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NUR 112 Skills > HEALTH ASSESSMENT > Flashcards

HEALTH ASSESSMENT Flashcards

1
Q

Ethics

A

the study of conduct and character

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2
Q

code of ethics

A

a guide for the expectations and standards of a profession

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3
Q

basic principles of ethics (4)

A

advocacy
responsibility
accountability
confidentiality

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4
Q

advocacy

A

support of client’s health/wellness/safety/and personal rights, including privacy

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5
Q

responsibility

A

willingness to respect obligations and follow through on promises

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6
Q

accountability

A

ability to answer for one’s own actions

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7
Q

confidentiality

A

protection of privacy without diminishing access to high-quality care

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8
Q

ethical principles for client care

A

autonomy
beneficence
fidelity
justice
nonmaleficence
veracity

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9
Q

autonomy

A

the right to make one’s own personal decisions, even when those decisions might not be in that person’s best interest

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10
Q

beneficence

A

action that promotes good for others, without any self-interest

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11
Q

fidelity

A

fulfillment of promises

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12
Q

justice

A

fairness in care delivery and use of resources

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13
Q

nonmaleficence

A

a commitment to do no harm

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14
Q

veracity

A

a commitment to tell the truth

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15
Q

ethical dilemma

A

problems that involve more than one choice and stem from differences in the values and beliefs of the decision makers

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16
Q

a problem is an ethical dilemma when (3)

A

1) a review of scientific data is not enough to solve it
2) it involves a conflict between two moral imperatives
3) the answer will have a profound effect on the situation and the client

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17
Q

what to do when making an ethical decision (7)

A

1) identify whether the issue is indeed an ethical dilemma 2) gather as much relevant information as possible about the dilemma 3) reflect on your own values as they relate to the dilemma 4) state the ethical dilemma, including all surrounding issues and the individuals it involves 5) list and analyze all possible options for resolving the dilemma, and review the implications of each option 6) select the option that is in concert with the ethical principle that applies to this situation, the decision maker’s values and beliefs, and the profession’s values for client care. Justify selecting that one option in light of the relevant variables 7) apply this decision to the dilemma and evaulate the outcomes

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18
Q

examples of ethical dilemmas nurses may face

A

1) caring for an adolescent client who has to decide whether to undergo an abortion even though her parents believe it is wrong
2) discussing options with a parent who has to decide whether to consent to a blood transfusion for a child when his religion prohibits such treatment

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19
Q

unintentional torts

A

1) negligence (a nurse fails to implement safety measures for a client at risk for falls)
2) malpractice (a nurse administers a large dose of medication due to a calculation error, the client has a cardiac arrest and dies)

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20
Q

quasi-intentional torts

A

1) breach of confidentiality (a nurse releases a client’s medical diagnosis to a member of the press)
2) defamation of character (a nurse tells a coworker that she believes the client has been unfaithful to her partner)

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21
Q

intentional torts

A

1) assault (a nurse threatens to place an NG tube in a client who is refusing to eat)
2) battery (a nurse restrains a client and administers an injection against her wishes)
3) false imprisonment (a nurse uses restraints on a competent client to prevent his leaving the health care facility)

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22
Q

professional negligence

A

the failure of a person who has professional training to act in a reasonable and prudent manner
– what typically leads to a malpractice suit

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23
Q

five elements necessary to prove negligence

A

1) duty to provide care as defined by a standard (care a nurse should give or what a reasonably prudent nurse would do)
2) breach of duty by failure to meet standard (failure to give the standard of care)
3) foreseeability of harm (knowledge that failing to give the proper standard of care could harm the client)
4) breach of duty has potential to cause harm (failure to meet the standard had potential to cause harm - relationship must be provable)
5) harm occurs

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24
Q

five elements of negligence in nursing with client who has fall risk

A

1) standard of care exists
- - the nurse should complete a fall risk assessment for all clients during admission
2) failure of standard
- - the nurse does not perform a fall risk assessment during admission
3) know of consequences of no standard care
- - the nurse should know that failure to take fall risk precautions could endanger a client at risk for falls
4) relationship between 2&3
- - without a fall risk assessment, the nurse does not know the client’s risk for falls and does not take the proper precautions
5) harm occurs
- - the client falls out of bed and fractures his hip

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25
Q

informed consent

A

a legal process by which a client or the client’s legally appointed designee has given written permission for a procedure or treatment

1) the reason the client needs the treatment or procedure
2) how the treatment or procedure will benefit the client
3) the risks involved if the client chooses to receive the treatment or procedure
4) other options to treat the problem, including not treating the problem

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26
Q

nurses role in informed consent

A

to witness the informed consent

    • ensure that the provider gave the client the necessary information
    • ensure that the client understood the information and is competent to give informed consent
    • have the client sign the informed consent document
    • notify the provider if the client has more questions or appears not to understand any of the information. the provider is then responsible for giving clarification
    • document questions the client has, notification of the provider, reinforcement of teaching, and use of an interpreter
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27
Q

nurses role in advanced directives

A

1) provide written information about advance directives
2) document the client’s advance directives status
3) ensure that the advance directives reflect the client’s current decisions
4) inform all members of the health care team of the client’s advance directives

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28
Q

nursing process

A

cyclical, critical thinking process that consists of five steps to follow in a purposeful, goal-directed systematic way to achieve optimal client outcomes
– dynamic/continuous/client-centered/problem-solving/decision making framework

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29
Q

steps of the nursing process

A

1) assessment/data collection
- - collect information about a client;s present health status to identify need, and to identify additional data to collect based on findings
2) analysis
- - interpret or monitor the collected databse, reach an appropriate nursing judgement about a client’s health status and coping mechanisms, and provide direction for nursing care
3) planning
- - establish priorities and optimal outcomes of care to measure and evaluate. then, select the nursing interventions to include in a client’s plan of care to promote, maintain, or restore health
4) implementation
- - provide care based on assessment data, analyses, and the plan of care
5) evaluation
- - examine a client’s response to nursing interventions and form a clinical judgement about meeting goals and outcomes

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30
Q

sources for data collection (4)

A

1) primary subjective (symptoms)
- - what the client tells the nurse (my should hurts)
2) primary objective (signs)
- - data the nurse obtains through observation and examination (client grimaces when attempting to lift arm)
3) secondary subjective
- - what others tell the nurse based on what the client has told them (she told me her shoulder is sore)
4) secondary objective
- - data the nurse collects from other sources (family/friends/medical records/etc)

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31
Q

3 types of nursing interventions

A

1) nurse-initiated/independent
2) provider-initiated/dependent
3) collaborative

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32
Q

nurse initiated interventions

A

nurses use evidence and scientific rational to take autonomous actions to benefit clients. they base these actions on identified problems and health care needs, and make sure they are within their scope of practice. nurses perform or delegate the interventions and are accountable for them
– an example is repositioning a client at least every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown

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33
Q

provider initiated interventions

A

interventions nurses initiate as a result of a providers prescription (written, standing, or verbal) or the facilities protocol (such as blood administration procedures

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34
Q

goals should be (7)

A

client-centered/singular/observable/measurable /time-limited/mutually-agreeable/reasonable

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35
Q

factors that can lead to lack of goal achievement (4)

A

1) an incomplete database
2) unrealistic client outcomes
3) nonspecific nursing interventions
4) inadequate time for the client to achieve the outcomes

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36
Q

3 levels of critical thinking

A

1) basic critical thinking
- - trusts the experts and thinks concretely based on the rules
- - a client reports pain 1 hour after receiving a pain medication, instead of reassessing the client’s pain, the nurse tells the client he must wait two more hours before he can receive his next dose
2) complex critical thinking
- - begins to express autonomy by analyzing and examining data to determine the best alternative
- - a nurse realizes that a client is not ambulating as often as prescribed because of a fear of missing her daughters phone call. the nurse assures the client that the staff will listen for and answer the phone when she is out of her room
3) commitment
- - able to make choices without help and fully assume the responsibility
- - a nurse increases the rate of an IV fluid infusion when a client’s blood pressure indicates hypovolemic shock 24 hours after surgery

