GENERAL SURVEY Flashcards

1
Q

a nurse is assessing a client who is admitted with abdominal pain. the client reports that the pain is “in the stomach and is a crampy, dull ache.” which type of pain should the nurse identify this client is experiencing?

A

visceral

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2
Q

a nurse is reviewing the vital signs for a client who was admitted with shortness of breath. the nurse notes the client’s respiratory rate is 24/min. the nurse should use which of the following terms when documenting this finding?

A

tachypnea

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3
Q

A nurse is measuring the respiratory rate of a client who has an irregular breathing pattern. For how many seconds should the nurse count the client’s respiration?

A

1 full minute

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4
Q

A nurse is measuring the oxygen saturation of a client who has cyanosis of the extremities. using a pulse oximeter, where does the nurse place the sensor probe?

A

> forehead
forefinger
bridge of nose
earlobe

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5
Q

which of the following is considered an unexpected finding for a 40-year-old client’s pulse?

A

stronger radial pulse on left compared to right

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6
Q

a nurse is taking a rectal temperature on a client. which of the following actions does the nurse perform?

A

> lubricates the probe cover

>inserts the probe into rectum 1 to 1.5 in

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7
Q

A nurse is performing an initial survey on a client and calculates a BMI of 31 kg/m^2. The nurse classifies this client in which of the following wight ranges

A

obese

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8
Q

A nurse is calculating the BMI for a client who weighs 150 lb and is 5ft 4 in… what is the BMI

A

25.7

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9
Q

A nurse is assessing a client’s behavior during the initial survey. Which of the following does the nurse include in this assessment.

A

> client’s clothing

>client’s speech

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10
Q

A nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client’s skin. Which of the following observations will require further assessment of the client’s circulation?

A

Cyanosis is noted on fingers

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11
Q

you are documenting the client’s pain in a narrative note. which of the following statements would be most appropriate to include in the medical record?

A

“my pain is a 7”

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12
Q

You are documenting the client’s level of orientation in a narrative note. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate to include in the medical record?

A

The client is oriented to person and situation but unable to correctly identify the time

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13
Q

which sample charting would be most appropriate to include in the medical record?

A

Mr. Dobbs is cooperative and follows commands. He is oriented to person, and situation but is unable to correctly identify the current year. The client states “My pain is a 7” and identifies his stomach as the site of his pain. Client is observed grimacing and holding his hand over his stomach. His skin is intact with exception of noticeable dry patches on scalp and a scar on the right knee. He is able to walk without assistance

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14
Q

A nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client’s skin. Which of the following observations will require further assessment of the client’s circulation?

A: Skin is warm to touch
B: Skin is dry
C: Freckles are noted on face
D: Cyanosis is noted on fingers

A

D: Cyanosis is noted on fingers

Rationale: Cyanosis, or bluish skin color, indicates poor blood flow. The nurse will need to check capillary refill and radial pulses.

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15
Q

A nurse is assessing a client’s behavior during the initial survey. Which of the following does the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.

A: Client's level of education
B: Client's clothing
C: Client's speech
D: Client's occupation
E: Client's hobbies
A

B: Client’s clothing

Rationale: The type of clothing a client is wearing can offer information to the nurse about client behavior. For example, a client wearing dirty, unkempt clothing may have a lack of desire to look neat due to depression, or an inability to care for self due to financial or physical concerns

C: Client’s speech

Rationale: The client’s speech is included in the assessment of client behavior. For example, a client who has difficulty expressing an idea could have aphasia

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16
Q

A nurse is performing an initial survey on a client and calculates a BMI of 31 kg/m^2. The nurse classifies this client in which of the following weight ranges?

A: Underweight
B: Normal weight
C: Overweight
D: Obese

A

D: Obese

Rationale: A client with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m^2 is considered obese

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17
Q

A nurse is taking a rectal temperature on a client. Which of the following actions does the nurse perform? Select all that apply.

A: Selects the blue probe.
B: Lubricates the probe cover
C: Asks the client to lie in a prone position
D: Inserts the probe into the rectum 1 to 1.5in
E: Cleans probe with warm soapy water after use

A

B: Lubricates the probe cover

Rationale: The cover is lubricated for comfort and prevention of injury

D: Inserts the probe into the rectum 1 to 1.5in

Rationale: The nurse does not want to insert further than 1.5in due to risk of injury

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18
Q

Which of the following is considered an unexpected finding for a 40-year-old client’s pulse?

A: Brisk pulse strength of +2
B: Equal time space between each pulsation
C: Pulse rate of 95/min
D: Stronger radial pulse on left compared to right

A

D: Stronger radial pulse on left compared to right

Rationale: An equal bilateral pulse is considered an expected finding. This assessment may indicate blood flow or malposition of the right radial artery

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19
Q

A nurse is measuring the oxygen saturation of a client who has cyanosis of the extremities. Using a pulse oximeter, where does the nurse place the sensor probe? Select all that apply.

A: Forefinger
B: Thumb
C: Forehead
D: Bridge of nose
E: Earlobe
F: Great toe
A

C: Forehead
D: Bridge of nose
E: Earlobe

Rationale: When a client has cyanosis of the extremities, it is best to select an area with good circulation.

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20
Q

A nurse is measuring the respiratory rate of a client who has an irregular breathing pattern. For how many seconds should the nurse count the client’s respirations?

A

1 min (or 60 seconds)

Rationale:
The nurse should count respirations of a client who has an irregular breathing pattern for 1 full minute. This ensures that the calculated rate is accurate.

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21
Q

A nurse is reviewing the vital signs for a client who was admitted with shortness of breath. The nurse notes the client’s respiratory rate is 24/min. The nurse should use which of the following terms when documenting this finding?

A: Hypoventilation
B: Apnea
C: Tachypnea
D: Cheyne-stokes respirations
E: Labored
A

C: Tachypnea

Rationale: Tachypnea is the term for a respiratory rate which is above the expected range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute for an adult

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22
Q
A nurse is assessing a client who is admitted with abdominal pain. The client reports that the pain is "in the stomach and is a crampy, dull ache." Which type of pain should the nurse identify this client is experiencing?
A: Neuropathic
B: Somatic
C: Visceral
D: Referred
A

C: Visceral

Rationale: Visceral is pain related to large internal organs

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23
Q

A nurse is admitting a client who is 162.6 cm (64 in) tall and weighs 68.2 kg (150 lb). Using the BMI table shown below, what should the nurse record as the client’s BMI? (You will find hot spots to select in the artwork below. Select only the hot spot that corresponds to your answer.)

A

B is correct. The nurse should identify that 25 is the BMI of the client.

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24
Q
A nurse is conducting a general survey on a client and notes a continuous twitching movement of a muscle in the client's left arm. Which of the following terms should the nurse use to describe this involuntary movement?
Fasciculation
Spasticity
Tic
Myoclonus
A

Fasciculation

A client who has fasciculation will exhibit a continuous twitching motion of a muscle when the muscle is at rest.

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25
Q
A nurse is documenting information in a client's medical record during an initial assessment. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the documentation? (Select all that apply.)
Current medication list
Past medical history
Use of assistive devices
Height and weight
Behavior and mood
A

Use of assistive devices is correct. The client’s use of assistive devices is part of the initial assessment and should be documented at this time.

Height and weight is correct. Measuring the client’s height and weight is part of the initial assessment and should be documented at this time.

Behavior and mood is correct. Observing the client’s behavior and mood is part of the initial assessment and should be documented at this time.

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26
Q

A nurse is preparing to obtain a client’s height during a general survey. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Measure the client’s shoe heel height with a tape measure and deduct this amount.
Have the client gently lift their chin and look toward the ceiling.
Ensure the client’s feet are in contact with the wall or measuring pole.
Skip the height measurement if the client cannot stand.

A

Ensure the client’s feet are in contact with the wall or measuring pole.

The nurse should ensure that the client’s feet, shoulders, and buttocks are in direct contact with the measuring pole or against the wall if the stadiometer is a wall-mounted device.

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27
Q
A nurse is caring for a middle adult client who has stomatitis and is unable to hold an oral probe in their mouth. Which of the following alternative routes should the nurse use to obtain the most accurate core temperature of the client?
Axillary
Temporal
Tympanic
Rectal
A

Rectal

Although rectal temperatures are usually higher than oral temperatures, it is the most accurate method for obtaining a client’s core temperature. Because obtaining a rectal temperature is invasive, it is not used often, but it is typically the route selected for a client who is not able to hold an oral probe in their mouth.

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28
Q
A nurse is having difficulty obtaining a pulse oximetry reading from a client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors can interfere with obtaining a pulse oximetry reading?
Hypertension
Fever
Recent scan with contrast dye
Thin, brittle nails
A

Recent scan with contrast dye

A nurse might have difficulty obtaining a pulse oximetry reading from a client who has recently undergone testing that involved the injection of a contrast dye into the circulatory system. The dyes can alter the transmission of the LED light used by the pulse oximetry sensor.

