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Dental Hygiene > Head, Neck, And Dental Anatomy > Flashcards

Head, Neck, And Dental Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Which anterior tooth has the longest root?

A

maxillary canine

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2
Q

Which teeth have the most prominent lingual aspect?

A

maxillary incisors

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3
Q

How many mamelons are on teeth?

A

3

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4
Q

How many fossae in maxillary canine?

A

2

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5
Q

T/F there is a cingulum on all teeth

A

F All anterior teeth

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6
Q

What is the function of incisors?

A

Cutting/biting

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7
Q

What # is the maxillary left lateral incisor?

A

10

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8
Q

On a mandibular canine, the root tip is ______ to the root axis.

A

lingual

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9
Q

The mandibular canines are much greater ___ than maxillary canines.

A

F-L than M-D

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10
Q

Cervical lines typically curve ______

A

mesially

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11
Q

This anterior tooth may have two roots and two root canals.

A

mandibular canine

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12
Q

When is the root completed on the maxillary centrals?

A

10 yrs

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13
Q

How many cusps does a canine have?

A

1

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14
Q

Height of contour on anterior teeth?

A

cervical third

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15
Q

Which anterior teeth vary the most in the mouth?

A

maxillary lateral incisors

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16
Q

Smallest teeth in the mouth

A

mandibular central incisors

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17
Q

Most prominent teeth in the mouth M-D

A

maxillary centrals

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18
Q

4 lobes contribute to

A

cingulum and mamelons

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19
Q

Which tooths cusp is centered lingually?

A

mandibular canine

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20
Q

has a lingual ridge

A

maxillary canine

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21
Q

Which tooth had the most prominent labial ridge?

A

maxillary canine

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22
Q

Enamel is __% mineralized and __% organic material

A

96; 4

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23
Q

The most organic part of the enamel is the ___ ______.

A

rod sheath

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24
Q

This occurs as a result of rhythmic recurrent deposit of enamel

A

Striae of Retzius

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25
Q

Dentinal tubules that extend across the DEJ into the enamel

A

Dentinal spindles; the terminal end of the spindle would be an enamel spindle

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26
Q

Ridges usually seen in the cervical third of enamel

A

Imbrication lines (perikymata are grooves)

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27
Q

What % is dentin mineralized?

A

70

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28
Q

What dentin forms the bulk of crowns

A

mantle/ primary

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29
Q

Where is enamel the thickest?

A

occlusal/incisal edge

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30
Q

Which dentin protects the pulp, and is also referred to as osteodentin?

A

tertiary/reparative dentin

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31
Q

The band of newly formed unmineralized matrix of dentin; present at the pulpal border

A

predentin

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32
Q

Dentin material deposited incrementally almost daily

A

lines of von ebner/incremental lines

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33
Q

A line that reflects the abrupt change in the environment at or near birth

A

neonatal line

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34
Q

The less calcified area at the DCJ beneath cementum

A

Tomes granular layer

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35
Q

This dentin doesnt start forming until the root is completed; forms after apical foramen is completed

A

secondary dentin

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36
Q

Dentinal fluid crystallizes and fills in the tubule

A

sclerotic dentin

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37
Q

What cells are found in the pulp?

A

fibroblasts, odontoblasts, nerve cells, and blood cells

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38
Q

Odontoblasts in mature cells are found where?

A

Line the perimeter of the pulp (outer pulp wall)

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39
Q

Cold water is used to stimulate dentinal tubules causing pressure on nerve endings. (Refers to what people commonly believe causes tooth sensitivity)

A

hydrodynamic theory

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40
Q

What changes occur in the pulp with aging?

A

pulpal cells DECREASE in number

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41
Q

Calcified masses appearing in either canal or coronal portions of the pulp organ

A

denticles (pulp stones)

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42
Q

Name the tissues in the periodontium

A

Alveolar bone

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43
Q

Cementum is formed by?

A

cementoblasts (originate from PDL fibroblasts that come from sheath cells)

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44
Q

Unlike bone, cementum lacks what?

A

blood vessels

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45
Q

Why is cementum not sensitive to pain?

A

it lacks nerves

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46
Q

Intermediate cementum comes from what?

A

epithelial cells of the root sheath

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47
Q

Where is cellular cementum found?

A

apical 1/3

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48
Q

Most abrasive to least abrasive….

A

Enamel, dentin, cementum

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49
Q

Where do pulp and dentin come from?

A

dental papilla

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50
Q

What is the most common CEJ pattern?

A

overlap

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51
Q

What are the parts of the PDL that are inserted into the cementum on one end and bone on the other?

A

Sharpeys fibers

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52
Q

Elastic-like fibers that support the blood vessel walls and collagen bundles.

A

oxytalin fibers

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53
Q

Originate from the cervical region of each crown and extends into similar locations on adjacent teeth

A

transeptal/interdental fibers

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54
Q

Oblique fibers resist what forces?