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37
Q

chain of infection (6)

A

1) causative agent
- - bacteria/virus/fungus/prion/parasite
2) reservoir
- - human/animal/food/water/soil/insects
3) portal of exit (from host)
- - respiratory tract/GI tract/GU tract/skin/mucous membranes/blood/body fluids/transplacental
4) mode of transmission
- - contact (direct/indirect/fecal-oral)/droplet /airborne/vector
5) portal of entry (to new host)
- - may be same as exit portal
6) susceptible host
- - compromised defense mechanisms leave the host more vulnerable

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38
Q

stages of an infection (4)

A

1) incubation
- - interval between the pathogen entering the body and the presentation of the first symptom
2) prodromal stage
- - interval from onset of general symptoms to more distinct symptoms, during this time the pathogen is multiplying
3) illness stage
- - interval when symptoms specific to the infection occur
4) convalescence
- - interval when acute symptoms disappear. total recovery could take days to months

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39
Q

Some things to avoid while communicating therapeutically include the following.

A

Using inappropriate plural pronouns (“we”) Assuming the client knows about a health interview or physical Asking personal questions that are not relevant to the situation Giving personal opinions Using automatic responses and false reassurances Relaying disapproval of client statements or health practices

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40
Q

Some of the key elements of therapeutic communication include the following.

A

Ask what the client prefers to be called, otherwise address the client by using their surname. Keep questions focused and relevant to the context and situation. Ask open-ended questions. Redirect the client as needed. Engage in active listening. Restate the client’s view to indicate your understanding. Use everyday language and stay away from medical terms as much as possible. Keep any emotionally charged conversations for last in order to receive any other pertinent information. Give positive reinforcement and reassurance without passing judgment or disapproval

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41
Q

ISBARR

A

ISBARR is a tool to have clear communication for effective client care. Identify. State the team member’s name and title. Situation. Provide the circumstances that have required the communication to occur. Background. Provide the background data regarding the client to assist the provider with familiarity. Assessment. Provide the most recent set of vital signs or other data relevant to the communication. Recommendations. Provide any suggestions that may be helpful to the situation. Read back orders. Repeat the orders that are given and clarify anything that is unclear.

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42
Q

select the action the PN participates in with the nursing process

A

assist the RN with collecting data from the client

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43
Q

what does HIPAA refer to

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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44
Q

therapeutic communication involves which of the following

A
  • touch
  • open-ended questions
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45
Q

which of the following techniques is used with palpation

A

use the palmar side of the hands or the pads of the fingers

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46
Q

which of the following actions by the nurse are examples of infection control?

A

>hand washing with soap and water for 15 seconds
>using an alcohol-based rub when hands are not visibly soiled
>using an alcohol pad to wipe the diaphragm of the stethoscope between clients

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47
Q

which of the following are tools used with auscultation

A

>stethoscope
>doppler

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48
Q

place each step of the nursing process in the correct order

A

>assessment
>analysis
>planning
>implementation
>evaluation

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49
Q

place the steps for communicating with members of the health care team in the correct order

A

identify
current info
background
give
suggestions
repeat order

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50
Q

which of the following is the first action during the physical assessment of the client

A

inspect the client

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51
Q

justice

A

>being open and fair

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52
Q

autonomy

A

>having self-control

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53
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

>avoiding hurt or harm to others

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54
Q

Confidentiality

A

>protecting the privacy of others

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55
Q

Beneficence

A

>helping others in a positive manner

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56
Q

Therapeutic communication

A

>keep any emotionally charged conversations for last
>be vigilant throughout the conversation
>clarify to see if the information is accurate
>redirect the client as needed
>keep questions focused and relevant to the context and situation

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57
Q

nontherapeutic communication

A

>use plural pronouns like “we”
>give personal opinions
>give approval and disapproval
>give false reassurances
>ask for explanations

