HDN/HTR/QA Flashcards

1
Q

What is hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN)?

A

Destruction of fetal or neonate RBC’s by antibodies produced by the mother
Caused by IgG antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What blood bank tests are typically completed on all pregnant women?

A

Type and screen, Du (weak D) testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What process is occurring in the fetus to compensate for the maternal antibody destruction of RBCs?

A

Kernicterus increases. Hematopoietic tissue, fetal bond marrow, spleen, and liver increase RBC production as anemia increases due to mother’s antibody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What may be done to evaluate the severity of HDN during pregnancy?

A

Amniocentesis or cardocentesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What blood bank tests should be done on all cord bloods, when HDN is suspected?

A

ABO grouping, Rh typing, DAT

elution - antibody ID if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What further tests may be helpful if the baby is sensitized?

A

Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What criteria must blood meet in order to be suitable for an exchange transfusion for a fetus or newborn?

A

Group O RBCs, gamma irradiated to decrease GVHD, antigen for mother’s antibody, CMV neg, blood < 7 days old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What specimen do you use for crossmatching in a fetal transfusion?

A

Mother’s serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why should cord cells be washed 4 times before testing for ABO, Rh, and DAT?

A

To remove Wharton’s jelly, which will cause false positive agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What screening test can be done to detect fetal blood in the mother’s post delivery specimen?

A

Rosette technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the theory behind the rosette screen for fetal RBCs?

A

A sample of the mother’s blood is mixed with anti-D. The anti-D attaches to the fetal D pos cells, which makes it invisible. O pos cells are added that attache to the anti-D on the fetal cells, making a circle around them (a Rosette). A pos test indicates a large fetal bleed into the mother’s circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What quantitative test can be completed to determine how many fetal cells are in the mother’s serum?

A

Confirmation test such as Kleihauer-Betke for quantitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the shelf life and storage temp for RhIg?

A

2 years at 1-6 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What else can be done to quantitate fetal bleed into the mother’s circulation besides the Kleihauer-Betke test?

A

Flow cytometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which immunoglobulin class can cross the placenta and enter a fetus’ circulation?

A

IgG 1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When are multiple doses of Rh immune globulin indicated?

A

Confirmatory test - Bleihauer-Betke pos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are antibodies titered? When is this important?

A

Antibodies are titered in the mother to give a relative # of antibodies that are crossing the placenta and also to see if the titer is increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why must the RBCs be standardized for each antibody titer?

A

The RBCs used for each titration should be from the same donor, approximately same storage time & same concentration. The 1st serum specimen should be frozen and done in parallel with each subsequent titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A babe is found to have a pos DAT. How would you interpret?

A

Elution - antibody ID

20
Q

What would you do if the mother was a pos for weak D and had a negative FMH screen?

A

No work up

21
Q

What would you do if the mother has a negative weak D and pos FMH screen?

A

Quantitate by Kleihauer-Betke or similar technique

22
Q

What is the incidence of forming anti-D for an Rh negative mother giving birth to an Rh positive baby?

23
Q

In HDN, the greatest risk to the newborn after 24 hours is ?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia

24
Q

The most frequently seen cause of HDN is:

A

anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B

25
One of the most severe cause of HDN is:
anti-D
26
Why isn't anti-Le(a) associated with HDN?
Most anti-Le(a) are IgM so they don't cross the placenta and if they are a rare IgG, the Lewis antigens are not well developed on fetal or newborn RBCs
27
List the blood group systems that are rarely involved with hemolytic disease of the newborn or fetus
Lewis, P, MN
28
If a fetus or newborn has a positive DAT, what are the next steps to be don before a transfusion?
Elution, antibody ID, blood selection that is CMV neg, irradiated and without the corresponding antigen involved, crossmatch
29
How many vials of RhIg should be administered if the mother had a positive Rosette test and no fetal cells were seen on Kleihauer-Betke slide?
One
30
What is the principle of the Kleinhauer-Betke test for fetal maternal bleed?
Maternal blood smear is treated with acid & then stained with a counterstain. Fetal cells (containing Hgb F) will remain pink because they are resistant to the acid. Mother's cells will appear ghost-like. the % of fetal cells is calculated after 2000 cells are counted. From this, the volume of fetal cells in the mother's circulation is counted
31
Which RBC antigens are not expressed on RBCs at birth?
Lewis, P, Lutheran
32
What class of antibody and temperature of reaction is the cause of the most sever intravascular transfusion reactions?
IgM broad thermal range, ABO
33
What signs and symptoms are occurring in the patient who is having a febrile transfusion reaction?
One degree C rise of temp over baseline temp during/within 24 hours after transfusion One degree C rise of temp over baseline during/within 8 hours after transfusion Probable causes: antibodies to human leukocyte antigens and cytokines in the unit of blood if not leukoreduced shortly after collection
34
What can be done to prevent further problems with febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?
Better filtering out WBCs Could use washed RBCs or deglycerized to remove all WBCs including fragments and cytokines produced during storage if not pre-storage leukoreduced
35
What signs and symptoms are occurring in the patient who is having an allergic transfusion reactions?
Erythema, pruritis, hives. Fevers may or may not be present
36
What can be done to prevent further problems with allergic transfusion reactions?
Removal of plasma with blood components (washed RBCs and platelets) and premedication with antihistamine
37
What signs and symptoms are occurring in the patient with immediate intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Immediate, pt frequently has fever, chills, oliguria. some experience anuria, coagulapathy and 1 out of 10 ie o hypotension
38
What signs and symptoms are occurring in the patient with delayed extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Fever, chills, jaundice, unexpected anemia, and decreased haptoglobin
39
What is transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)? What is the likely cause?
Symptoms are seen when the patient's cardiovascular system's inability to handle too much volume occurs. Congesting heart failure signs and symptoms occur. Circulatory overload
40
What would the complication for a patient that has received frequent RBC transfusions over a life time?
Iron overload
41
What needs to be done to a unit of RBCs before issue them to a severely immunocompromised recipient?
Irradiated
42
What would possibly cause a physically induced transfusion reaction?
RBC hemolysis from heat damage RBC hemolysis from freezing/washing process Pushing donor unit too fast through transfusion needle - causing hemolysis
43
What is the most likely cause of transfusion related acute lung injury?
Donor antibodies to MHC antigens
44
What is the primary cause of post-transfusion purpura and a severe drop in the platelet count of the recipient?
Platelet antibodies HPA (Ia) in recipient
45
If a patient has a massive transfusion, what electrolyte may fall because of citrate toxicity?
Calcium
46
If a patient has antibodies to IgA, what type of transfusion reaction may occur?
Anaphylactic
47
If a person has anti-IgA and needs RBC products, what can be done to make a safe transfusion?
Wash the RBCs