The immune system attacks pathogens (organisms e.g. viruses, bacteria, fungi and protists that cause communicable diseases)

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6
Q

How can disease affect the immune system?

A

being affected by one disease couls weaken the immune system so it is more susceptible to other diseases.

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7
Q

Define malnutrition

A

The body receiving the wrong amount of nutrients, associated with scurvy (vitamin C deficiency) etc., caused by a diet with too many or too few nutrients.

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8
Q

What is the link between alcohol and liver disease?

A

Alcohol is broken down by liver enzymes and some of the products are toxic. Long-term over-drinking can cause permanent liver damage e.g. cirrhosis (liver scarring).

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9
Q

What is the effect of alcohol consumption on liver disease at local, national and global levels?

A

In areas with high levels of alcohol consumption there is a high level of liver disease. This puts pressure on the resources of local hospitals.
Liver disease costs the NHS money and many people suffering from liver disease and being unable to work may adversely affect a country’s economy.
Liver disease is a commmon problem worldwide. In developing countries high instances of liver disease can hold back national development.

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10
Q

How is obesity measured?

A

Body Mass Index (BMI) = weight (kg)/(height(m))^2. A BMI of above 30 indicates obesity. BMI can be unreliable as muscle weighs more than fat.
Waist:hip ratio (waist circumference/hip circumference). The higher the waist:hip ratio, the more weight carried around your middle. A ratio above 1.0 for males and above 0.85 for females indicates abdominal obesityand increases risk of obesity related health problems.

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11
Q

How does obesity correlate with carsiovascular disease?

A

Obesity increases risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Too much cholesterol in the blood can cause fatty deposits to build up in arteries in areas where the artery has been damaged e.g. by high blood pressure, restricting blood flow. This can cause blood clots to form, completely blocking blood flow. This blocks off oxygen supply to organs. If the heart muscle is depreived of oxygen, this causes a heart attack. If the brain is deprived of oxygen, this causes a stroke.

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12
Q

How does smoking correlate with CVD?

A

Smoking is a major risk factor associated with CVD. Nicotine in cigarette smoke increases heart rate and blood pressure. High blood pressure damages artery walls, contributing to the build up of fatty deposits in the arteries, which restrict blood flow and increase risk of heart attack or stroke. Smoking also increases risk of blood clots forming in arteries which can restrict or block blood flow leading to a heart attack or stroke.

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13
Q

Why do exercise and diet affect obesity?

A

A high fat, high sugar diet which is combined with not enough exercise results in more energy being taken in than used. Excess energy is stored as fat, so obesity is more likely.

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14
Q

How are lifestyle changes used to treat CVD?

A

A healthy balanced diet low in saturated fats (which increase blood cholesterol), exercise, weight loss and an end to smoking will reducing the risk of heart attack or stroke or of developing CVD altogether. Lifestyle changes are not always as effective but have no side effects.

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15
Q

How are drugs used to treat CVD?

A

Some people may need to take drugs such as statins, anticoagulants and antihypertensives for the rest of their lives.

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16
Q

What are statins?

A

Statins reduce blood cholesterol, slowing down the rate at which fatty deposits form and reducing risk of heart attack or stroke. Statins can cause negative side effects, from aching muscles to liver damage.

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17
Q

What are anticoagulants?

A

For example Warfarin (TM). Make blood clots less likely to form. Can cause excessive bleeding in case of accident.

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18
Q

What are antihypertensives?

A

Reduce blood pressure, helping to prevent damage to blood vessels and so risk of fatty deposits forming. Can cause side effects such as headaches and fainting.

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19
Q

How is surgery used to treat CVD?

A

Stents, coronary bypass surgery and transplant. General potential side effects include bleeding, clots and infection.

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20
Q

What is a stent?

A

A tube inserted inside an artery which keeps it open, ensuring blood can pass through to heart muscles and lowering heart attack risk. However the artery can narrow again as stents can irritate the artery and make scar tissue grow. The patient also has to take drugs to prevent blood clotting on the stent.