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29
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting pain as 4 on a scale of 0 to 10. Upon further assessment, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as manifestations of chronic pain? (Select all that apply.)
The client reports that the pain has been present for approximately 4 years.
The client reports never feeling total relief from pain.
The client’s pain can be attributed to an acute injury or illness.
The client reports that the pain is recurring and does not always originate in the same location.
The client describes the pain as transient.

A

The client reports that the pain has been present for approximately 4 years is correct. Pain is diagnosed as chronic once it has been present for 6 months or longer.

The client reports never feeling total relief from pain is correct. Persistent pain is defined as pain that lasts longer than 6 months and can reach a severe level. The pain continues to persist after the predicted trajectory of healing, and the level of pain does not correspond to physical findings.

The client reports that the pain is recurring and does not always originate in the same location is correct. Recurrent pain that does not always originate in the same location can indicate abnormal processing of stimuli from pain receptors. As a result, chronic pain can originate from peripheral sites to the source of the pain.

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30
Q

A nurse is planning on obtaining an orthostatic blood pressure from a client who has syncope. In what order should the nurse take the following steps? (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)

  1. Take the client’s blood pressure in a seated position.
  2. Take the client’s blood pressure in the supine position.
  3. Keep the cuff in place and assist the client to a seated position.
  4. Place the client in a supine position and allow them to rest.
  5. Assist the client to stand and obtain their blood pressure.
A

Place the client in a supine position and allow them to rest is the first step. The nurse should place the client in the supine position and have them rest for at least 3 min.

Take the client’s blood pressure in the supine position is the second step. The nurse should take the client’s baseline BP and pulse reading while the client is supine.

Keep the cuff in place and assist the client to a seated position is the third step. The nurse should keep the cuff in place and assist the client to a seated position.

Take the client’s blood pressure in a seated position is the fourth step. The nurse should take the client’s blood pressure and pulse while they are in a seated position.

Assist the client to stand and obtain their blood pressure is the fifth step. The nurse should assist the client to stand and take a standing blood pressure and pulse reading. Orthostatic hypotension is indicated by a drop in systolic pressure of greater than 20 mm Hg or in diastolic pressure of greater than 10 mm Hg after the client stands.

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31
Q

A nurse is conducting a general survey on a client who is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The nurse is assessing the client’s emotional state. Which of the following findings should the nurse record as a subjective, unexpected finding?
The client is sitting in a relaxed posture.
The client asks for a tissue and uses it to wipe away an occasional tear.
The client tells the nurse that visits from their friends and family make them smile.
The client reports they feel sad and lonely most of the time.

A

The client reports they feel sad and lonely most of the time.

The nurse should record this statement as a subjective, unexpected finding. It is subjective because it is something the client reported, and it is unexpected because a client who reports feeling sad and lonely most of the time should be evaluated for depression.

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32
Q

A nurse is documenting a client’s vital signs in the medical record following a general survey. Which of the following entries should the nurse place in the record?
Temperature 95° F, client is hypothermic
Pulse rate indicates tachycardia
Oxygen saturation 96% on oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Blood pressure 108/65 mm Hg in left arm

A

Oxygen saturation 96% on oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula

The nurse should record the percentage of the client’s oxygen saturation and indicate whether the client is on room air or is receiving oxygen. If the client is on oxygen, the nurse should record the type of the device and the rate at which oxygen is being delivered.

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33
Q
A nurse is completing an initial assessment checklist on an older adult client. The client is accompanied by their caregiver. For which of the following indicators should the nurse observe when assessing for potential maltreatment of the client? (Select all that apply.)
Dirty clothing
Unexplained physical injuries
Oriented to person, place, and time
Able to express coherent thoughts
Malnourished appearance
A

Dirty clothing is correct. Dirty clothing on a client can be an indicator of neglect.

Unexplained physical injuries is correct. Unexplained physical injuries can be an indication of physical abuse and require further assessment.

Malnourished appearance is correct. A malnourished appearance might indicate that the client’s caregiver is failing to provide basic necessities, such as food or water, and can be an indicator of neglect.

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34
Q

A nurse assesses a client’s respiratory rate and notes that it is below the expected reference range. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings can cause a decreased respiratory rate?
The client has been a chronic smoker for 10 years.
The client takes a narcotic pain medication for chronic pain.
The client reports anxiety due to being in the hospital.
The client has a history of anemia.

