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Clin Anat I - Exam #1 > Head > Flashcards

Head Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two parts of the external cranium?

A
  • neurocranium
  • fascial skeleton
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2
Q

What are the two parts of the neurocranium?

A
  • calvaria
  • cranial base
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3
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. nasal
  3. maxilla
  4. zygomatic
  5. mandible
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4
Q

Identify

A
  1. supra-orbital foramen
  2. nasion
  3. glabella
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5
Q

Identify

A
  1. infra-orbital foramen
  2. mental foramen
  3. mental protruberance
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6
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. maxilla
  3. zygomatic
  4. sphenoid
  5. lacrimal
  6. ethmoid
  7. palatine
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7
Q

Identify the openings

A
  1. superior orbital fissure
  2. optic canal
  3. inferior orbital fissure
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8
Q

What passes through the openings?

A
  1. CN 3, 4, 6, and V1
  2. CN 2 (optic n.)
  3. CN V2
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9
Q

Identify

A
  1. maxilla
  2. ethmoid
  3. inferior nasal concha
  4. vomer
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10
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. nasal
  3. maxilla
  4. palatine
  5. occipital
  6. sphenoid
  7. ethmoid
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11
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. nasal
  3. maxilla
  4. lacrimal
  5. inferior nasal concha
  6. palatine
  7. sphenoid
  8. occipital
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12
Q

Identify

A
  1. head of condylar process
  2. neck of condylar process
  3. coronoid process of mandible
  4. mental protuberance
  5. mental foramen
  6. body of mandible
  7. angle of mandible
  8. ramus of mandible
  9. condylar process
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13
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. parietal
  3. occipital
  4. sphenoid
  5. temporal
  6. styloid process
  7. zygomatic
  8. lacrimal
  9. maxilla
  10. nasal
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14
Q

Identify

A
  1. coronal suture
  2. pterion
  3. temporal fossa
  4. zygomatic arch
  5. mastoid process
  6. external acousic meatus
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15
Q

Identify

A
  1. coronal suture
  2. sagittal suture
  3. lambdoid suture
  4. lambda
  5. bregma
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16
Q

Identify

A
  1. occipital
  2. temporal
  3. sphenoid
  4. maxilla
  5. palatine
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17
Q

What bones make up the hard palate?

A
  • maxilla
  • palatine
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18
Q

What allows the head to nod?

A
  • occpital condyle on C1
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19
Q

Identify 1

A

1A. occipital condyle

1B. foramen magnum

1C. external occipital protuberance (EOP)

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20
Q

Identify 2 & 3

A

2A. mastoid process

2B. styloid process

2C. stylomastoid foramen

2D. jugular fossa (foramen)

2E. carotid canal

3A. foramen ovale

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21
Q

What is the landmark to find the foramen ovale?

A
  • tiny round hole just posteriolateral
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22
Q

What bones create the coronal suture?

A
  • frontal
  • R/L parietal
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23
Q

What bones create the sagittal suture?

A
  • R & L patietal
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24
Q

What bones create the lambdoid suture?

A
  • occipital
  • R/L parietal
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25
Q

What bones create the squamous suture?

A
  • temporal
  • parietal
  • sphenoid
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26
Q

Identify

A
  1. coronal
  2. lambdoid
  3. squamous
  4. sagittal
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27
Q

What is at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures?

A

bregma

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28
Q

What is at the junction of lambdoid and sagittal suture?

A

lambda

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29
Q

What is the junction of the fontal, sphenoid, temporal, and parietal bone?

A

pterion

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30
Q

What are the three regions of the internal cranium?

A
  1. anterior fossa
  2. middle fossa
  3. posterior fossa
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31
Q

Identify

A
  1. cribiform plate
  2. lesser wing of sphenoid
  3. openings for CN1 (olfactory)
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32
Q

Identify

A
  1. greater wing of the sphenoid
  2. sella turcica
  3. optic canal
  4. superior orbital fissure
  5. forament rotundum
  6. foramen ovale

* landmark to find foramen ovale

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33
Q

What sits in the sella turcica?

A

pituitary gland

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34
Q

What goes through the optic canal?

A

CN 2 (optic)

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35
Q

What goes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

V1

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36
Q

What goes through foramen rotundum?