A

Intrusive masticatory

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55
Q

Occur only in single root teeth

A

Apical fiber group

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56
Q

What are epithelial rests of Malassez?

A

Remnants of the rooth sheath

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57
Q

What are the functions of the PDL?

A

Support

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58
Q

Radiographically, lamina dura is

A

radiopaque

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59
Q

The principle fibers that remain the longest are

A

interseptal/transseptal

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60
Q

Alveolar bone proper is also known as

A

cribiform plate, lamina dura, bundle bone

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61
Q

Because it is regularly penetrated by collagen fiber bundles, alveolar bone proper is also known as…

A

bundle bone

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62
Q

Interdental bone septum is rounded on the _____ and flat on the ______.

A

anterior; posterior (molar area)

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63
Q

Loss of bone near root apices

A

fenestration

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64
Q

Bone loss in the cervical area of the root

A

dehiscense

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65
Q

Which material is the least stable of the periodontal tissue?

A

alveolar bone

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66
Q

Which organelle functions as protein factories

A

Ribosomes

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67
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus

A

Package Proteins

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68
Q

Which vesicles are produced by the golgi apparatus

A

lysosomes

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69
Q

which organelles do the cells energy come from

A

mitochondria

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70
Q

in which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes seperate into chromatids

A

anaphase

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71
Q

in which phase does the cell actually divide

A

telophase

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72
Q

what is between the epithelium and the connective tissue

A

basement membrane

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73
Q

most common type of cell in connective tissue is..

A

fibroblast

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74
Q

which part of the bone has the blood vessels

A

periosteum

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75
Q

how does the mandible develope

A

intramembranous

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76
Q

b-cells are mature in

A

bone marrow

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77
Q

what is involved in the direct defense mechanism of the body

A

neutrophil

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78
Q

what neural tissue conducts nerve impluses away from the nerve cell body

A

axon

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79
Q

which does not hace submucosa

A

hard palate

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80
Q

what are epithelial extensions into the connective tissue

A

rete pegs

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81
Q

the stippled texture is a result of..

A

rete pegs

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82
Q

A cell to cell attachment is a

A

desmosome

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83
Q

papillae involved with hairy tongue

A

filiform

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84
Q

papillae that have no taste buds

A

filiform

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85
Q

salivary glands of circumvallate papillae

A

Ebners Gland

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86
Q

Dry mouth

A

Xerostomia

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87
Q

attached gingiva is: keratinized or nonkeratinized

A

keratinized

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88
Q

highest rate of cell turnover

A

junctional epithelium

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89
Q

valley like depression

A

Col

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90
Q

The articular disk connects medial and laterally to the

A

condyle head

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91
Q

compartments in TMJ

A

synovial cavities

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92
Q

innervention of masticatory muscles

A

mandibular division of trigeminal nerves

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93
Q

protrudes mandible

A

lateral pterygoid

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94
Q

what are the muscles of mastication?

A

masseter

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95
Q

functional unit of salivary glands

A

acinus

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96
Q

glands located opposite of maxillary 2nd molars

A

parotid

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97
Q

largest salivary gland

A

parotid

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98
Q

salivary gland that produces mostly serous sevretion?

A

paortid

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99
Q

salivary gland that produces most of saliva

A

submandibular

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100
Q

submandibular gland secretes from

A

caruncles

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101
Q

major enzyme in saliva

A

amylase

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102
Q

surrounds the oropharynx in a ring

A

Waldeyer’s ring

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103
Q

bulk of tissue in lamina propria:

A

connective tissue

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104
Q

sulcus is: keratinized or nonkeratinized

A

nonkeratinized

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105
Q

lining mucosa is found:

A

soft palate

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106
Q

specialized is found:

A

dorsal and lateral surface of tongue

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107
Q

Tooth enamel is part of the:

A

Ectoderm

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108
Q

The muscles of mastication are located in ____ pharyngeal arch

A

In the 1st pharyngeal arch

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109
Q

If cleft palate if going to develop, it will be in the

A

7th - 11th week

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110
Q

The body of the tongue develops from the ____ ______ ______ _______ and _______ ______ _________ _______.

