Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

congential toricollis-age of onset, presentation, mc causes (2), treatment (2)

A

2-4 weeks, child prefers to hold head tilted to one side (tilted towards and rotated away from SCM damaged), mc result of malposition of head in utero or birth trauma (sternocleidomastoid muscle injury and fibrosis). treat with conservative therapy and stretching exercises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

recurrent laryngeal nerve- travels with which artery, injured how, results of injury (3)

A

close approximation to inferior thyroid artery, injured in surgical procedures and can results in laryngeal muscle paralysis,hoarse voice, and dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ansa cervicalis

A

loop of cervical plexus that receives contributions from C1, C2, C3. courses deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and loops around internal jugular vein. innervated sternohyoid, sternothryoid and omohyoid muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

course of spinal accessory nerve

A

exits jugular foramen and courses on top of levator scapulae muscle to innervate the sternocleidomastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cleft lip vs cleft palate

A

frequently occur together, form during 6th week

  • failure of maxillary promieneces to fuse with medial nasal prominence (becomes intermaxillary segment)
  • PALATINE SHELVES of maxillary promienences fail to fuse with each other or the primary palate (aka intermaxillary segment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name 3 genes of polyprotein precursors in HIV? what protein do they become

A

gag, pol, and env
env product is glycosylated gp160 and cleaved in ER and golgi to become gp120 (attach to CD4+ to cell) and gp41 (fusion and entry)
gag- makes p24 a capsid protein
pol-makes reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease, and integrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do you use tracheal PO2, alveolar PCO2 and alveolar PCO2 to determine diffusion vs perfusion limited

A

diffusion-only O2 would be effected b/c CO2 diffuses at a rate 20 times that O2
perfusion-both O2 and CO2 would be abnormal
also with perfusion alvelolar PO2 and tracheal PO2 are close in number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is O2 diffusion limited? normal tracheal pO2 and alveolar levels?

A

tracheal PO2 is 150mmh and alveolar PO2 is 104
normally O2 is perfusion limited
diffusion limited occurs during exercise, emphysema, and pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

name 3 genetic causes of Downs syndrome

A

95% caused by trisomy 21
-other less common causes are unbalanced Robertsonian translocations (46 chromosomes with an extra arm of 21 attach to another chromosome) or mosaicism (pts with two cell lines-one normal and other with trisomy 21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pterion-def, art that course deep to this structure, enters where?, branches from, at risk when, bleed can cause?

A

site where frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet in skull.

  • middle meningeal art
  • enters through foramen spinosum
  • branches from maxillary
  • skull fractures here can cause laceration and epidural hematoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

oseltamivir-def, action (2) treatment,

A

neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat and prevent influenza A and B
-impairs release of newly formed virions and impairs viral penetration of mucous secretions in respiratory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Down syndrome characteristics-CNS, head and neck, extremity, cardiac, GI-increased risk of what two diseases as a child and which 1 disease as an adult?

A

mental retardation, facial dysmorphism, single palmar crease, endocardial cushin defects, duodenal atresia
-increased risk of AML-M7, ALL as a child and increased Alzheimer as an adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

test results in conductive hearing loss (external sounds to innner ear) vs senorineural loss (inner ear, cochleas, or auditory nerve problem)

A
  • bone>air conduction: abnormal Rhinne (in affected ear) and Weber localizes to affected ear (b/c out ear problems masks outside noise and inner ear can hear sound louder)
  • air>bone: normal Rhinne and Weber localizes to unaffected ear (b/c inner ear is fine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

reasons for conductive vs sensorineural loss

A
  • Ceruem impactions, cholesteatoma, otoscelrosis, external or middle ear tumors, tympanic membrane rupture, severe otitis media
  • Meniere’s disease, acoustic neuroma, presbycusis, ototoxic drugs (aminoglycosides)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

calcification of internal carotid artery can lead to what visual field defect

A

aneurysm or atherosclerotic calcification of the internal carotid art can laterally impinge on the optic chiasm causing nasal hemianopia by damaging uncrossed optic nerve fibers from temporal portion of ipsilateral retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

calcification of internal carotid artery can lead to what visual field defect

A

aneurysm or atherosclerotic calcification of the internal carotid art can laterally impinge on the optic chiasm causing nasal hemianopia by damaging uncrossed optic nerve fibers from temporal portion of ipsilateral retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

