Health Assessment Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary assessment tools used to examine the hair, skin, and nails?

A

inspection and palpation

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2
Q

When palpating the nails the surface should feel:

A

smooth, firm, and uniform

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3
Q

A patient has pink nail beds/color. A nurse would say these nails are:

A

normal

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4
Q

Yellow nails may indicate

A

psoriasis, fungal infection, chronic respiratory disease, or tobacco use

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5
Q

A patient has blue nail beds/color. A nurse may conclude this patient has:

A

acute cyanosis

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6
Q

Normal nail plates:

A

should be smooth and slightly convex

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7
Q

During an assessment a nurse finds her patient has clubbed finger nails. The nurse will want to test for:

A

chronic hypoxia

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8
Q

The laymen’s term for koilonychia is:

A

spoon shaped nails

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10
Q

Define paronychia:

A

a bacterial infection of tissue surrounding the nail

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11
Q

T or F: If a patient presents with paronychia a nurse may want to suggest a course of antibiotics.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

Define Onychomycosis:

A

fungal infection of the nail bed

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13
Q

The main point when it comes to hair assessment is watching for changes in:

A

hair texture, quantity, and distribution

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14
Q

T or F: Alopecia may be considered normal for some men.

A

TRUE. Alopecia refers to hair loss, which is normal for older men who go bald

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15
Q

When assessing the scalp of a 8 year old, what is one important thing to check for?

A

the presence of lice infestation

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16
Q

The scalp should be:

A

smooth and nontender

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17
Q

The skin has three primary layers which are:

A

Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

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18
Q

The epidermis is:

A

the thick outer layer of the skin

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19
Q

This layer of the skin contains blood, lymphatic cells, nerves, base of hair follicles, sebaceous and sweat glands, collagen and reticular fibers

A

the dermis

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20
Q

This layer of the skin is connected to underlying organs, contains adipose for cushioning organs

A

hypodermis

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21
Q

A nurse bundles a newborn baby in a blanket to keep the child warm. In terms of newborn skin state, why is this important?

A

babies have very little subcutaneous fat

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22
Q

During different life stages, what body element is attributed with changing the appearance of skin?

A

hormones

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23
Q

When performing a subjective skin assessment, what factor is important to consider?

A

Age of the patient

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24
Q

A blister would be an example of a ______________ lesion.

A

vesicular

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25
Q

This type of lesion is elevate, solid, and measures less than 0.5 cm

A

papular lesion

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26
Q

Freckles, measles, and some drug rashes are examples of this type of lesion:

A

macular lesion

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27
Q

Skin turgor, temperature, and moisture level can be used to asses:

A

dehydration

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28
Q

Circulation of _______ and ________ are most vulnerable.

A

palms and feet

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29
Q

A lesion would be considered primary if:

A

it is the initial spontaneous eruption of the lesion.

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30
Q

A secondary lesion is one that:

A

often occurs afater primary lesion

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31
Q

A nurse sees an essentially flat colored lesion when examining a patient. She would document this as a:

A

macular lesion

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32
Q

A rash that is firm or filled with solid material is:

A

a papular rash

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33
Q

A nurse sees a rash that is a combination of papules and patches of flat colored skin. She would document a:

A

maculopapular rash

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34
Q

A hyperpigmented patch of skin will appear:

A

dark brown

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35
Q

A hypopigmented patch of skin appears:

A

white

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36
Q

A mother states her child was just stung by a bee. A nurse would be looking at the child’s skin for:

A

a wheal rash

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37
Q

What is a wheal rash?

A

an elevated irregular accumulation of subcutaneous edema

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38
Q

If a section of skin stays discolored for > 30 minutes after relief of pressure it could be described as a:

A

stage I pressure ulcer

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39
Q

A pressure ulcer that has partial thickness, loss of dermis, open, shallow with a red/pink wound bed would be considered:

A

Stage II

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40
Q

A pressure ulcer which appears as a deep crater, but the nderlying bone is not present would be considered

A

Stage III

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41
Q

A nurse notices a wound that has caused extensive destruction, slough/eschar are present, and bone is visible. She would document this as:

A

a stage IV pressure ulcer

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42
Q

When assessing the head and neck what are the 6 key areas to address?

A

Head, eyes, ears, nose, mouth and pharynx, neck

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43
Q

HEENT stands for:

A

Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat

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44
Q

What are some common ailments related to the HEENT exam?

A

headache, rhinitis (common cold), sore throat, swollen lymph nodes

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45
Q

T or F: It is normal for babies to have fontanels that are not fused.