A

two lateral lingual swellings and centrally located tuberculum impar

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111
Q

Foramen cecum is the initial site of the descent of the tubular down growth resulting in the ______

A

thyroid gland

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112
Q

Complete cleft lip is caused when the ______ and ____ _____ ______ do not fuse together

A

maxillary and medial nasal processes

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113
Q

What is the first step in the stages of tooth development:

A

bud stage

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114
Q

The first sign of tooth formation is the development of dental lamina rising from the oral epithelium

A

bud stage

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115
Q

Inner enamel epithelial cells become the

A

ameloblasts

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116
Q

The peripheral cells of the dental papilla become:

A

odontoblasts

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117
Q

Primary enamel cuticle fuses with the overlying oral epithelium and forms the:

A

reduced enamel epithelium

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118
Q

Cell proliferation of the IEE and OEE continues at the base of the enamel organ. This is the

A

cervical loop

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119
Q

The fusion of OEE and IEE to form the epithelial root sheath or:

A

Hertwigs root sheath

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120
Q

________ ________ guides the teeth in their movement to ensure complete tooth eruption

A

Gubernaculum Cord

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121
Q

________ and ______ constantly remodel the alveolar bone as the teeth enlarge and move forward in the direction of the growing face

A

osteoclasts and osteoblasts

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122
Q

several small masses of calcified dental tissues that more or less resemble small teeth

A

Compound odontoma

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123
Q

a tooth within a tooth

A

dens in dente

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124
Q

which teeth are the teeth most frequently involved in dens in dente?

A

permanent maxillary lateral incisors

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125
Q

tooth attempts to divide itself by splitting its tooth germ; usually has a single root and common root canal (a tooth that tries to twin itself)

A

Germination

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126
Q

occurs when 2 adjacent tooth germs unite. They may be united along a part of, or entire length of the tooth. (2 teeth that try to join; usually join at dentin)

A

Fusion

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127
Q

If teeth are only connected by their cementum, then ___________ has occurred.

A

Concresence

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128
Q

Notched incisors, sometimes called screwdriver shaped

A

Hutchinsons Incisors

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129
Q

Hutchinsons Incisors are formed as a result of ______________

A

prenatal syphilis

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130
Q

Enamel Hypoplasia may leave small _______ and _______ in the crown

A

pits and grooves

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131
Q

The enamel is very thin, has shades of yellow and brown, and easily fractures

A

Amelogenesis Imperfecta

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132
Q

Hypocalcification of a single tooth; usually appears as a localized chalky white spot

A

Turners tooth

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133
Q

clinically teeth appear light blue-gray to yellow; somewhat opalescent. Radiographically there is partial or total abscence of pulp chambers and root canals

A

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

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134
Q

The most common malformed anterior tooth

A

Maxillary lateral incisor

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135
Q

loss of tooth structure from chemical means

A

erosion

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136
Q

a severe bend or distortion in the tooth root and crown of more than 40 degrees is

A

dilaceration

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137
Q

furcations are more cervical on ____ _______, especially ______ _____ ______.

A

1st molars

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138
Q

furcations are more ________ on 1st molars, especially mandibular 1st molars

A

cervical

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139
Q

maxillary molars furcation accessed from the

A

lingual

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140
Q

Initial attachment loss with most of the bone still intact in the furcation. No radiographic changes seen

A

Grade I: Incipient

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141
Q

bone defect is definite horizontal bone loss that does not extend all the way through producing a “cul-de-sac”. Vertical bone loss may also be present, There is an opening into the furcation.

A

Grade II: moderate

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142
Q

bone is lost across the width of the furcation so no bone is attached to the furcation root; a “through-and-through” opening of the furcation

A

Grade III: advanced

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143
Q

bone loss across the furcation, accompied with gingival recession at the furcation; furcation opening is clinically visible

A

Grade IV

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144
Q

proximal root concavities, especially the ______ of the _______ _____ _____, make subgingival instrumentation difficult on proximal surfaces

A

mesial

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145
Q

In class II caries, what may be the first clinical evidence?

A

a loss of translucency of enamel overlying the marginal ridge

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146
Q

class IV caries involves the proximal surface and the incisal angle or corner of an _____ _______

A

anterior tooth

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147
Q

Class V caries is located where in any tooth crown?

A

cervical 1/3 of the facial or lingual surface

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148
Q

A thin protein coat deposited on a tooths surface

A

pellicle

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149
Q

Endotoxins are released from the cell wall of dead gram _____ bacteria initiating inflammation and tissue destruction

A

negative

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150
Q

when a tooth surface is cleaned, pellicle is ______ deposited on the enamel surface

A

quickly

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151
Q

what letter is primary mandibular 1st molar?

A

S

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152
Q

Primary teeth are _______ in color than permanent teeth

A

whiter / lighter

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153
Q

Pulp chambers in primary teeth are _____ than those in permanent teeth

A

larger

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154
Q

spaces between primary canines and 1st molars and between 1st and 2nd molars

A

Leeway spaces

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155
Q

which primary teeth do not resemble any other teeth

A

Primary 1st molars

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156
Q

Obvious trait of primary 1st molar

A

Buccal cervical ridge

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157
Q

Primary secondary molars look like

A

Permanent 1st molars

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158
Q

by what age should a child have their first dental appointment?

A

no later than 12 months of age

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159
Q

Distal step primary dentitions usually leads to a ________ permanent molar occlusion.

A

Class II

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160
Q

A flush terminal plane or a mild mesial step primary dentition is variable but frequently leads to a ________ permanent molar occlusion.