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21
Q

What is coronary bypass surgery?

A

If part or a blood vessel is blocked, a piece of healthy vessel from elsewhere can be used to bypass the blocked section.

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22
Q

What is a heart transplant?

A

The whole heart is replaced with a donor heart. However the new heart does not always start pumping properly and drugs have to be taken to prevent rejection. The drugs can have side effects including weakening the immune system and increasing susceptibility to infections.

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23
Q

What are examples of diseases caused by bacteria?

A

Cholera, Tuberculosis and Stomach ulcers

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24
Q

What is cholera?

A

A bacterial infection caused by the pathogen Vibrio cholerae. Symptoms include diarrhoea. Spread via contaminated water sources. Prevented/reduced by ensuring access to clean water.

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25
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

A bacterial infection caused by the pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Symptoms include coughing and lung damage. Spread through the air when infected individuals cough. Prevented/reduced by making sure infected people have well-ventilated homes, avoid crowded public spaces, practise good hygiene and sleep alone.

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26
Q

What are stomach ulcers?

A

A bacterial infection caused by the pathogen Helicobacter pylori. Symptoms include stomach pain, nausea and vomiting. Spread by oral transmission, e.g.swallowing contaminated water or food. Prevented/reduced by having clean water supplies and hygienic living conditions.

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27
Q

describe a disease caused by a virus

A

Ebola virus. A viral infection caused by the Ebola virus. Symptoms include Haemorrhagic fever (fever with bleeding). Spread via bodily fluids. Prevented/reduced by isolating infected individuals and sterilising areas where the virus may be present.

28
Q

Describe a disease caused by a protist

A

Malaria. An infection caused by a protist. Effects include damage to red blood cells and in severe cases the liver. Mosquitoes act as vectors (carriers)- they pass on the disease to humans but don’t get it themselves. Prevented/reduced by using mosquito nets and insect repellent.

29
Q

Describe a disease caused by a fungus

A

Chalara ash dieback. An infection caused by a fungus which infects ash trees. Symptoms include leaf loss and bark lesions (wounds). Carried through the air by the wind and spread when diseased ash trees are moved between areas. Prevented/reduced by removing young, infected ash trees and replanting with different species and restricting the import/movement of ash trees.

30
Q

How can pathogens be spread?

A

By air, by water, by vector, by bodily fluids, by mouth, via sexual intercourse

31
Q

Describe the structure of a virus

A

Not a cell. Usually no more than a protein coat around a strand of genetic material.

32
Q

How do viruses differ from cells?

A

They have to infect living host cells in order to reproduce. Specific types of virus only infect specific cells. The life cycle of a virus starts when it infects a new host cell. Many will then reproduce y the lytic pathway, but some will reproduce by the lysogenic pathway first.

33
Q

Describe the lytic pathway of a cell

A

The virus attaches itself to a specific host cell and injects its genetic material into the cell. The virus uses the host cell’s proteins and enzymes to replicate its genetic material and produce the components of new viruses, which assemble. The host cell splits open, releasing new viruses which infect more cells.

34
Q

Describe the lysogenic pathway of a cell

A

Injected genetic material is incorporated into the genome of the host cell so it gets replicated along with the host DNA during mitosis. However the virus is dormant so no new viruses are made. Eventually a trigger (e.g. the presence of a chemical) causes viral genetic material to leave the genome and enter the lytic pathway.

35
Q

What are the physical barriers of plants to pests and pathogens

A

Plant leaves and stems have a waxy cuticle which provides a barrier to pathogens and pests and also stops water collecting on leaves, reducing risk of water borne diseases.
Plant cells are surrounded by cellulose cell walls which form another physical barrier to pathogens.

36
Q

What are the chemical defences of plants to pests and pathogens?

A

Antiseptics kill bacterial and fungal pathogens. Some chemicals deter pests from feeding on their leaves.

37
Q

How are plant protective chemicals used to treat human diseases or symptoms?

