Health Assessment Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the organ systems contained within the Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen?

A

Digestive System:
* Liver (right lobe)
* Gallbladder
* Duodenum
* Head of pancreas
* Hepatic flexure of the colon
* Ascending colon (part)
* Transverse colon (part)

Urinary System:
* Right kidney (upper pole)
* Right adrenal gland

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2
Q

What are the organ systems contained within the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen?

A

Digestive System:
* Stomach
* Spleen
* Left lobe of liver
* Body and tail of pancreas
* Splenic flexure of the colon
* Transverse colon (part)
* Descending colon (part)

Urinary System:
* Left kidney (upper pole)
* Left adrenal gland

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3
Q

What are the organ systems contained within the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ) of the abdomen?

A

Digestive System:
* Cecum
* Appendix
* Ascending colon (part)

Urinary System:
* Right ureter

Reproductive System:
* Right ovary and fallopian tube (female)
* Right spermatic cord (male)

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4
Q

What are the organ systems contained within the Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ) of the abdomen?

A

Digestive System:
* Descending colon (part)
* Sigmoid colon

Urinary System:
* Left ureter

Reproductive System:
* Left ovary and fallopian tube (female)
* Left spermatic cord (male)

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5
Q

What are the key alarm symptoms (Red Box Findings) that require immediate medical attention?

A

General Abdominal Red Flags:
* Sudden onset severe pain
* Severe, persistent pain lasting >6 hours
* Unintentional weight loss
* GI bleeding (hematemesis, melena, or hematochezia)
* Recurrent vomiting
* Pain associated with mental status changes
* Cardiovascular compromise (hypotension, tachycardia)
* Rapid deterioration of patient condition

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6
Q

What is Murphy’s Sign and what does it indicate?

A

Murphy’s Sign: Pain upon palpation of the gallbladder

Indication: Suggestive of cholecystitis

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7
Q

What is McBurney’s Point Tenderness and what does it suggest?

A

McBurney’s Point Tenderness: Pain at McBurney’s point

Indication: Suggestive of appendicitis

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8
Q

What does a positive Blumberg Sign (Rebound Tenderness) indicate?

A

Indication: Suggests peritoneal irritation

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9
Q

What is the significance of Cullen’s Sign?

A

Cullen’s Sign: Periumbilical bruising

Indication: Suggestive of retroperitoneal hemorrhage or pancreatitis

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10
Q

What does Kehr’s Sign indicate?

A

Kehr’s Sign: Left shoulder pain when lying down

Indication: Suggestive of splenic rupture

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11
Q

What are common GI symptoms associated with abdominal pain?

A

Common GI Symptoms:
* Nausea and Vomiting
* Dysphagia
* Odynophagia
* Early Satiety
* Anorexia
* Unintentional Weight Loss
* Bloating
* Distension
* Heartburn
* Acid Reflux
* Diarrhea
* Constipation
* Hematochezia
* Melena
* Jaundice
* Abdominal Mass or Distension

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12
Q

What is the current recommendation for colorectal cancer screening for average-risk individuals?

A

Start screening at age 45 and continue until age 75 if life expectancy permits

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13
Q

What is the gold standard for colorectal cancer screening?

A

Colonoscopy every 10 years for those at average risk

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14
Q

What are the locations of hernias?

A

Common Hernia Locations:
* Inguinal Hernia (Direct and Indirect)
* Femoral Hernia
* Umbilical Hernia
* Epigastric Hernia
* Incisional Hernia
* Spigelian Hernia
* Obturator Hernia
* Hiatal Hernia

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15
Q

What are the red flag signs of impending incarcerated hernia?

A

Red Flag Signs:
* Pain and Tenderness
* Skin Changes Over the Hernia
* Nausea and Vomiting
* Abdominal Distension
* Fever and Tachycardia
* Irreducibility
* Absence of Bowel Sounds Over the Hernia

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16
Q

What is the Rovsing Sign?

A

Description: Pressure in the LLQ elicits pain in the RLQ

Indication: Suggestive of appendicitis due to referred pain

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17
Q

What is the Psoas Sign?

A

Description: Tests for irritation of the iliopsoas muscle

Indication: Suggests retrocecal appendicitis

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18
Q

What is the Obturator Sign?

A

Description: Evaluates irritation of the obturator internus muscle

Indication: Suggestive of pelvic appendicitis

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19
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)?

A

Abdominal Organs in RUQ:
* Liver
* Gallbladder
* Duodenum
* Head of pancreas
* Right kidney
* Right adrenal gland
* Hepatic flexure of colon
* Ascending and part of transverse colon

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20
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)?

A

Abdominal Organs in LUQ:
* Stomach
* Spleen
* Left lobe of liver
* Body and tail of pancreas
* Left kidney
* Left adrenal gland
* Splenic flexure of colon
* Part of transverse and descending colon

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21
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)?

A

Abdominal Organs in RLQ:
* Cecum
* Appendix
* Right ovary and fallopian tube
* Right ureter
* Right spermatic cord

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22
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)?

A

Abdominal Organs in LLQ:
* Part of descending colon
* Sigmoid colon
* Left ovary and fallopian tube
* Left ureter
* Left spermatic cord

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23
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Epigastric Region?

A

Abdominal Organs in Epigastric Region:
* Aorta
* Pancreas
* Liver
* Stomach

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24
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Umbilical Region?

A

Abdominal Organs in Umbilical Region:
* Small intestines
* Appendix

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25
Q

What are the abdominal organs located in the Suprapubic (Hypogastric) Region?

A

Abdominal Organs in Suprapubic Region:
* Uterus
* Bladder
* Aorta

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26
Q

What are the structures located in the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?

A

Left ovary and fallopian tube, left ureter, left spermatic cord, part of descending colon, sigmoid colon

These structures are important for understanding abdominal anatomy during assessments.

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27
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Metabolism, detoxification, bile production, storage of vitamins and glycogen

The liver plays a crucial role in various metabolic processes.

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28
Q

What are the normal bowel sounds heard during auscultation?

A

High-pitched, gurgling sounds 5–34 times per minute

Abnormal findings include hyperactive or hypoactive sounds.

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29
Q

What does rebound tenderness indicate?

A

Peritoneal irritation

This is assessed through the Blumberg Sign during an abdominal exam.

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30
Q

What are the alarming symptoms referred to as ‘Red Box Findings’?

A

Severe, sudden onset abdominal pain, progressive worsening pain, rebound tenderness, involuntary guarding, jaundice with weight loss, palpable abdominal mass, severe vomiting

These findings require immediate clinical attention.

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31
Q

What is the basic function of the gallbladder?

A

Stores and releases bile to aid in fat digestion

Bile is essential for the emulsification of fats in the digestive process.

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32
Q

Fill in the blank: During a clinical breast exam, palpation should be systematic, applying ____ Light Pressure, ____ Medium Pressure, and ____ Deep Pressure.

A

Light Pressure, Medium Pressure, Deep Pressure

This technique ensures thorough examination of breast tissue.

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33
Q

What is Murphy’s Sign indicative of?

A

Cholecystitis

It is characterized by pain on inspiration during RUQ palpation.

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34
Q

List the 4 strongest risk factors for breast cancer in women.

A
  • Female Sex
  • Increasing Age
  • Personal or Family History of Breast Cancer
  • BRACA1 or BRACA2 Gene Mutations

These factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer.

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35
Q

What is assessed during percussion of the abdomen?

A

Tympany and dullness

Tympany indicates air-filled structures while dullness suggests solid organs or masses.

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36
Q

What does Kehr’s Sign indicate?

A

Left shoulder pain from spleen rupture

This sign is associated with diaphragmatic irritation.

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37
Q

What are the three most common types of breast complaints?

A
  • Breast lump
  • Breast Pain
  • Nipple Discharge

Each complaint requires specific questioning to gather relevant clinical information.

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38
Q

What is the significance of Cullen’s Sign?

A

Periumbilical ecchymosis

This finding suggests retroperitoneal hemorrhage or pancreatitis.

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39
Q

What does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into?

A

Right and left common iliac arteries

This bifurcation occurs at approximately the level of L4.

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40
Q

What is the primary function of the kidneys?

A

Filter blood, regulate electrolytes, control blood pressure, produce erythropoietin

This highlights the kidneys’ role in maintaining homeostasis.

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41
Q

What is the common site for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)?

A

Midline of the abdomen, near bifurcation of the aorta

AAA can lead to life-threatening conditions if ruptured.

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42
Q

What does Rovsing’s Sign indicate?

A

Appendicitis

Pain in the RLQ when the LLQ is palpated suggests irritation of the appendix.

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43
Q

What is the significance of Grey Turner’s Sign?

A

Flank bruising

This sign indicates retroperitoneal bleeding.

44
Q

What question would you ask if a patient presents with a breast lump?

A

When did you first notice the lump? Has it changed in size?

45
Q

What question would you ask regarding breast pain?

A

Is the pain related to your menstrual cycle?

46
Q

What should you ask about nipple discharge?

A

What color is the discharge? Is it from one or both breasts?

47
Q

During a clinical breast exam, what types of pressure should be applied during palpation?

A

Light Pressure, Medium pressure, Deep pressure

48
Q

What has replaced the recommendation for monthly self-breast exams in average risk females?

A

Breast Self-Awareness

49
Q

What are some concerning signs of breast cancer on physical exam?

A
  • Skin dimpling
  • Nipple retraction
  • Bloody nipple discharge
  • Peau d’orange appearance
  • Palpable hard, immobile mass
50
Q

What is the area of the cervix at greatest risk for dysplasia called?

A

squamocolumnar junction

51
Q

How is menopause defined?

A

12 consecutive months without menstruation

52
Q

What are common symptoms of menopause?

A
  • Atrophic vaginal mucosa
  • Decreased elasticity of the vaginal walls
  • Thinning of pubic hair
53
Q

What findings on physical history may indicate menopause?

A
  • Atrophic vaginal mucosa
  • Decreased elasticity of the vaginal walls
  • Thinning of pubic hair
54
Q

When would you use a Pederson speculum?

A

For nulliparous women or postmenopausal women

55
Q

When would you use a Graves speculum?

A

For multiparous women

56
Q

Mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes increase the risk for which cancers?

A
  • Breast Cancer
  • Ovarian Cancer
57
Q

What are the cervical cancer screening recommendations?

A
  • Pap smear every 3 years for women aged 21-29
  • HPV and Pap co-testing every 5 years for women aged 30-65
  • Discontinue screening if >65 and adequate prior negative screening
58
Q

How is the cremasteric reflex assessed?

A

Stroke the inner thigh lightly, and observe ipsilateral testicle elevation

59
Q

In a male with acute testicular pain, would the cremasteric reflex likely be present or absent?

60
Q

What symptoms would a patient with Peyronie disease typically complain of?

A
  • Penile Curvature
  • Pain with erections
  • Palpable fibrous plaque in the penis
61
Q

What findings in a prostate exam may indicate prostate cancer?

A
  • Hard, Irregular, Nodular Prostate
  • Asymmetry
  • Fixed Mass
62
Q

List three common causes of gynecomastia.

A
  • Hormonal imbalances (puberty, aging)
  • Medications (Spironolactone, anti-androgens)
  • Chronic Diseases (Liver disease, kidney failure)
63
Q

What does the acronym OLDCARTS stand for in the context of history of present illness?

A

Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Relieving Factors, Radiation, Timing, Severity

64
Q

What components are included in the menstrual history?

A
  • Age of menarche
  • Last menstrual period (LMP)
  • Cycle regularity, frequency, duration
  • Amount and character of flow
  • Associated symptoms
65
Q

What does the GTPAL acronym stand for?

A

Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living

66
Q

What should be assessed during a gynecological history?

A
  • Pap smears and results
  • History of STIs
  • History of gynecologic procedures or surgeries
  • Contraceptive use
  • Menopausal symptoms
67
Q

What are the 5 P’s in sexual history?

A
  • Partners
  • Practices
  • Protection
  • Past STIs
  • Pregnancy Prevention/Planning
68
Q

What does the breast health history include?

A
  • Self-breast exams
  • Clinical breast exams
  • Mammograms
  • History of breast conditions
  • Family history of breast cancer
69
Q

What symptoms are associated with urinary health?

A
  • Symptoms of UTIs
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Pelvic floor health
  • History of kidney disease or stones
70
Q

What endocrine and systemic health issues can affect gynecological health?

A
  • Thyroid disorders
  • Diabetes
  • PCOS
  • Weight and exercise history
71
Q

What are the key components of a women’s gynecological physical exam?

A
  • General considerations
  • External genitalia exam
  • Speculum exam
  • Bimanual exam
  • Rectovaginal exam
  • Breast exam
  • Documentation
72
Q

What are the signs of breast cancer during a breast exam?

A
  • Skin changes
  • Nipple discharge
  • Palpable masses
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Asymmetry or contour abnormalities
  • New inversion of nipple
  • Ulceration or crusting on nipple
73
Q

What are the Tanner stages for breast development?

A
  • Tanner 1: No breast tissue
  • Tanner 2: Breast buds appear
  • Tanner 3: Contour elevates
  • Tanner 4: Areola forms a secondary mound
  • Tanner 5: Mature adult contour
74
Q

What is the Tanner stage for male genital development when there is no pubic hair?

75
Q

What lifestyle modifications can reduce breast cancer risk?

A
  • Maintain a healthy weight
  • Limit alcohol
  • Regular exercise
76
Q

What are the cervical cancer screening recommendations according to ACOG?

A
  • Pap smear starting at age 21
  • HPV co-testing at age 30+
  • Education on HPV vaccination
77
Q

What are the symptoms of urinary incontinence?

A
  • Stress
  • Urge
  • Mixed
78
Q

At what age should a Pap smear start?

79
Q

What is the recommendation for HPV co-testing?

A

At age 30+ (or primary HPV testing)

80
Q

What vaccine is recommended for HPV education up to age 45?

A

Gardasil 9

81
Q

Name a lifestyle modification that can reduce cervical cancer risk.

A

Quit smoking

82
Q

What are safe sexual practices to limit cervical cancer risk?

A

Limit partners, use barrier protection

83
Q

What is the purpose of regular screenings?

A

Early detection prevents progression to cancer

84
Q

What exercises can improve bladder control in pelvic health?

A

Pelvic floor exercises (Kegels)

85
Q

How can weight management affect urinary incontinence?

A

Excess weight puts pressure on the bladder

86
Q

What is one method for managing bladder symptoms?

A

Bladder training (timed voiding)

87
Q

What weight loss percentage can improve symptoms of PCOS?

88
Q

What type of diet is recommended for managing PCOS?

A

Low-glycemic, high-fiber foods

89
Q

What is an anti-inflammatory diet rich in for endometriosis management?

90
Q

What is a recommended exercise for endometriosis relief?

A

Regular exercise

91
Q

True or False: Prostate cancer screening is recommended for all asymptomatic males.

92
Q

What should be discussed regarding PSA testing?

A

Based on individual risk (especially if African American or family history)

93
Q

What diet can reduce prostate cancer risk?

A

Heart-healthy diet (Mediterranean diet)

94
Q

What should men be aware of regarding testicular health?

A

Self-exams for changes

95
Q

What is a key component of a clinical breast examination?

A

Visual inspection and palpation

96
Q

What should be observed during the visual inspection of breasts?

A

Symmetry, skin changes, nipple changes, visible masses

97
Q

What palpation pattern is recommended for breast exams?

A

Vertical strip pattern

98
Q

What are common findings in a normal breast exam?

A

Breasts symmetrical, smooth skin, no nipple inversion or discharge

99
Q

What should be documented for abnormal breast findings?

A

Size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness, location

100
Q

What is the screening recommendation for average-risk individuals?

A

Mammography

101
Q

What are key components of a male GU physical exam?

A

History taking, inspection, palpation, digital rectal exam, special tests

102
Q

What symptoms should be assessed in male GU history taking?

A

Pain, dysuria, erectile dysfunction, infertility

103
Q

What should be inspected on the penis?

A

Lesions, ulcers, discharge, abnormal curvature

104
Q

What does a digital rectal exam assess for?

A

Prostate size, shape, consistency, tenderness, nodules

105
Q

What is Prehn’s Sign used to assess?

A

Relief of scrotal pain with elevation

106
Q

Is routine screening for testicular cancer recommended?

A

No, but self-exam education is important

107
Q

What is the most common type of inguinal hernia?

A

Indirect inguinal hernia