A

The client takes a narcotic pain medication for chronic pain.

Some medications for pain, such as narcotics and opioid analgesics, can depress the rate as well as the depth of respirations due to depressing the central nervous system.

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35
Q
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who asks, "What are things that can affect my blood pressure?" Which of the following information should the nurse include as factors that affect blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
Time of day
Obesity
Diuretic medication
Height
Smoking
A

Time of day is correct. The nurse should explain to the client that blood pressure will increase during the day and begin to decrease in the late afternoon.

Obesity is correct. Clients who are obese are at an increased risk for developing hypertension.

Diuretic medication is correct. A client who takes diuretic medication will have a decreased blood pressure due to the reduction of resorption of sodium and water by the kidneys.

Smoking is correct. Vasoconstriction of blood vessels occurs when a person smokes, causing an increase in blood pressure.

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36
Q
A nurse is obtaining a client's pulse and notes a regular rhythm with a rate of 110/min. The nurse should identify this as which of the following unexpected findings?
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Pulse deficit
A

Tachycardia

A heart rate of greater than 100/min is considered tachycardia. The nurse should further assess the client for a potential cause, such as anxiety, fever, or pain.

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37
Q
A nurse is assessing a client's respirations and notes they are shallow and at a rate of 24/min. The nurse should identify this as which of the following unexpected findings?
Tachypnea
Bradypnea
Apnea
Hyperventilation
A

Tachypnea

A client who has rapid, shallow breathing at a rate greater than 20 to 24/min is experiencing tachypnea. Tachypnea can be caused by fever, fear, or exercise, as well as client conditions like alkalosis or pneumonia.

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38
Q

Assessment

A

gather data from the client through interview, PE, and observation to make judgements

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39
Q

Planning

A

use problem-solving and decision making skills to prioritize outcomes and goals, and develop interventions to meet those goals

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40
Q

Implentation

A

carry out the interventions that have been established, use clinical judgement to monitor the client’s progress towards achieving their goals

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41
Q

Analysis

A

use clinical judgement to evaluate data collected to formulate the client’s problems, including actual and potential problems

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42
Q

evaluation

A

assess the effectiveness and achievability of the goals and the need for interventions to be adjusted

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43
Q

What are some parts of critical thinking? (5)

A

contextual awareness, analyzing assumptions, exploring alternatives, using credible sources, reflecting and deciding

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44
Q

what is contextual awareness?

A

understanding the status of the client and the events that have led to their interaction with the healthcare team

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45
Q

what does analyzing assumptions involve?

A

involves the nurse evaluating the client’s clinical situation and the use or modification of standard approaches to meet the health needs and concerns of the client

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46
Q

Example of analyzing assumption w someone who has an open fraction to a lower extremity. what would be more beneficial?

A

nurse should evaluate whether it would be more beneficial to perform a focused assessment of the injured area or to engage in a standard head to toe approach when performing the health assessment

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47
Q

how would you explore alternatives in nursing?

A

this includes the use of holistic approaches for treating the whole person

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48
Q

what factors should be considered when providing care for a patient?

A

a culmination of the individual’s physical health, lifestyle choices, culture, living environments, and life experiences

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49
Q

what is considered using credible sources when providing care?

A

using institution standards, state standards, and multiply scholarly sources to determine best practices

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50
Q

how does reflecting and deciding the best care for the patient essential?

A

nurses should do self reflecting, then reflect on the client goals and decide on interventions with client input

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51
Q

what should the nurse be aware of?

A

appropriate methods of communication among team members

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52
Q

what kind of care is a priority?

A

evidence based

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53
Q

what is not part of critical thinking for PNs

A

analyzing assumptions

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54
Q

what are the ethical practices? 5

A

nonmaleficence, beneficence, autonomy, justice, confidentiality

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55
Q

what is first and foremost in healthcare?

A

nonmaleficence

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56
Q

what does nonmaleficence mean?

A

to do no harm

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57
Q

what does beneficence mean?

A

to act to promote the good of the client

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58
Q

what is the ultimate goal for the client

A

a return to health and homeostasis

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59
Q

what does autonomy mean?

A

the client’s right to make decisions. they may also refuse treatment if they desire

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60
Q

what is important to note for autonomy?

A

the client needs to have the mental capacity to act and desire on their own behalf

61
Q

what does justice mean?