A

Quinine comes from the bark of the cinchona tree and was once the main treatment for malaria.
Aspirin (pain and fever relief) is developed from a chemical found in willow leaves and bark.

38
Q

What are examples of aseptic technique?

A

Growth medium is autoclaved to prevent the growth of harmful or unwanted microorganisms. Autoclaves use steam at a high temperature and pressure to sterilise equipment. Inoculating loops used to tranfer bacteria must be sterilised by passing through a flame ( to kill unwanted microorganisms) before use. Liquid bacterial cultures are kept in a culture vial with a lid to prevent other microbes getting in. Petri dishes on which bacteria are grown should have a lid taped on to stop airborne microorganisms getting in and should be stored upside down to prevent drops of condensation falling onto the agar.

39
Q

Why is aseptic technique used during the culture of microorganisms?

A

Contamination by unwanted microorganisms will affect results and can potentially result in the growth of pathogens.

40
Q

How are plant diseases detected using visible symptoms?

A

Plant pathologists recognise symptoms and match them to a disease e.g. galls may indicate crown gall disease in apple trees.

41
Q

How are environmental causes of plant problems eliminated when identifying disease?

A

By changing environmental conditions (e.g. adding nutrients to soil to prevent nutrient deficiency) and observing any change in the plant’s symptoms.

42
Q

How does distribution analysis help identify plant diseases?

A

Different pathogens are spread in different ways so scientists can analyse the distribution of diseased plants to identify the kind of pathogen involved (e.g. a random distribution indicates an airborne pathogen).

43
Q

How are plant pathogens detected in the lab?

A

Detecting antigens- pathogens have unique antigens on their surfaces which can be detected in a sample of plant tissue, allowing pathogens to be identified and the disease to be diagnosed.
Detecting DNA- the DNA of a pathogen can be detected in the plant’s tissues, allowing the pathogen to be identified.

44
Q

How can the spread of the STIs Chlamydia and HIV be reduced or prevented?

A

Chlamydia: wearing a condom whilst having sex; screening individuals so they can be treated and avoiding sexual contact.
HIV: Spread via infected bodily fluids. Use a condom, drug users should avoid sharing needles, screening- medication reduces risk of passing on the disease during pregnancy or intercourse.

45
Q

What is chlamydia?

A

A kind of bacterium but can only reproduce inside host cells, doesn’t always cause symptoms but can result in infertility in men and women.

46
Q

What is HIV?

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus- kills white blood cells. Eventually leads to AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome), where the infected person’s immune system deteriorates and eventually fails, making them vulnerable to opportunistic infections.

47
Q

Give examples of physical barriers and state how they protect the body

A

Skin- barrier to pathogens. If skin is broken, blood clots seal cuts to keep microorganisms out.
Hairs and mucus in the nose trap particles potentially containing pathogens.
Cells in the trachea and bronchi (airways in the lungs) produce mucus, trapping pathogens. Other cells in the trachea and bronchi have cilia which waft mucus to the back of the throat where it can be swallowed.

48
Q

Give examples of chemical barriers and state how they protect the body

A

Stomach produces hydrochloric acid which kills pathogens that are swallowed.
Eyes produce lysozyme (in tears) which kills bacteria on the surface of the eye.

49
Q

How does the immune system protect the body?

A

attacking pathogens

50
Q

How do antigens trigger the release of antibodies?

A

Every pathogen has unique molecules on its surface called antigens. When B-lymphocytes come across an antigen, they produce proteins called antibodies, which bind to the new invading pathogen so it can be found and destroyed by other white blood cells. Antibodies produce are specific to that pathogen. These antibodies are then produced rapidly and flow around the body to find all similar pathogens.

51
Q

How do antigens trigger the release of memory lymphocytes?

A

When a pathogen enters the body for the first time the response is slow as their aren’t many B lymphocytes that can make the required antibody. Eventually the body will produce enough of the antibody to combat the infection Memory lymphocytes are produced as well in antigens. They remain in the body for a long time and remember a specific antigen. The person is now immune, so if the same pathogen enters the body there are more cells that can produce antibodies against it so the secondary immune response is faster and stronger, which can get rid of the pathogen before systems are shown.