A

V2

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37
Q

What goes through foramen ovale?

A

V3

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38
Q

Identify

A
  1. internal acoustic meatus
  2. jugular foramen
  3. hypoglossa canal
  4. foramen magnum
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39
Q

What exits the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN 7 & 8

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40
Q

What exits the hypoglossal canal?

A

CN 12

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41
Q

What passes through the openings?

A
  1. CN 1
  2. CN 2
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42
Q

What passes though the openings?

A
  1. CN 3, 4, 6 and V1
  2. V2
  3. V3
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43
Q

What passes though the openings?

A
  1. CN 9, 10 & 11
  2. CN 12
  3. spinal cord and vertebral a.
  4. CN 7 & 8
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44
Q

What passes though the openings?

A
  1. V2
  2. internal carotid a.
  3. CN 7
  4. CN 9, 10, 11
  5. spinal cord and vertebral a.
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45
Q

What passes through the openings?

A
  1. V1
  2. CN 2
  3. CN 3, 4, 6, and V1
  4. V2
  5. V2
  6. V3
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46
Q

Identify

A
  1. nasion
  2. glabella
  3. zygomatic arch
  4. supraorbital foramen
  5. infraorbital foramen
  6. mental protuberance
  7. mental foramen
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47
Q

What innervates the facial muscles?

A

CN 7 (facial)

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48
Q

What is th action of the palpebral portion of the orbicularis oculi?

A

gently closes the eyelid

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49
Q

What is the action of the orbital portion of the orbicularis oculi?

A

tightly closes the eyelid

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50
Q

What is the action of the nasalis muscle?

A

flares the nostrils

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51
Q

Identify

A
  1. occipitofrontalis
  2. A - palpebral portion; B - orbital portion
  3. nasalis
  4. orbicularis oris
  5. buccinator
  6. mentalis
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52
Q

Identify

A

buccinator

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53
Q

Identify

A

mentalis

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54
Q

What is the action of mentalis?

A

pouting

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55
Q

What does CN 7 innervate?

A
  • facial muslces
  • platysma
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56
Q

What is the path of CN 7?

A
  • emerges from stylomastoid foramen
  • divides into 5 branches
  • passes through parotid gland
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57
Q

What is Bell’s Palsy?

A
  • transient paralysis of facial M. 2ndary to CN 7 impairment/compression
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58
Q

What does CN 5 innervate?

A

sensory of the face

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59
Q

Identify

A
  1. V1
  2. V2
  3. trigeminal ganglion
  4. V3
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60
Q

What innervates each area?

A

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

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61
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • servere facial pain 2ndary CN 5 (V2) impairment
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62
Q

How is CN 5 impaired in trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • compression from vessel
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63
Q

What are the two layers the dura mater?

A
  • external periosteal
  • internal meningeal
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64
Q

Identify

A
  1. falx cerebri
  2. falx cerebelli
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65
Q

Identify

A

tentorium cerebellum

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66
Q

What is formed between the periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura?

A
  • dural venous sinuses
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67
Q

What empties into the dural sinues?

A
  • large v. of brain
  • CSF
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68
Q

Where do the dural sinues drain?

A

internal jugular v.

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69
Q

Identify

A
  1. superior sagittal sinus
  2. inferior sagittal sinus
  3. straight sinus
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70
Q

Identify

A
  1. straight sinus
  2. transverse sinus
  3. sigmoid sinus
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71
Q

Identify 1-6.

  1. What are the lines in the subarachnoid space?
A
  1. falx cerebri
  2. pia mater
  3. subarachnoid space
  4. arachnoid mater
  5. dura mater
  6. arachnoid granulation
  7. arachnoid trabeculae
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72
Q

What are the 3 main regions of the brain?

A
  1. cerebrum (lobes)
  2. cerebellum
  3. brainstem
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73
Q

Identify

A

A. frontal

B. parietal

C. occipital

D. temporal

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74
Q

Identify

A
  1. cerebellum

3A. brainstem - midbrain

3B. brainstem - pons

3C. brainstem - medulla

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75
Q

What is the function of the ventricular system?

A
  • produces and circulates CSF
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76
Q

Identify

A
  1. lateral ventricle
  2. interventricular foramen
  3. third venticle
  4. cerebral aquaduct
  5. fourth ventricle
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77
Q

Where is CSF produced in the ventricular system?

A
  • choroid plexus in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles
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78
Q

What is the pathway of CSF secretion and absorption?

A
  • production in choroid plexus
  • flows through ventricular system
  • exits median aperture
  • circulates in subarachnoid space
  • arachnoid granulations with oneway valves to dural sinus
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79
Q

How does the CSF exit the subarachnoid space and enter dural sinuses?

A
  • oneway valves controled by pressure gradient
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80
Q

Identify

A
  • Circle of Willis
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81
Q

Identify

A
  1. anterior cerebral a. (ACA)
  2. anterior communicating a.
  3. middle cerebral a (MCA)
  4. posterior communicating a.
  5. posterior cerebral a. (PCA)
  6. basalar a.
  7. ICA
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82
Q

Identify

A
  1. anterior communicating a.
  2. anterior cerebral a. (ACA)
  3. middle cerebral a. (MCA)
  4. posterior communicating a.
  5. basilar a.
  6. posterior cerebral a. (PCA)
  7. ICA
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83
Q

What bones make up the rim of the orbit?

A
  • frontal
  • temporal
  • maxillary
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84
Q

What bones make up the bowl of the orbit?

A
  • sphenoid
  • lacrimal
  • ethmoid
  • palatine
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85
Q

Identify

A

medial and lateral canthus (angles)

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86
Q

What is the space between the eyelids?

A

palpebral fissure

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87
Q

Identify

A
  1. palpebral conjunctiva
  2. bulbar conjunctiva
  3. inferior conjunctival sac
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88
Q

Identify

A

conjunctivitis

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89
Q

Identify

A

subconjunctival hemorrhage

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90
Q

Identify

A

meibomian gland (aka tarsal gland)

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91
Q

What is the function of the meibomian gland?

A

sebaceous gland that secretes lipid fluid to lubricate and optimize the “mechanics” of tear fluid and eyelids

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92
Q

levator palpebral superioris action

A

elevate and retract eyelid

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93
Q

levator palpebral superioris innervation

A

CN 3

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94
Q

superior tarsal m. action

A

smooth m. that assists with raising eyelid

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95
Q

superior tarsal m. innervation

A

sympathetic system

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96
Q

ptosis

A

damage to either muscle or nerve leading to eyelid drooping

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97
Q

Identify

A
  1. levator palpebral superioris m.
  2. superior tarsal m.
98
Q

Identify

A
  1. lacrimal gland
  2. lacrimal lake
  3. lacrimal punctum
  4. lacrimal canaliculi
  5. lacrimal sac
  6. nasolacrimal duct
99
Q

What direction do tears flow?

A

superiorlateral to medial

100
Q

Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain?

A

inferior nasal meatus

101
Q

Identify

A
  1. fibrous (outer) layer
  2. vascular (middle) layer
  3. inner layer
102
Q

What are the layers of the eyeball?

A
  • fibrous (outer) layer
  • vascular (middle) layer
  • inner layer
103
Q

What is the “white of the eye”?

104
Q

What is the function of the sclera?

A

attachment of extraoccular m.

105
Q

What is the transparent (clear) portion of the eye?

106
Q

What are the contents of the fibrous layer of the eyeball?

A
  • sclera
  • cornea
107
Q

What are the contents of the vascular layer of the eyeball?

A
  • choroid
  • ciliary body
  • iris
108
Q

What is the choroid portion of the vascular layer of the eye?

A

dense vascular bed

109
Q

What gives the eye the “red eye” look in pictures?

110
Q

What is the function of the ciliary body?

A

attachment for lens

111
Q

Identify

A
  1. choroid
  2. ciliary body
112
Q

What does the ciliary body produce?

A

aqueous humor

113
Q

What is the function of the iris?

A

controls the amount of light entering the eye

114
Q

What is the iris?

A

contractile ring that lays on the anterior surface of the lens

115
Q

Identify

116
Q

What is the content of the inner layer of the eyeball?

117
Q

What are the two portions of the retina?

A
  • optic
  • non-visual
118
Q

What makes up the optic portion of the retina?

A
  • optic disc
  • optic cup
  • macular of retina
  • fovea centralis
119
Q

Identify

A
  1. A - optic portion of retina; B - nonvisual portion of retina
  2. macula of retina & fovea centralis
  3. optic disc and cup
120
Q

Identify

A
  1. optic disc
  2. optic cup
121
Q

How do you determine the R eye vs. L eye?

A

optic disc is medial to fovea centralis

122
Q

When doing an eye exam, what do you look for?

A
  • integrity of the blood vessels - AV knicking
123
Q

What is the pathway that light travesl to the retina?

A
  1. cornea
  2. aqueous humor
  3. lense
  4. vitrious humor
124
Q

What is cataracts?

A

opacities that accumulate in the lens

125
Q

Identify

A
  1. cornea
  2. aqueous humor
  3. lens
  4. vitrous humor
  5. cataracts
126
Q

How is aquous humor secreted and drained?

A
  • produced in ciliary process of ciliary body
  • secreted into posterior chamber
  • flows into anterior chamber
  • drains int scleral venous sinus
127
Q

Identify

A
  1. posterior chamber
  2. anterior chamber
  3. scleral venous sinus (canal of Schlemm)
128
Q

What is glaucoma?

A
  • drainage canal blocked leading to a build-up of fluid
  • increased pressure damages blood vessels and optic n.
129
Q

Which of the extraoccular muscles are innervated by CN 3?

A
  • medial rectus
  • superior rectus
  • inferior rectus
  • inferior oblique
130
Q

Which of the extraoccular muscles is innervated by CN 4?

A
  • superior oblique
131
Q

Which of the extraoccular muscles is innervated by CN 5?

A
  • lateral rectus
132
Q

Identify

A
  1. medial rectus
  2. superior rectus
  3. inferior rectus
  4. inferior oblique
  5. superior oblique
  6. lateral rectus
  7. levator palpebral superior
133
Q

What is the action of medial rectus?

A
  • adduction
  • convergence
134
Q

What is the action of superior rectus?

135
Q

What is the action of the inferior rectus?

A
  • depression
136
Q

What is the action of the inferior oblique?

A
  • looks up and in
137
Q

What is the action of superior oblique?

A
  • looks down and in
138
Q

What is the action of lateral rectus?

139
Q

Identify

A
  1. superior oblique
  2. medial rectus
  3. levator palebrae
  4. superior rectus
  5. lateral rectus
140
Q

Identify

A
  1. superior oblique
  2. levator palpebra superior
  3. superior rectus
  4. lateral rectus
  5. inferior oblique
  6. inferior rectus
  7. medial rectus
141
Q

How do you distinguish between R and L eyes based on muscles?

A

superior obliqe is medial

142
Q

What is a physical test for the eye muscle actions and innervations?

143
Q

Identify

A
  1. ophthalmic a.
  2. central retinal a.
144
Q

Identify

A

mandibular foramen

145
Q

What is the track of V3 through the mandible?

A
  • enters the mandibular foramen
  • body of the mandible
  • exits the mental foramen
146
Q

Identify

A
  1. head of condylar process of mandible
  2. articular disc
  3. mandibular fossa of temporal bone
  4. articular tubercle of temporal bone
147
Q

Identify

A
  • TMJ joint capsule
148
Q

What are the TMJs two movements?

A
  • rotation
  • translation
149
Q

What movement occurs first when opening the jaw?

150
Q

Identify

A
  1. temporalis
  2. masseter
151
Q

Which muscles open the jaw?

A
  • temporalis
  • masseter
  • medial pterygoid
152
Q

Which muscle closes the jaw?

A
  • lateral pterygoid
153
Q

What innervates the muscles of mastication?

154
Q

Identify

A
  1. medial pterygoid
  2. lateral pterygoid
155
Q

What does lateral pterygoid attach to?

A

TMJ articular disc

156
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of lateral pterygoid?

A

two bellies

157
Q

Identify

A
  1. medial pterygoid
  2. lateral pterygoid
158
Q

Identify

A

3A. platopharyngeus

3B. platoglossus

3C. musculus uvulae

159
Q

Identify

A

A. platopharyngeus

B. platoglossus

C. musculus uvulae

  1. tonsils
160
Q

What innervates the soft palate?