A

treat everyone fairly regardless of their ability to pay for treatment, their social status, or cultural or religious background

62
Q

what should nurses be when providing care?

A

fair and impartial

63
Q

what does confidentiality mean?

A

respecting the rights of the client to maintain privacy

64
Q

what is HIPPA?

A

the health insurance portability and accountability act of 1996

65
Q

what does HIPPA do?

A

is a law that establishes public standards regarding, how, with whom, and when health information can be shared

66
Q

what does HIPPA ensure?

A

ensures protection and security of personal health information electronically, verbally, and written

67
Q

what is infection control?

A

consists of using standard precautions during a physical assessment and should be implemented with all clients

68
Q

what is not appropriate to think in regards to infection control?

A

cannot think “the client looks clean” and not wear gloves with contact

69
Q

what is hand hygiene

A

first line of defense
must wash for at least 15 seconds and use friction
should be done before and after or whenever

70
Q

how long should you rub when using an alcohol based rub

A

20s to 30s

71
Q

what does PPE stand for?

A

personal protective equipment

72
Q

what is part of PPE?

A

googles or face shields, gowns, masks, and gloves

73
Q

what is physical privacy?

A

needed to make client feel secure. curtain should be pulled, doors closed, draping can be used with blankets

74
Q

what should be taken into consideration with physical privacy?

A

religious, cultural, and personal preferences

75
Q

what should a room have for physical privacy?

A

an exam table or client bed that can be raised or lowered during the exam, a pillow, blanket or sheet, and a bedside table

76
Q

what is personal privacy?

A

maintain the cient’s personal privacy throughout the assessment as well.

77
Q

what does personal privacy entail?

A

maintaining confidentiality and ensuring that the client has been identified properly

78
Q

what is client identification?

A

an institution policy that involves an identification bracelet scanner in some facilities or ask name and date of birth and compare to their bracelet

79
Q

what is mandated reporting?

A

if a nurse suspects abuse, by law they are required by law to report it. It can involve a child, adult, dependent adult, or older adult

80
Q

what are the categories for mandated reporting?

A

physical neglect or abuse, psychological or emotional abuse, and sexual abuse

81
Q

What is ISBARR

A

Identify, situation, background, assessment, recommendation, read back orders

82
Q

spasticity

A

alteration in muscle tone manifested as increased tonicity

83
Q

rigidity

A

alteration in muscle tone manifested as resistance to any manipulation of the joint

84
Q

fasciculation

A

alteration in muscle movement seen as continuous, rapid twitching of a muscle at rest

85
Q

myoclonus

A

alteration in muscle movement that is seen as a sudden jerking of muscle

86
Q

example of myoclonus

A

hiccups, seizure activity, and a single myoclonic jerk of the arm or leg

87
Q

tic

A

alteration in muscle movement characterized by involuntary, repetitive movement of a muscle group related to a neurologic or psychogenic nause

88
Q

tremors

A

alteration in muscle movement by opposing muscle groups that results in a rhythmic movement of one or more joints

89
Q

what do you use to measure height

A

stadiometer

90
Q

what do you use to weigh adolescent and adults

A

standing balance or an electronic scale

91
Q

BMI formula lbs

A

lb/height in x 703

92
Q

BMI formula kg

A

kg/height m

93
Q

BMI #s for adults underweight, healthy wt, overwt, obese

A

<18.5 kg/m, 18.5-24.9 kg/m, 25-29.9 kg/m, 30+

94
Q

Oral expected temp, avg temp, and older adult

A

36-38
37 (98.6)
35-36.1 C due to less body fat

95
Q

Rectal temp how much higher than oral

A

0.5 C and 0.9 F higher

96
Q

temporal temp how much higher than oral

A

nearly 0.5 C and 1 F higher

97
Q

axillary temp how much higher than oral

A

usually 0.5 C and 0.9 F higher

98
Q

tympanic temp how much higher than oral

A

consistent w oral

99
Q

most accurate temp readin

A

rectal

100
Q

least accurate temp

A

axillary

101
Q

visceral pain and how is it described

A

begins in the larger internal organs

described as deep cramping, squeezing, dull pain

102
Q

example of visceral pain

A

appendicitis

103
Q

somatic pain

A

associated with the musculoskeletal system

104
Q

deep somatic pain originates from where?