A

Class I

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161
Q

Maxillary canine fits between:

A

mandibular canine and 1st premolar

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162
Q

Order of Eruption for Primary Teeth:

A

Central Incisor

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163
Q

Eruption Sequence & ages of Primary Dentition for Maxillary teeth:

A

Central Incisor: 8-12 months

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164
Q

Eruption sequence & ages of Primary Dentition for Mandibular teeth:

A

Central Incisor: 6-10 months

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165
Q

When the arches are viewed from the buccal aspect, it is evident there is a gradual curve anterior to posterior of the buccal cusp tips. This imaginary line is called:

A

Curve of Spee

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166
Q

arch to arch relationship of the maxilla to the mandible (bone to bone) when the mandible is in its most retruded position:

A

Centric Relation

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167
Q

relationship of the occlusal surfaces of one arch to those of the other when the jaws are closed and the teeth are in maximum intercuspal position:

A

Centric Occlusion

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168
Q

The amount of facial HORIZONTAL overlap of the maxillary teeth is called:

A

overjet

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169
Q

The amount of VERTICAL overlap of the maxillary teeth is called:

A

overbite

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170
Q

Protrusion is guided by the __________ and called _________ _____________.

A

Incisors

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171
Q

Bruxing is:

A

excessive grinding

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172
Q

Symptoms of parafunctional habits:

A

ringing in the ears,

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173
Q

the loss of enamel through tooth to tooth contact that may result in facets or possible fracture of cusps:

A

Attrition

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174
Q

possible loss of enamel through tensile and compressive forces that affects both facial and lingual cervical areas; appears as a deep, narrow V-shaped notch

A

Abfraction

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175
Q

In Class II Division II, the central incisors are ______ & _________

A

retruded and inclined lingually

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176
Q

What is lateral excursion?

A

When the mandible moves to either side only the CANINES touch without molar and premolar contacts

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177
Q

Order of Eruption for Mandibular Permanent Teeth:

A

1st molar

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178
Q

Order of Eruption for Maxillary Permanent Teeth:

A

1st molar

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179
Q

a permanent premolar replaces a

A

primary molar

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180
Q

Prominent mesial concavity

A

maxillary 1st premolar

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181
Q

Buccal cusp only cusp to occlude

A

mandibular 1st Premolar

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182
Q

Only premolars that may have a transverse ridge that does not cross an occlusal developmental groove

A

mandibular 1st premolar

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183
Q

When do mandibular 2nd premolars erupt?

A

11-12 years

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184
Q

Has a Y-groove pattern

A

2nd mandibular premolar

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185
Q

The root of #20 is —- & —- than the root of tooth #21

A

larger and longer

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186
Q

Which is wider on the L than on the B (molar)

A

Maxillary 1

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187
Q

What cusp has cusp of Carabelli?

A

ML

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188
Q

What seperates the cusp of Carabelli?

A

ML groove

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189
Q

What is the shape of a maxillary 3rd molar

A

Heart-Shaped

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190
Q

Which molar has a “t”

A

2nd mandibular molar

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191
Q

Which tooth (molar) is most likely to have 3 cusps?

A

16

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192
Q

Which tooth is most likely to erupt first? (not canine)

A

Maxillary 1st premolar

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193
Q

which tooth can you see all of its occlusal surface from the lingual?

A

mandibular 1st premolar

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194
Q

Tendency for maxillary 1st molar to have ____ root canals in the _____ root

A

2; MB

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195
Q

Height of contour on L side?

A

Middle 1/3

196
Q

Nerve for tongue

A

Lingual Nerve

197
Q

Nerve for cheek

A

Buccal Nerve

198
Q

Nerve for #6-11

A

Anterior Superior Alveolar Nerve

199
Q

Nerve for Posterior upper molars

A

Posterior superior alveolar nerve

200
Q

Nerve for upper premolars

A

Middle superior alveolar nerve

201
Q

Nerve for mandible

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

202
Q

Nerve for Floor of the mouth

A

Mylohyoid nerve

203
Q

Ganglion

A

Accumulation of neuron cell bodies outside the central nervous system

204
Q

Maxilla

A

Pair bones

205
Q

synapse

A

junction between 2 neurons or a neuron and muscle

206
Q

temporomandibular ligament

A

TMJ

207
Q

Neuron

A

cellular component pertaining to nervous system

208
Q

nervous system

A

causes muscles to contract

209
Q

mylohyoid muscle

A

muscle in the floor of the mouth

210
Q

buccinator

A

muscle of facial expression

211
Q

buccinator and mylohyoid muscles

A

2 accessory muscles of mastication

212
Q

cleft palate

A

results from incomplete fusion of the maxillary bones at palatine process

213
Q

mucocele

A

blockage of minor salivary gland

214
Q

bacteremia

A

bacteria traveling within the vascular system

215
Q

medial

A

area that is closer to the median plane of the body or structure

216
Q

temporomandibular disorder

A

disorder involving one or both temporomandibular joints

217
Q

innervation

A

nerve supply to the periodontium

218
Q

depression of the mandible

A

lowering of the lower jaw

219
Q

muscle

A

type of body tissue that shortens under neural control, causing soft tissue and bony structures to move

220
Q

action

A

movement accomplished by a muscle when the muscle fibers contract

221
Q

bones

A

mineralized structures of the body that protect internal soft tissues and serve as the biomechanical basis for movement

222
Q

lingual

A

structures closest to the tongue

223
Q

buccal

A

structures closest to the inner cheek

224
Q

superior

A

area that faces toward the head of the body, away from the feet

225
Q

superficial

A

structures located toward the surface of the body

226
Q

sagittal plane

A

any plane of the body created by an imaginary plane parallel with the median plane

227
Q

inferior

A

area that faces away from the head and toward the feet of the body

228
Q

deep

A

structures located inward, away from the body surface

229
Q

apex

A

pointed end of a conical structure

230
Q

dorsal

A

back of an area of the body

231
Q

distal

A

area that is farther away from the median plane of the body

232
Q

cardiovascular disease

A

when atherosclerosis occurs in arteries leading to the heart

233
Q

frontal section

A

section of the body through any frontal plane

234
Q

articulation

A

area where the bones are joined to each other

235
Q

parotid gland

A

largest gland. paired. located in front of ear, outside of skull, under skin and muscle. Stenson’s Duct. Serous secretions- 25% of total volume.

236
Q

mandible (V3)

A

3rd and largest division of trigeminal nerve

237
Q

facial paralysis

A

loss of muscle actions in muscles of facial expressions

238
Q

plasma

A

watery basis of blood composition

239
Q

red blood cells

A

erythrocytes

240
Q

white blood cells

A

mono-, lymph-, leukocytes; varying types

241
Q

platelets

A

important part of blood composition for clotting

242
Q

arteries

A

blood vessel that carries blood away from heart

243
Q

veins

A

blood vessel that carries blood to heart

244
Q

capillary

A

tiny blood vessel that branches off small artery to supple blood to tissue

245
Q

venule

A

smaller vein that drains the capillaries in the tissue area

246
Q

plexus

A

network of veins that comes together (paired)

247
Q

heart

A

hollow organ

248
Q

posterior

A

back of an area of the body

249
Q

mitral and tricuspid

A

2 valves of the heart

250
Q

maxillary sinusitis

A

infection of the maxillary sinus

251
Q

stylomandibular ligament

A

runs from styloid process of temporal bone to the angle of the mandible

252
Q

neurotransmitter

A

chemical agen that is discharged to cause action of a muscle

253
Q

nerve

A

bundle of neurons

254
Q

muscles

A

allows us to move

255
Q

dorsal

A

top posterior of tongue

256
Q

mandible

A

single bone

257
Q

zygomatic bone

A

also known as malar bone

258
Q

efferent (motor)

A

carries info away from brain/spinal cord to the body

259
Q

normal flora

A

resident microorganisms that usually do not cause infections

260
Q

hilus

A

depression on one side of a lymph node where lymph flows out by way of an efferent lymphatic vessel

261
Q

spinal cord

A

carries messages to the brain and carries messages from brain part of central nervous system

262
Q

anastomosis

A

communication of a blood vessel with another blood vessel by a connecting channel

263
Q

sphenomandibular, stylomandibular, temporomandibular

A

3 TMJ Ligaments

264
Q

median

A

structure at the median plane

265
Q

afferent vessel

A

type of lymphatic vessel in which lymph flows into the lymph node

266
Q

Trigeminal Nerve

A

V cranial nerve

267
Q

olfactory nerve

A

I cranial nerve

268
Q

optic nerve

A

II cranial nerve

269
Q

oculomotor nerve

A

III cranial nerve

270
Q

trochlear nerve

A

IV cranial nerve

271
Q

abducens nerve

A

VI cranial nerve

272
Q

proximal

A

area closer to the median plane of the body

273
Q

masseter muscle

A

strong muscle in the buccal region which is felt when a patient clenches the teeth together

274
Q

orbicularis oris

A

muscle of facial expression

275
Q

lateral pterygoid muscle

A

muscle

276
Q

medial pterygoid muscle

A

muscle

277
Q

masseter, temporal, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid

A

4 muscles of mastication

278
Q

voluntary muscle

A

muscles used for walking and tirggered by thought

279
Q

involuntary muscle

A

muscle auto-responses from body

280
Q

retromolar pad

A

triangular area where medial and lateral views of the mandible come together

281
Q

mandibular canal

A

area used for mental block on lingual and opens into mental foramen

282
Q

opportunistic infections

A

normal flora creating an infectious process because the body’s defenses are compromised

283
Q

lymphadenopathy

A

swelling of lymph nodes :abnormal enlargement”

284
Q

median plane

A

plane created by an imaginary line that divides the body into right and left halves

285
Q

zygomatic process of maxilla

A

forms part of cheekbone with zygomatic arch

286
Q

opportunisitic pathogen

A

capable of causing disease only when the host’s resistance is lowered

287
Q

lymphatic vessels

A

part of lymphatic system that runs parallel to most veins in the body

288
Q

alveolar, zygomatic, frontal, palatine

A

4 bones with processes attaching to maxilla

289
Q

5 anatomic parts of TMJ

A

articular fossa

290
Q

articular disc

A

divides space between bones

291
Q

synovial fluid

A

padding in between bones

292
Q

vomer

A

single bone

293
Q

arch

A

prominen bridgelike bony structure

294
Q

ranula

A

mucole that appear in floor of mouth of major salivary glands

295
Q

midsagittal section

A

section of the body through the median plane

296
Q

meatus

A

opening or canal in the bone

297
Q

ramus

A

vertical portion of mandible

298
Q

angle

A

attaches several muscles to mandible

299
Q

body

A

horizontal portion of mandible

300
Q

condyle

A

portion of mandible that connects to the TMJ

301
Q

coronoid process

A

main portion of the anterior border of ramus

302
Q

alveolar process

A

forms sockets of teeth

303
Q

8 landmarks of mandible

A

oblique ridge

304
Q

7 types of muscles of head and neck

A

cervical muscles

305
Q

anesthesia

A

shuts down communication of nerves and neurons by blocking the chemicals from entering at the synapses

306
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

flight or flight responses

307
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest or digest responses

308
Q

central and peripheral nervous systems

A

2 branches of nervous system

309
Q

sensory and motor

A

2 branches of peripheral nervous system

310
Q

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

2 branches of autonomic nervous system

311
Q

gliding movement of TMJ

A

allows jaw to move forward and backward

312
Q

rotational movement of TMJ

A

depression and elevation of jaw

313
Q

Central nervous system

A

control center

314
Q

sensory/afferent vessels

A

carries infor from the periphery of the body to brain or spinal cord

315
Q

maxillary sinuses

A

largest of paranasal sinuses

316
Q

frontal sinuses

A

paired sinuses located in frontal bone

317
Q

sphenoid sinuses

A

sinuses located in sphenoid bone

318
Q

ethmoid sinuses

A

located in the ethmoid bone

319
Q

ligament

A

a band of fibrous tissue that connects bones

320
Q

alvoelar process of the maxilla

A

houses/forms sockets of teeth

321
Q

mitral valve prolapse

A

when the valve connection the left ventricle and left atrium is leaking

322
Q

aorta

A

biggest artery in body

323
Q

4 processes of zygomatic arch

A

Zygomatic process of temporal bone

324
Q

pulmonary artery

A

only artery that carries deoxygenated blood

325
Q

pulmonary vein

A

only vein that carries oxygenated blood

326
Q

mandible

A

single bone

327
Q

Heart

A

Several arteries branch directly off the aorta to feed the _____________

328
Q

sublingual gland

A

paired glands located in the anterior floor of mouth under the tongue.

329
Q

hematoma

A

trauma to a blood vessel

330
Q

Palatine process of the maxilla

A

forms hard palate

331
Q

frontal process of the maxilla

A

fuses with frontal bone facially

332
Q

vermillion zone

A

shaded area of lips that is darker than surrounding skin

333
Q

vermillion border

A

transition zone betweek skin and vermillion zone

334
Q

philtrum

A

area under nose that extends from nasal septum to the top of the lip

335
Q

tubercle

A

point on upper lip where the philtrum terminates

336
Q

labial commissure

A

corners of mouth

337
Q

greater palatine foramen

A

aiming area for palatal injections

338
Q

Maxillary (V2) nerve

A

2nd division of trigeminal nerve

339
Q

palatine bones

A

paired bones

340
Q

opthalmic (V1) nerve

A

1st and smallest division of trigeminal nerve

341
Q

zygomatic bones

A

also known as malar bone

342
Q

lacrimal bones

A

paired bones

343
Q

inferior nasal conchae

A

paired bones

344
Q

pterygoid venus plexus

A

drains everything from head and neck area to the heart

345
Q

external auditory meatus

A

short canal leading to the tympanic cavity

346
Q

nasal bones

A

paired bones

347
Q

ethmoid bone

A

single bone

348
Q

sphenoid bone

A

single bone

349
Q

parietal bones

A

paired bones

350
Q

sinus

A

cavity within the bone

351
Q

submandibular gland

A

paired glands lcoated inside the medial angle of mandible

352
Q

frontal bone

A

single bone

353
Q

temporal bone

A

paired bones

354
Q

occipital bone

A

single bone

355
Q

process

A

like a projection; an irregularly shaped extension named for where it is going

356
Q

landmarks

A

characteristics that appear on a specific bone

357
Q

nerve block

A

type of injection that anesthetizes a larger area than local infiltration because the local anesthetic agen is deposited near large nerve trunks