A

TRUE

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46
Q

A nurse can tell a lot about a person’s _____________ health from looking at their eyes.

A

Emotional health

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47
Q

When assessing the eyes it is important to ask:

A

any current vision changes, history of visual problems, use of correction lenses?

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48
Q

When performing an eye exam, tell patient to report at any time if:

A

They have blurred vision, double vision, or see flashes of light (scotomata-blind spots)

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49
Q

The conjunctiva should be obsered for:

A

erythema or discharge

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50
Q

A nurse is trying to assess a patient for jaundice. How would she do this by looking at the eyes?

A

looking for yellowing of the sclera

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51
Q

The common term for conjuntivitis is:

A

pink eye

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52
Q

Erythema on the conjunctiva could be due to a.virus b. bacteria c. trauma d. allergies/irritants e. all of the above

A

e-all of the above

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53
Q

Eye infections are most common in:

A

pediatric and elderly

54
Q

A nurse observes that a patient has proptosis (eyes appear to be bulging out of head). She would want to test for:

A

hyperthyroidism

55
Q

Visual acuity is expressed as a ratio of:

A

distance from chart/distance at which normal eye can read the line of letters ex: 20/200= patient can read print at 20 ft what normal eye can read @ 200 ft.

56
Q

Legal blindness is described as:

A

> 20/200 with glasses

57
Q

the chart used to measure visual acuity is the:

A

Snellen eye chart

58
Q

The Snellen eye chart needs to be places ___________ft away from pt.

A

20

59
Q

The corneal refelction test is looking for:

A

asymmetry in the reflections from the corneas

60
Q

Asymmetry on the corneal reflection test can indicate:

A

deviation from normal ocular alignment and muscular problems in eyes

61
Q

When performing a red reflex test, the nurse notes that the reflection is white-ish, not red. This could be due to:

A

malignancy blocking the reflection of the retina

62
Q

During a physical exam the nurse records “Strabismus” in her notes. This means:

A

misalignment of the eye

63
Q

Define Esotropia:

A

eyes look inward

64
Q

Define Exotropia:

A

eyes look outward

65
Q

When light is shined into the pupils they should:

A

constrict

66
Q

When a light source is removed from the pupils they should:

A

revert to non-constricted state

67
Q

Pupilary muscle reactions are a useful assessment of the_______________ system.

A

neurological system

68
Q

What does PERRLA stand for?

A

Pupils Equal Round and Reactive to Light and Accommodation

69
Q

When performing an internal ear exam, what is one important safety measure to remember, esp. w/ children?

A

stabilize the otoscope against their cheek with pinky finger

70
Q

When inspecting the internal ear, one should look for a:

A

cone of light at 4:00

71
Q

Absence of a cone of light during external ear exam may be due to:

A

infection or retreaction of tympanic membrane

72
Q

Conductive hearing loss is due to:

A

wax/fluid build up

73
Q

sensorineural hearing loss is due to:

A

an inner ear disorder, involves cochlear nerve and neuronal transmission to brain

74
Q

Where should the tuning fork be placed for the Rinne test?

A

behind ear on mastoid bone

75
Q

T or F: Air conduction is 2x as long as bone conduction.

A

TRUE

76
Q

During a Rinne test, when patient can no longer hear sound, where do you move the tuning fork?

A

place fork in front of ear canal

77
Q

A whisper test may not be the greatest assessment for which population?

A

The elderly-they may be able to hear very soft sounds, but not loud sounds

78
Q

Where should the tuning fork be placed during a Webber test?

A

base of fork should be on top of patient’s head

79
Q

The Webber test is testing:

A

if the patient can hear out of both ears

80
Q

A normal result for the Webber test would be:

A

patient stating they can hear out of both sides

81
Q

What is involved in the nail inspection?

A

Color of nail beds, length, symmetry, shape of nail plate surface, surfase texture

82
Q

What could yellow nails indicate?

A

psoriasis, fungal infection, chronic respitory disease or tobacco use

83
Q

What could darkened mails indicate?

A

Trauma

84
Q

What could blue nails indicate?

A

acute cyanosis

85
Q

What could a deviation for smooth and slightly convex of the nail be?

A

infection, chronic hypoxia, trauma, or genetic

86
Q

What could clubbing be due to?

A

chronic hypoxia

87
Q

What could convex nails be due to?

A

genetic problem

88
Q

What are spoon shaped nails called and what causes them?

A

Koilonychia, severe chronic iron deficiency anemia and hypothyroidism

89
Q

What is paronychia?