occlusion leads to which visual defect

  • posterior cerebral art
  • anterior choroidal art
  • middle cerebral art
  • retinal art or central retinal vein
A
  • homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing (macula is spared due to collateral blood from the middle cerebral art)
  • optic tract (homonymous hemianopia )
  • optic radiations (homonymous hemianopia)
  • optic nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

major adaptive immune mechanism that prevents reinfection with influenza virus

A

anti-hemagglutin IgG antibodies in circulation and mucosal anti-hemagglutinin IgA antibodes in nasopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Edwards vs Patau’s Syndrome

A

both have rocker bottom feet

  • Edwards (47,XX +18) has overlapping fingers and clenched hands, low set ears
  • Patau’s (trisomy 13 )cleft lip and palate, polydactyly and omphalocele
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mucormycosis is caused by which bacteria? presentation? pt pop? histo?

A
  • rhizopus, mucor, or absidia species
  • paranasal sinus involvement
  • diabetic immunosuppressed pt
  • fungi form in broad nonseptate hyphae that branch at right angles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Turner’s presentation (extremeties, cardiac, renal)

A

-45,XO; lymphedema of varied intensities (hands, feet, hydrops fetalis), coarctation of aorta, horseshoe kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

47,XXX presentation

A

usually clinically silent, slightly decreased IQ scores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

skin flushing an mydriasis are effect from what receptor blockade. name 5 drugs that are important to know.

A
  • antimuscarinic drugs

- atropine, TCA (i.e. amitriptyline), H1 receptor antagonists (i.e diphenhydramine), neuroleptics, antiparkinsonian

24
Q

rash of rheumatic fever

A

-after 1-2 days it begins on neck, armpits and groin as a scarlet spots or blotches (like a boiled lobster)
-then is becomes more widepread like sunburn with goose pimples “sandpaper like”
-finally cheeks become flushed with pale area around mouth-circumoral pallor
lastly (at end of 1st wk) desquamation begins (esp armpits, groin, tips of fingers and toes)

25
Q

how to treat acute C. diphtheriae? which is more important? why?

A
  • diptheria antitoxin (give antibodies to toxin)-passive immunity and most important
  • penicillin or erythomycin-not as important b/c it’s endotoxin not bac that causes damage (esp to brain and cardiac tissue)
  • DPT vaccine- active immunity
26
Q

rate limiting step in acyclovir activation? not viral protease?

A

not protease but viral thymidine kinase

27
Q

which antidepressant can cause symptoms similar to atropine overdose

A
  • TCAs have antimuscarinic side effects

- hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, and mad as a hatter

28
Q

which strand of H. flu causes meningitis? which causes sinusitis?

A
  • type B

- non-typable

29
Q

mc cause of bac causes of acute otitis media, sinusitis and bacterial conjunctivitis

A

-streptococcus pneumoniae, NON-typable H. influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis

30
Q

-how to viruses with double stranded DNA exchange material? not reassortment b/c?

A
  • genome recombination-gene exchange that occur through crossing over of two or more double stranded DNA molecules
  • this occurs with mixing of viruses with segmented genome segments
31
Q

which viruses causes pharyngoconjunctival fever that classically occurs in small outbreaks among individuals living together in close quarters?

A

Adenovirus

-Calcivirus is the family for norovirus that causes viral gasteroenteritis

32
Q

which nerve is at risk of injury during thyroidectomy? why? what does it innervate?

A
  • external branch of superior layngeal nerve
  • close proximity to superior thyroid art and vein
  • cricothyroid muscle
33
Q

what is innervation of superior laryngeal nerve

A

two nerves branch from the SLN

  • the external branch innervates the circothyroid muscle
  • the internal branch does not innervate muscle and provides sensory innervation above vocal cords
34
Q

what is innervations of recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

-all laryngeal muscles (thyroarytenoid, lateral circoarytenoid, posterior cricoartynoid, aryepiglotticus)

35
Q

retinal art occlusion vs amaurosis fugax

A
  • painless sudden, PERMANENT monocular blindness. pale retina with “cherry red” macula
  • painless, TRANSIENT, monocular vision loss, small emoboius to opthalmic art
36
Q

Foscarnet vs ganciclovir

A

both work well against CMV

  • F does not require activation by viral kinase
  • G does
37
Q

circothyrotomy crosses which layers?