358
Q

external acousitc meatus

A

tube through which sound waves are transmitted to the middlbe ear within the skull

359
Q

bones

A

protect

360
Q

apex

A

tip of tongue

361
Q

ventral

A

under tongue

362
Q

lateral

A

sides of tongue

363
Q

anatomical postition

A

position in which the body is erect, with arms @ the sides, plams and toes directed forward, and eyes looking forward

364
Q

zygomatic region

A

region of the head that is lateral to the infraorbital region

365
Q

inferior nasal conchae

A

paired bones withing the body part of the nose

366
Q

temporal

A

region of the head where the external ear is a prominent feature

367
Q

anastomose

A

to join together; in the periodontium, a complex system of blood vessels supplies blood to the periodontal tissues

368
Q

alveolar bone proper

A

also known as cribriform plate

369
Q

effernt vessel

A

type of lymphatic vessel in which lymph flows out of the lymph node in the area of the node’s hilus

370
Q

foramen/ foramina

A

short, windowlike opening in the bone

371
Q

insertion

A

end of the muscle that is attatched to the more movable structure

372
Q

7 types of facial bones

A

vomer

373
Q

6 types of cranial bones

A

occipital

374
Q

22

A

Number of bones in the skull

375
Q

labial

A

structure closest to lips

376
Q

origin

A

end of the muscle that is attached to the least movable structure

377
Q

lateral deviation of the mandible

A

shifting of the lower jaw to one side

378
Q

atherosclerosis

A

the narrowing and blockage of the arteries by a buildup of plaque

379
Q

plexus

A

network of blood vessels, usually veins

380
Q

thrombus/thrombi

A

clot that forms on the inner blood vessel wall

381
Q

afferent nerve

A

sensory nerve that carries information from the periphery of the body to the brain or spinal cord

382
Q

process

A

general term for any prominence on a bony surface

383
Q

facial

A

structures closest to the facial surface

384
Q

alveolar bone

A

the bone that surrounds the roots of the teeth. It forms the bony sockets that support and protect the roots of the teeth

385
Q

external

A

outer side of the wall of a hollow structure

386
Q

contralateral

A

structures on the opposite side of the body

387
Q

joint

A

site of a junction or union between two or more bones

388
Q

lateral

A

area that is farther away from the median plane of the body or structure

389
Q

temporomandibular joint

A

joint located inferior to the zygomatic arch and just anterior to the ear

390
Q

oral cavity

A

inside of the mouth

391
Q

paresthesia

A

abnormal sensation from an area such as burning or prickling

392
Q

embolus/emboli

A

foreign material or thrombus traveling in the blood that can block the vessel

393
Q

horizontal plane

A

plane created by an imaginary line that divides the body @ any level into superior and inferior portions

394
Q

internal

A

inner side of the wall of a hollow structure

395
Q

ipsilateral

A

structures on the same side of the body

396
Q

palatal

A

structure closest to the palate

397
Q

elevation of the mandible

A

rising of the lower jaw

398
Q

retraction of the mandible

A

bringing backward of the lower jaw

399
Q

hematoma

A

bruise that results when a blood vessel is injured and a small amount of blood escapes into the surrounding tissue and clots

400
Q

capillary

A

smaller blood vessel that branches off an arteriole to supply blood directly to tissue

401
Q

plaque

A

substance which consists of cholesterol (mainly), calcium, clotting proteins, and other substances that can be found lining arteries

402
Q

vein

A

type of blood vessel that travels to the heart, carrying blood

403
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

type of unilateral facial paralysis involving the facial nerve

404
Q

anesthesia

A

the loss of feeling or sensation resulting from the use of certain drugs or gases that seruve as inhibitory neurotransmitters

405
Q

Abducen’s Nerve Paralysis

A

loss of funtion of the 6th cranial nerve

406
Q

bacteremia

A

bacteria traveling within the vascular system

407
Q

anterior

A

front area of the body

408
Q

artery

A

type of blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart

409
Q

cells

A

smallest structural unit of living matter capable of functioning independently

410
Q

protrusion of the mandible

A

bringing forward of the lower jaw

411
Q

facial paralysis

A

loss of action of the facial muscles

412
Q

transverse section

A

section of the body through any horizontal plane

413
Q

8

A

number of cranial bones

414
Q

14

A

number of facial bones

415
Q

occipital

A

single bone

416
Q

foramen magnum

A

huge foramen in occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes

417
Q

temporal bone

A

paired bones

418
Q

frontal bone

A

single bone

419
Q

parietal bone

A

paired bones

420
Q

sphenoid

A

singe bone

421
Q

ethmoid

A

single bone

422
Q

vomer

A

single bone

423
Q

nasal bones

A

paired

424
Q

lacrimal bones

A

paired

425
Q

palatine bones

A

paired

426
Q

maxilla

A

paired bones

427
Q

Cranial Nerves

A

On Old Olympus Tiny Tops, A Finn And German Viewed Some Hops

428
Q

Cranial Nerve; sensory /motor

A

Some Say Marry Money, But My Brother Says, Bad Business, Marry Money

429
Q

2 cranial nerves controlling tongue

A

IX-Glossopharyngeal

430
Q

most facial and oral pain through these 2 nerves

A

V- trigeminal

431
Q

Paired

A

All cranial nerves are ________

432
Q

Trigeminal Nerve

A

Gasserion ganglion present

433
Q

Gasserion Ganglion

A

also known as trigeminal ganglion

434
Q

eminence

A

tubercle or rounded elevation on a bony surface

435
Q

Surfaces and Sutures

A

2 places where bones grow at

436
Q

pathogen

A

a virus, microorganism, or other substance that causes dz

437
Q

primary node

A

lymph node that drains lymph from a particular region

438
Q

secondary node

A

lymph node that drains lymph from a primary node

439
Q

hemorrhage

A

large amounts of blood that escape into the surroudning tissue without clotting

440
Q

base

A

posterior 1/3 of tongue

441
Q

body

A

anterior 2/3 of tongue

442
Q

ventral

A

front area of the body

443
Q

temporomandibule joint

A

a joint on each side of the ehad that allows for movement of the mandible, speech, and mastication

444
Q

articular disc

A

also called a meniscus

445
Q

sphenomandibular ligament

A

not part of TMJ, but rather on the medial side of the mandible

446
Q

frontal plane

A

plane created by an imaginary line that divides the body at any level into anterior and posterior portions

447
Q

subluxation

A

dislocation of joints

448
Q

paranasal sinus

A

provides ventilation to head

449
Q

lymphatic system

A

filters toxins and other foreign bodies out of body

450
Q

metastasis

A

spread of cancer from primary location

451
Q

Facial nerve

A

VII nerve

452
Q

Acoustic nerve

A

VIII nerve

453
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

IX nerve

454
Q

Vagus nerve

A

X nerve

455
Q

Spinal Accessory nerve

A

XI nerve

456
Q

Hypoglossal nerve

A

XII nerve

457
Q

amylase

A

begins process of breaking food down into simple sugars in saliva

458
Q

sialolith

A

stone formed in glands

459
Q

coronal

A

towards the crown of a tooth

460
Q

infraorbital region

A

region of the head located inferior to the orbial region and lateral to the nasal region

461
Q

local infiltration

A

type of injection that anesthetizes a small area- one or two teeth and associated structures- when the local anesthetic agent is deposited near nerminal nerve endings

462
Q

suture

A

generally immovable articulation in which bones are joined by fibrous tissue

463
Q

trigeminal nerve

A

innervates to the maxilla by the second branch and the mandible by the third branch

464
Q

superior vena cava

A

large vein on top of heart

465
Q

inferior vena cava

A

large vein coming in from bottom of the heart

466
Q

valves

A

there are no ________ in the veins of the head and neck, which makes infection very easy to spread and to linger in an area

467
Q

xerostomia

A

decreased saliva flow

468
Q

scalp

A

layers of soft tissue overlying the bones of the brain case

469
Q

mastoid process

A

site for large muscles of the neck to attach

470
Q

endocrine

A

secreted into blood; hormones, such as thyroid and pituitary glands

471
Q

exocrine

A

secreted to specific locations by ducts; salivary and lacrimal glands

472
Q

mucous

A

ropey saliva composition

473
Q

serous

A

water saliva composition

474
Q

mixed

A

both watery and ropey saliva composition combined

475
Q

thyroid

A

largest endocrine glandthyroxine

476
Q

hypo

A

prefix meaning not enough

477
Q

hyper

A

prefix meaning too much

478
Q

lingual artery

A

artery to tongue

479
Q

facial artery

A

artery to cheek

480
Q

posterior superior alveolar artery

A

artery to max molars

481
Q

middle superior alveolar artery

A

artery to max premolars

482
Q

anterior superior alveolar artery

A

artery to #6-11

483
Q

inferior alveolar artery

A

artery to mandible

484
Q

infraorbital artery

A

connects anterior superior alveolar artery and middle superior alveolar arter to the maxillary artery

485
Q

maxillary artery

A

feeds all area of face. connects to external carotid artery

486
Q

external carotid artery

A

connects to common carotid arter

487
Q

common carotid artery

A

connects to aorta

Dental Hygiene (19 decks)

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