A

in muscles, bones, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels

105
Q

describe somatic pain

A

throbbing pain or deep achy feeling

106
Q

what is ANS response

A

sweating, nausea, and tachycardia

107
Q

acute pain is also known as

A

transient pain

108
Q

how long is acute pain

A

has a short duration and is related to an injury or illness, pain does not last for more than 6 months

109
Q

chronic pain is also known as

A

persistent pain

110
Q

chronic pain

A

last longer than 6 months, pain is recurring and can reach a severe level

111
Q

2 types of chronic pain

A

malignant or nonmalignant

112
Q

malignant pain is caused by

A

tissue death (necrosis) or organ distention caused by a growing tumor

113
Q

nonmalignant pain is caused by

A

wide variety of causes including musculoskeletal conditions and nerve disorders

114
Q

what are the four main components of the general survey?

A

physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior

115
Q

age goes under which category of the general survey?

A

physical appearance (do they look how old they say to be)

116
Q

sex goes under which category of the general survey?

A

physical appearance (is their sexual growth and development appropriate for their age)

117
Q

level of consciousness goes under which category of the general survey?

A

physical appearance (are they alert and oriented and respond appropriately to your questions) A & O x 3 they know the person, place, and time

118
Q

skin color goes under which category of the general survey?

A

physical appearance (is their tone even and is their skin intact)

119
Q

facial features goes under which category of the general survey?

A

physical appearance (does their fair make symmetric movements)

120
Q

stature goes under which category of the general survey?

A

body structure (does their height appear normal for their age)

121
Q

nutrition goes under which category of the general survey?

A

body structure (does their weight appear evenly distributed)

122
Q

position and posture goes under which category of the general survey?

A

body structure (do they stand and sit comfortably)

123
Q

body build and contour goes under which category of the general survey?

A

body structure (is their arm span equal to their height and are the halves of their body equal in length)

124
Q

gait and range of motion goes under which category of the general survey?

A

mobility
gait= they walk smooth and shoulder match to foot width
range of motion= full mobility of each joint

125
Q

facial expression, mood, speech, dress, and hygiene goes under which category of the general survey?

A

behavior

126
Q

term for a person’s emotional and cognitive functioning

A

mental status

127
Q

this assessment focuses on the effect that illness has on the patient and family.

A

mental status assessment

128
Q

term for a significant behavioral or psychological pattern that is associated with distress and the person’s response is much greater than what is expected

A

mental disorder

129
Q

mental status functioning is inferred through what?

A

individual behaviors

130
Q

what are the four main parts of the mental status examination? (ABCT)

A

appearance
behavior
cognition
thought processes

131
Q

when do you perform a mental status examination?

A

when you discover any abnormality

132
Q

what should you look for when noting appearance in the mental status examination?

A

posture and position, body movement, dress, grooming, and hygiene

133
Q

what should you look for when noting behavior in the mental status examination?

A

level of consciousness, facial expression, speech, and mood and affect

134
Q

when dealing with cognitive functions in the mental status examination, what does orientation deal with?

A

the date, season, and the year

135
Q

orientation, attention span, recent and remote memory, and new learning (4 unrelated words test) all deal with which part of the mental status examination?

A

cognition

136
Q

term for the absence of speech

A

aphasia

137
Q

term for being able to compare and evaluate alternatives in a situation and reach an appropriate course of action

A

judgement

138
Q

this is a simplified scored form of the cognitive functions of the mental status examination that has a maximum score of 30

A

mini mental exam (27 is a normal mental status)

139
Q

this testing for kids is designed to detect developmental delays

A

denver II screening

140
Q

what is the additional mental testing for older adults called?

A

the mini-cog (screens for cognitive impairment) clock drawing test and 3-item recall test

141
Q

what are the two types of intimate partner violences?

A
  1. physical and/or sexual violence
  2. psychological and emotional or coercive tactics when there has been prior physical and/or sexual violence between persons who are spouses, nonmarital partners, or former spouses or partners
142
Q

what must the actions be in elder abuse and neglect?

A

intentional actions

143
Q

assessing for intimate partner violence is ________.

A

universal (asking every women at every health care encounter if they have been abused)

144
Q

what is the test used to asses for IPV/domestic violence in older women?

A

abuse assessment screen

145
Q

who does the AMA Elder Abuse Screening test?

A

older adults who are cognitively intact

146
Q

when screening for child abuse and neglect, where should the caregiver be?

A

away from the child so they don’t change their answers. its important to get the childs age and developmental level

147
Q

term for any injury beyond temporary redness of the skin

A

trauma

148
Q

this test assess for the risk of homicide

A

DA danger assessment (yes/no assessment)