A

bacterial infection of tissue surrounding the nail

90
Q

What is onychomycosis?

A

fungal infection of nail bed

91
Q

What do you assess the hair for?

A

texture, quantity, distribution

92
Q

What is alopecia?

A

Hair loss could be local or universal

93
Q

What are the three skin layers?

A

epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

94
Q

Why do newborns have a red look to their skin?

A

very little subcutaneous fat

95
Q

What causes cyanosis?

A

Lack of oxygen in the periphery

96
Q

What is involved when you palpate for skin assessment?

A

Turgor, temperature, moisture, texture, mobility

97
Q

What is a macular lesion and examples?

A

essentially flat colored lesion: freckles, measles, drug rash

98
Q

What is a papular rash?

A

elevated above skin surface, firm or filled with solid materials, can also be fluid filled

99
Q

What is a maculopapular rash?

A

combination of papules and macular rash, red diffuse rash filled with fluid papules and crusts

100
Q

What is a rash with fluid filled lesions <1 cm in diameter that may be clustered or solitary?

A

vesicular

101
Q

What are two types of patches skin lesions?

A

psoriasis and vitaligo

102
Q

What is an elevated irregular accumulation of subcutaneous edema?

A

wheal, insect sting or drug reaction

103
Q

Where do nodules originate?

A

lower in dermis (elevated and firm)

104
Q

What are elevated encapsulated lesions in dermis or epidermis filled with fluid or semisolid materials?

A

cysts

105
Q

What is a excoriation lesion?

A

scratching

106
Q

What is a fissure lesion?

A

linear cracks

107
Q

What is an erosion lesion?

A

loss of part of the dermis, may follow rupture of a vesicle or bulla

108
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

loss of dermis, concave, varies in size

109
Q

What are common sites for pressure ulcers?

A

sacrum, hip socket, boney prominance of shoulders, heels, posterior region of head

110
Q

What are the characteristics of a stage 1 pressure ulcer?

A

localized skin intact, redness, non-blanching, discoloration for > 30 minutes after relief of pressure

111
Q

What are the characteristics of a stage II pressure ulcer?

A

partial thickness, loss of dermis, open and shallow, red, pink wound bed

112
Q

What are the characteristics of a stage III pressure ulcer?

A

Full thickness, deep crater, damage or necrosis to subcutaneous tissue, undermining may be present, bone/tendon not visible

113
Q

What are the characteristics of a stage IV pressure ulcer?

A

Full thickness skin loss to muscle/bone, extensive destruction, slough/ eschar present, underminig/ tunneling present, often requires full to heal

114
Q

What is an unstagable pressure ulcer?

A

involves full thickness skin loss, base of wound obscured by slough or eschar, commonly requires mechanical debridement

115
Q

What is involved in inspecting the external eye structures?

A

observe: conjuctiva for erythema or discharge, sclera for yellowing, peri-orbital region for edema, lids for symmetry or lid lag, under lower lid for conjuctiva sac, under upper lid for upper conjectiva

116
Q

Why may the lens may appear cloudy?

A

cataracts

117
Q

What is exopthamos?

A

Eyes appear to buldge as lids retract, usually due to hyperthyroidism

118
Q

What could an absence of the red reflex mean?

A

adults: cateracts neonates: retinobtruction or blastoma

119
Q

What is a strabismus?

A

misalignment of the eyes, can cause visual disturbance: esotropia: inward, exotropia: outward

120
Q

Where should the cone of light be for the internal ear exam?

A

4:00

121
Q

What is conductive hearing loss?

A

external or middle ear disorders, impairs sound to inner ear,

122
Q

what could cause conductive hearing loss?

A

foreign body, otis media, perforated eardrum, may be acute or chronic

123
Q

What is sensorineural hearing loss?

A

inner ear disorder, involves cochlear nerve and neuronal transmission to brain

124
Q

What can cause sensorineural hearing loss?

A

loud noise exposure, inner ear infection, trauma, aging, may be congenital

125
Q

Which should be longer in the Rinne test: bone or air conduction?

A

air conduction should be 2x longer

126
Q

Where do you put the tuning fork for the Rinne test?

A

first behind the ear on the mastoid bone and then put in front of the ear canal

127
Q

Where do you put the tuning fork for the Weber test?

A

on top of patient’s head- ask then if they can hear it in one, both or neither side

128
Q

Where do you palpate for sinuses?

A

frontal and maxillary sinuses

129
Q

What could be abnormal findings when palpating the thyroid?

A

abnormal size, shape consistency, nodules or tenderness