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58
Q

ISBARR

A
  • Identify
  • Situation
  • Background
  • Assessment
  • Recommendations
  • Read back orders
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59
Q

assessment

A

gather data from the client through interview, physical exam, and observation to judgments

60
Q

Implementation

A

carry out the interventions that have been established, use clinical judgments to monitor the client’s progress towards achieving their goals

61
Q

analysis

A

use clinical judgment to evaluate data collected to formulate the client’s problems

62
Q

evaluation

A

assess the effectiveness and achievability of the goals and the need for interventions to be adjusted

63
Q

planning

A

use problem-solving and decision-making skills to prioritize outcomes and goals, and develop interventions to meet those goals

64
Q

It is the responsibility of the ___________ to validate and analyze the information collected by the PN (LPN) and plan and initiate the interventions to address the client’s health care needs

A

RN

65
Q

Therapeutic communication involves which of the following? (select all that apply)
A. touch
B. open-ended questions
C. sharing you own personal experiences with the client
D. if the client speaks a different language than the nurse, finding someone in the facility that speaks their language

A

A
B

66
Q

Which of the following tolls used with auscultation? (select all that apply)
A. dorsal sides of hands
B. stethoscope
C. penlight
D. doppler
E. tape measure

A

B
D
(dorsal sides of hands are used with precision)

67
Q

What assessment tools are used for feet?

A

inspect
palpate
doppler

68
Q

What assessment tools are used for the chest?

A

inspect
auscultate
stethoscope

69
Q

What assessment tools are used for abdomen?

A

inspect
auscultation
palpate
tape measure
stethoscope

70
Q

What assessment tools are used for the eyes?

A

inspect
penlight
palpate

71
Q

Diaphragm of stethoscope is used for?

A

(larger side)
high-pitched noises (breath sounds, bowel sounds, and normal heart sounds

72
Q

bell side of stethoscope is used for?

A

(smaller side)
soft, low-pitched sounds (extra heart sounds, murmurs

73
Q

When using therapeutic communication ensure a distance of ____________ feet to respect personal space

A

4 to 5

74
Q

In what order do you take vital signs?

A

temperature
pulse
pulse oximetry
respirations
blood pressure

75
Q

_________ data is obtained through direct assessment of a client (inspection, percussion, palpitation, and auscultation)

A

objective

76
Q

____________ data is information that the client tells you in response to assessment questions

A

subjective

77
Q

__________ = sweaty

A

diaphoretic

78
Q

____________ = pallor

A

whitish

79
Q

___________ = cyanosis

A

blueish

80
Q

_____________ = jaundice

A

yellowish

81
Q

______________ = erythema

A

reddish

82
Q

If the client can only whisper or has a hoarse voice this may indicate ___________

A

laryngeal disease

83
Q

If the client’s word choice is appropriate but speech sounds are unclear this may indicate____________

A

dysarthria

84
Q

If the client struggles to find words or express an idea this may indicate _____________

A

form of aphasia

85
Q

If the client’s word choice is unusual this may indicate _____________

A

a thought process abnormality such as echolalia

86
Q

Specific abnormal breath odors such as alcohol; fruity breath which can indicate ___________, malnutrition, or dehydration; and ammonia which could be possible related to ____________

A

diabetes
kidney disease

87
Q

musty body or breath odor can indicate ____________

A

liver disease

88
Q

A fetid (extremely unpleasant) odor can indicate _____________

A

dental or respiratory infection

89
Q

A fecal breath odor can indicate _____________-

A

vomiting due to problems of the bowels

90
Q

Older adults are hunched over known as ___________

A

kyphosis

91
Q

___________ is alteration in muscle tone manifested as increased tonicity.

A

spasticity
increased resistance when attempting to passively extend a joint

92
Q

____________ is alteration in muscle tone manifested as resistance to any manipulation of the joint

A

rigidity

93
Q

___________ is alteration in muscle movement seen as continuous, rapid twitching of a muscle at rest

A

fasciculation

94
Q

__________ is alteration in muscle movement that is seen as a sudden jerking of the arm or leg when falling asleep

A

myoclonus

95
Q

__________ is alteration in muscle movement characterized by involuntary, repetitive movement of a muscle group related to a neurological or psychogenic cause.

A

Tic
grimaces, winks, shoulder shrugs

96
Q

____________ is alteration in muscle movement by opposing muscle groups that result in a rhythmic movement of one or more joints, can occur at rest or when attempting voluntary and purposeful movement

A

tremors

97
Q

Unintentional weight gain ( 5 lb in a day) could indicate ___________

A

fluid retention could lead to heart failure

98
Q

Unintentional weight loss (5% of body weight in a month or 10% in 6 months) could indicate ______________

A

disease process such as:
fever
infection
malignancy
endocrine disease

99
Q

Older adults see a decrease in their heights when they reach ___________

A

80

100
Q

Why do older adults see a reduce in their heights?

A

thinning in the vertebral disk
shortening of the vertebrae
kyphosis
mild flexion of the knees and hips

101
Q

____________ is excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back.an

A

kyphosis

102
Q

Why do older adults see a decrease in body weight?

A

loss of muscle mass & subcutaneous fat

103
Q

_____________ hypothalamus is responsible for heat loss

A

anterior

104
Q

__________ hypothalamus is responsible for heat production and conservation

A

posterior

105
Q

________ occurs to decrease blood flow to the extremities and skin

A

vasoconstriction

106
Q

____________ conserves the core temperature and prevent heat loss

A

vasoconstriction

107
Q

Vasodilation causes ____________

A

evaporation
radiation
conduction
convection

108
Q

Body temperature is at its lowest in ___________

A

morning (1-4 am)

109
Q

When does body temperature peak?

A

4 pm

110
Q

A diminished pulse could indicate ______________

A

weekend heart muscle
hemorrhaging
poor vascular flow to pulse site

111
Q

A strong bounding pulse could indicate?

A

anxiety
increased activity
abnormal condition causing the heart contractility to increase blood pressure

112
Q

How is pulse strength measured?

A 
0 = absent
1+ = weak, thready, diminished pulse
2+ = normal, brisk pulse (expected)
3+ = increased, strong pulse
4+ = bounding, full volume pulse
113
Q

Where can you apply a oximeter?

A

finger
nose
forehead
earlobe
foot

114
Q

__________ and _________ placement of the oximeter have shown to provide faster and more reliable results if the client has poor peripheral blood flow

A

earlobe
forehead

115
Q

What could negatively affect a pulse oximetry reading?

A
  • carbon dioxide poisoning, jaundice, painted finger nails, recent injection of dyes in the circulatory system, dark skin tone
  • clients movements during testing
  • clients who have impaired circulation (peripheral vascular disease, hypothermia, vasoconstriction, hypotension, peripheral edema)
116
Q

__________ is oxygen saturation level less than 90%

A

hypoxia

117
Q

Anxiety can make a client’s breathing rate ____________ due to the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

A

increase

118
Q

Smoking tobacco changes the lining of the airways in the lungs, inhibiting airflow and making clients breathe _____________

A

faster

119
Q

Less hemoglobin means less oxygen and causes ____________ breathing

A

faster

120
Q

Sickled blood cells are malformations that reduce the oxygen-carrying ability of hemoglobin to the cells. This will cause an ___________ in respiratory rate and depth

A

increase

121
Q

Electronic monitoring of the blood pressure should not be used in what type of patient?

A

hypertension
hypotension with systolic less than 90 mm Hg
dysrhythmias
seizures
experienced trauma because the readings will not be accurate

122
Q

Smoking causes the blood vessels to constrict which will cause __________ blood pressure

A

high

123
Q

__________ blood pressure is a test involves taking multiple blood pressure readings in supine, standing, and sitting positions. Allow the patient to rest for 3 minutes after positioning them

A

orthostatic

124
Q

During orthostatic blood pressure test if the patient’s systolic pressure drop 20 mm Hg or decrease of 10 mm Hg in diastolic pressure between positions this indicates _____________

A

orthostatic hypotension

125
Q

Which of the following are researched-validated reasons to conduct a health history using an interpreter? (select all that apply)
A. to increase the self-esteem of the client
B. to increase the accuracy of the communication
C. to decrease the cost of care
D. to increase the client’s satisfaction with care

A

B
D

126
Q

What is the order for the head to toe assessment of the systems?
A. eyes
B. nose
C. neck
D. head
E. ears
F. mouth

A

D. head
A. eyes
E. ears
B. nose
F. mouth
C. neck

127
Q

A nurse is collecting data during a review of systems and asks the client how many pillows are required to sleep comfortably at night. This question involves assessment of which of the following systems?
A. musculoskeletal
B. cardiovascular
C. neurological
D. endocrine

A

B

128
Q

Which of the following factors are included in health literacy? (select all that apply)
A. basic reading skills
B. basic writing skills
C. competency using numbers
D. understanding how to use literacy
E. ability to follow verbal instructions
F. ability to use a computer

A

A
C
E

129
Q

What does FICA stand for when exploring a patient’s spirituality?

A

Faith
Influence
Community
Address

130
Q

What are the systems that are involved in the while-body systems?

A

musculoskeletal
neurologic
hematologic
endocrine

131
Q

Order of the full body assessment?

A

Overall health
skin
head and neck
breast and lymphatics
respiratory system
cardiac and peripheral vascular system
gastrointestinal
genitourinary
whole body systems

132
Q

Conditions that may have a genetic component?

A
  • blood disorders (sickle cell anemia)
  • obesity
  • kidney disease
  • cancer (breast, ovarian, colon, prostate)
  • behavioral health (suicide, depression, bipolar, schizophrenia)
  • stroke
  • substance use disorder
  • seizure disorder
  • dementia / alzheimer’s
  • heart disease ( myocardial infarction, hypertension, hyperlipidemia)
  • diabetes (type 1 & 2)
  • thyroid ( hyperthyroid, hypothyroid)
  • arthritis
  • tuberculosis
  • asthma
  • food allergies
  • medication allergies
133
Q

What does OLD CARTS stand for when collecting details about a presenting problem?

A

onset
location
duration
characteristics
aggravating or alleviating factors
related symptoms
treatment
severity

134
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who is admitted with abdominal pain. The client reports that the pain is “in the stomach and is a crampy, dull ache”. Which type of pain should the nurse identify this client is experiencing?
A. Neuropathic
B. somatic
C. visceral
D. referred

A

C

135
Q

A nurse is reviewing the vital signs for a client who’s admitted with shortness of breath. The nurse notes the client’s respiratory rate is 24/min. The nurse should use which of the following items when documenting this finding?
A. hypoventilation
B. apnea
C. tachypnea
D Chryne-stokes respirations
D labored

A
136
Q

_________ pain begins in the larger internal organs

A

visceral

137
Q

__________ pain is often described as cramping, squeezing, dull pain

A

visceral

138
Q

What are some examples of visceral pain?

A

ureteral colic
acute appendicitis
ulcer pain
colitis (inflammation of the colon)
cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder)

139
Q

_________- pain travels along the autonomic nervous system

A

visceral

140
Q

__________ pain is associated with sweating, nausea, and vomiting

A

visceral

141
Q

__________ pain is often associated with musculoskeletal system

A

somatic

142
Q

Deep _________ pain originates in ,muscles, bones, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels

A

somatic

143
Q

__________ pain is often described as throbbing pain or deep achy feeling

A

somatic

144
Q

___________ pain is associated with sweating, nausea, and tachycardia from an ANS response

A

somatic

145
Q

which tools and techniques to perform assessment of chest

A

inspect

ausculate

stethoscope

146
Q

9 types of nursing documentation errors

A
  • sloppy/illegible handwriting
  • failure to date/time/sign medical entry
  • lack of documentation for omitted meds/treatments
  • incomplete of missing documentation
  • adding entries later on
  • documenting subjective data
  • not questioning incomprehensible orders
  • using the wrong abbreviations
  • entering info in wrong chart

NUR 112 Skills (8 decks)

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