52
Q

How does immunisation protect against infection?

A

Dead/inactive pathoges are injected into the body. They are antigenic (carry antigens) so the body makes antibodies against them even though they’re harmless. The antigens also trigger memory lymphocytes so if live pathogens of the same type get into the body, there will already be memory lymphocytes that can cause a fast secondary immune response.

53
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of immunisation?

A

Advantages: Big outbreaks of disease can be prevented if a large percentage of the population are immunised. Even people who haven’t been immunised are less likely to catch the disease as there are fewer people to pass it on (herd immunity). Some diseases, e.g. smallpox) have been all but wiped out by immunisation programs.
Disadvantages: doesn’t always work, side effects from swelling to seizures can occur.

54
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

A medicine that works by inhibiting cell processes in bacteria.

55
Q

Why are antibiotics useful for treating bacterial infections?

A

They do not damage human cell processes

56
Q

Why can antibiotics not be used to treat infections by pathogens other than bacteria?

A

Viruses reproduce using the body’s cells , making it very difficult to develop drugs which only destroy the virus without damaging the cell.

57
Q

What are the stages of development of new medicines?

A

Preclinical testing and clinical testing

58
Q

What is preclinical testing and why is it needed?

A

Drugs are tested on human cells and tissues in the lab. However theses cannot be used to test drugs that affect whole or multiple body systems.
Next they are tested on live animals, to check that the drug works, to to find out how toxic it is and to find the best dosage

59
Q

What is clinical testing and why is it needed?

A

If drugs pass tests on animals they are tested on human volunteers in the lab in a clinical trial: first on healthy volunteers to ensure there are no harmful side effects; next (conditional on good test results) the drugs are tested on people suffering from the illness. The optimum dose is found (most effective with the least side effects). Patients are randomly split into a group given the new drug and a group given the placebo. This avoids the placebo effect. Clinical trials are blind or double blind to avoid bias.

60
Q

What is a monoclonal antibody?

A

Identical antibodies produced from clones of a single B-lymphocyte.

61
Q

What is a hybridoma cell?

A

A mouse B-lymphocyte cell fused with a type of tumour cell known as a myeloma cell which is used to produce B lymphocytes as it can rapidly divide. B lymphocytes do not easily divide.

62
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used in pregnancy testing?

A

A hormone called HCG is found in the urine of pregnant women. The part of the pregnancy testing stick exposed to urine has antibodies to the hormone with blue beads attached. The test strip has more antibodies to the hormone stuck onto it so they can’t move. If the woman is pregnant, the hormone binds to the antibodies on the blue beads. The urine moves up the stick, carrying the hormone and the beads, which bind to the antibodies on the strip, so blue beads are stuck on the strip, turning it blue.

63
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used to diagnose cancer?

A

Antibodies are labelled with a radioactive element. The labelled antibodies are given to the patient through a drip and then go into the blood and are carried around the body. When antibodies come into contact with cancer cells they bind to tumour markers (proteins found on cancer cells that aren’t found on normal body cells). A picture of the patient’s body is taken using a special camera that detects radioactivity so that cancer cells show up as a bright spot so doctors can see the location and size of the cancer.

64
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used to find blood clots?

A

When blood clots, proteins in the blood join together to form a solid mesh. Monoclonal antibodies have been developed that bind to these proteins. Radioactive elements can be attached to these antibodies so that if they are injected into the body the radiation can be detected with a special camera allowing doctors to locate and therefore treat especially harmful blood clots.

65
Q

What are the advantages of monoclonal antibodies compared to drug and radiotherapy treatments to target cancer cells?

A

The anti-cancer drugs are attached to monoclonal antibodies which only bind to tumour markers so only kill cancer cells. Other treatments can affect normal body cells. Therefore the side effects of an antibody based drug are lower than for other treatments,

Biology (9 decks)

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