Sensory

161
Q

What innervates the soft palate?

Motor

162
Q

What innervates the pharynx?

Sensory

163
Q

What innervates the pharynx?

Motor

164
Q

What is the clinical test for the integrity of CN 9 & 10?

A
  • Say “Ahhh”
  • Gag reflex
165
Q

How should the uvula look and move?

A
  • symmetrical
  • elevate along the midline
166
Q

How does the uvula look when there is a pathology?

A

deviates to the “strong”/uninjured side

167
Q

What are the regions of the tongue?

A
  • root
  • body
  • apex
  • inferior surface
168
Q

Identify

A
  1. root of tongue
  2. body of tongue
  3. apex of tongue
  4. inferior surface of tongue
  5. hyoid bone
169
Q

Identify

A
  1. root
  2. body
  3. apex
170
Q

Identify

A

4A. frenulum

4B. Wharton’s ducts

171
Q

What is the tongue?

A

mass of muscles that is mostly covered by mucosa

172
Q

What are the extrinsic tongue muscles?

A
  • genioglossus
  • hyoglossus
  • styloglossus
  • platoglossus
173
Q

Identify

A
  1. genioglossus
  2. hyoglossus
  3. styloglossus
  4. platoglossus
174
Q

Identify

A

platoglossus

175
Q

All the muscles of the tongue are innervated by ______ except _______ m. which is innervated by _______.

A
  • CN 12 - hypoglossal
  • platoglossus
  • CN 10
176
Q

What is the clinical test for the integrity of tongue movement?

A
  • “Stick out your tonuge”
177
Q

What is normal tongue movement vs. pathological?

A
  • normal - apex remains midline and symetrical
  • pathological - deviates towards “weak” side
178
Q

What are the three salivary glands?

A
  • submandibular
  • sublingual
  • parotid
179
Q

Where is the submandibular gland located?

A
  • submandibular triangle
180
Q

What is the opening for the submandibular gland?

A
  • Wharton’s duct
181
Q

Identify

A

submandibular gland

182
Q

Where is the sublingual gland located?

A
  • floor of the mouth
183
Q

Where does the sublingual gland drain to?

A

multiple openings in the floor of the mouth

184
Q

Identify

A
  • sublingual gland
185
Q

Identify

A
  1. submandibular gland

1B. Wharton’s duct

  1. sublingual gland
186
Q

Where is the parotid gland located?

A
  • anterior & inferior to external acustic meatus
  • between ramus and mastoid process
187
Q

What travels throught the parotid gland?

A

CN 7 - facial n.

188
Q

Identify

A
  1. parotid gland
  2. Stensen’s (parotid) duct
189
Q

What is the path of Stensen’s duct?

A
  • penetrates buccinator
  • superficial to masseter
  • opens into oral vestibule near upper 2nd molar
190
Q

Identify

A
  • Stensen’s duct
191
Q

Identify

A
  • Stensen’s duct
192
Q

Identify

A
  1. parotid gland
  2. maseter
  3. facial a.
193
Q

Identify

A

1A. cribiform plate on the ethmoid bone

2A. perpendicular plate on the ethmoid bone

2B. vomer

2C. septal cartilage

3A. palatine process of maxillary bone

3B. horizontal plate of palatine bone

194
Q

What are the regions of the nose?

A
  • roof
  • septum
  • floor
195
Q

What makes up the roof of the nose?

A

cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

196
Q

What makes up the septum of the nose?

A
  • perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
  • vomer
  • septal cartilage
197
Q

What makes up the floor of the nose?

A
  • palatine process of the maxillary
  • horizontal plate of the palatine
198
Q

Identify

A
  1. inferior nasal meatus
  2. inferior nasal conchae
  3. middle nasal meatus
  4. middle nasal conchae
  5. superior nasal meatus
  6. superior nasal conchae
199
Q

Where is the opening to the nasal lacrimal duct?

A

inferior to inferior nasal concha

200
Q

Identify

A
  1. middle nasal concha
  2. middle nasal meatus
  3. inferior nasal concha
  4. inferior nasal meatus
201
Q

What are the regions of the nose?

A
  • vestibule area
  • respiratory area
  • olfactory area
202
Q

What is the vestibule area of the nose?

203
Q

What is the function of the respiratory area?

A

warms/humidifies air

204
Q

What is the function of the olfactory area?

A

contains CN 1 endings to detect smell

205
Q

Identify

A
  1. vestibular
  2. respiratory
  3. olfactory
206
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A
  • frontal
  • ethmodial
  • sphenoidal
  • maxillary
207
Q

Where does the frontal sinus open to?

A
  • frontal bone
    • middle nasal meatus
208
Q

Where does the ethmoidal sinus open to?

A
  • ethmoid cells
    • superior and middle nasal meatus
209
Q

Where does the sphenoidal sinus open to?

A
  • body of sphenoid
    • superior/posterior nasal cavity
210
Q

Where does the maxillary sinus open to?

A
  • middle nasal meatus
211
Q

What is maxillary sinusitis?

A
  • maxillary sinus infection
212
Q

Which of the sinuses is most commonly infected?

A
  • maxillary sinus
213
Q

Which of the sinuses is the largest?

214
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. ethmoidal
  3. maxillary
  4. sphenoid
215
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. ethmoidal
  3. sphenoid
216
Q

Identify

A
  1. frontal
  2. ethmoidal
  3. maxillary
217
Q

What are the structures of the external ear?

A
  • auricle (aka pinna)
  • external acoustic meatus
  • tympanic membrane
218
Q

Identify

A
  1. pinna
  2. lobule
  3. tragus
219
Q

Identify

A
  1. external acoustic meatus
  2. tympanic membrane
220
Q

What directon does the tympanic membrane face?

221
Q

What is the umbo?

A
  • deepest concavity on the TM
222
Q

Identify

223
Q

What are the structures in the middle ear?

A
  • tympanic cavity
  • auditory ossicles
  • muscles
224
Q

What connects the tympanic cavity to the nasopharynx?

A

phatyngotympanic tube

(eustachian or auditory tube)

225
Q

What are the bones of the ear?

A
  • malleus
  • incus
  • stapes
226
Q

Identify

A
  1. pharyngotympanic tube (eustachian)
  2. tympanic cavity
  3. malleus
  4. incus
  5. stapes
227
Q

Identify

A
  1. tensor tympani m.
  2. malleus
  3. incus
  4. stapedius m.
  5. stapes
228
Q

Where is the inner ear located?

A

temporal bone

229
Q

What are the structures of the inner ear?

A
  • bony labyrinth
  • cochlea
  • vestibule of bony labyrinth
  • semicircular canals
230
Q

What part of the inner ear has auditory function?

231
Q

What part of the inner ear has vestibular function?

A
  • vestibule of bony labrynth
  • semicircular canals
232
Q

Identify

A
  1. pharyngotympanic tube
  2. cochlea
  3. vestibule of bony labyrinth
  4. semicircular canals
233
Q

Identify

A
  1. cochlea
  2. vestibule of bony labyrinth
  3. semicircular canals
234
Q

Identify

A
  1. vestibule of bony labyrinth
  2. semicircular canals
235
Q

What are the 4 major branches of the ECA?

A
  • facial a.
  • maxillary a.
  • superior temporal a.
  • superior thyroid a.
236
Q

Identify

A
  1. facial a.
  2. maxillary a.
  3. superficial temporal a.
  4. superior thyroid a.
237
Q

Describe the path of the ICA

A
  • enters skull via carotid canal
  • turns anterior (horizontal) to travel in temporal bone
  • turns superior to ascend into Circle of Willis anteriorly
238
Q

Describe the pathway of the vertebral a.

A
  • ascends in tranverse foramen of c-spine
  • enters skull via foramen magnum
  • R & L merge to form basilar a.
  • ascends anterior to brainstem
  • enters the Circle of Willis posteriorly
239
Q

Identify

A
  1. vertebral a.
  2. basilar a.
240
Q

What converges at the orbit?

A

anastamosis of 3 branches of ECA and 1 of ICA (opthalmic a.)

241
Q

What is there a potential for at an anastamosis?

A

reverse flow to provide circulation to the brain via ECA

Clin Anat I - Exam #1 (3 decks)

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