A

-skin, superficial fascia (subcutaneous fat and platysma muscle), investing and pretracheal layers of deep cervical fascia, and cricothyroid membrane

38
Q

name layers of deep cervical fascia

A

investing, pretrcheal, prevertebral, carotid sheath

39
Q

where is investing layer of deep cervical fascia and what does it enclose?

A

-surrounds the neck like a collar, enclocing all deeper parts of neck (sternoidmastoid, trapezius, strap mucles, submaxillay and parotid glands)

40
Q

where is pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia and what structures does it enclose?

A

anterior part of the neck, blend laterraly with carotid sheath
enclosed viscera of neck (thyroids, parathyroids, larynx, trachea, pharynx and esophagus)

41
Q

where is prevetebral layer of deep cervical fascia and what does it enclose?

A
  • surrounds vertebral column and muscle of spine

- encloses vertebral column, scalene, longus collus, splenius, erector spinae, semipinalis and levator scapulae muscles

42
Q

carotid sheath layer is where? what structures does it enclose?

A
  • lies lateral to retropharyngeal space, deep to sternocleidomastoid muscle
  • carotid artery, IJV and vagus nerve
43
Q

probenecid

A

compound that decreases renal clearance of penicillins by inhibiting tubular organic acid secretion systems

44
Q

how is sound transmitted through ear? where is low frequency sound heard best? high frequency sound?

A
  • sound reaches middle ear by virbation tympanic membrane
  • ossicles transmits this vibration to oval window
  • oval window causes movement of perilymph in scalavestibuli which is transmitted to scala tympani
  • perilymph movement in scala tympani causes flexible basilar membrane to vibrate
  • basilar membrane causes movement of cilia hair cells on rigid tectorial membrane
  • hairs calls causes depolarization and hyperpolarization leading to nervous impulses
45
Q

low frequency vs high frequency sound

A
  • base of basilar membrane, closest to oval and round window is best of high frequency sounds
  • apex of cochlea near the helocotrema is best for low frequency sounds
46
Q

perilymph of scala tympani vs scala vestibuli s scala media?

A
  • high concentration of Na in scala tympani and vestibule

- high concentration of K+ in scala media

47
Q

organisms that cause mononucleosis-like syndromes

-most common?

A
  • CMV, HHV-6, and toxoplasmosis

- CMV is most common

48
Q

mc presentation of CMV in immunocompetent vs immunocompromised pts?

A
  • competent=mononucleosis

- promized=retinitis, pneumonia, esophagitis, colitis, and hepatitis

49
Q

which nerves are responsible for efferent and afferent arc of pupilary light reflex?

A
  • CN II afferent limb

- CN II is efferent limb

50
Q

CN responsible for closing eye vs opening eye?

A
  • open eyelid=CN III

- close eyelid VN VII

51
Q

pupilary light reflex

A

impulse is recieved at optic nerve
travels to pretectal nucleus
-spilt nerves traven to edinger-westphal nucleus
-oculomotor nerve transmits message to both ciliary ganglion,
postsynaptic nerve innervates iris sphincter and cillary muscle

52
Q

Rb mutations leads to an increased risk of? not neuroblastomas b/c?

A
  • sarcomas esp osteoscaroma

- common childhood cancer that arrises from sympathetic nervous tissue most commonly in the adrenals

53
Q

acute otitis media vs otitis externa?

A
  • H. influen

- P. aeruginosa

54
Q

presentation of malignant otitis externa? bac that causes it?

A

-elderly DM pt with ear pain and drainage and granulation tissue

55
Q

presentation of primary HSV-1 infection vs reactivation?

A
  • primary- fever, vesiculoulcerative gingivotomatitis, and cervical lymphadenopathy
  • reactivation- limited perioral blisters, or “cold sores”
56
Q

abortive viral infection

A

results in little to no change in host cell and no viral replication
-no cytopathic effects in pt

57
Q

examples of slow virus infections

A
  • degenerative disorders of CNS

- subacute scleorising panencephalitis and progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy