HD 202 E1 Samplex 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

True of properly timed cord

a. Has a significant impact of post-partum hemorrhage
b. Clamp and Cut within 1-3 seconds
c. Minimizes transfusion of blood
d. Prevents intraventricular hemorrhage among preterm infants

A

D

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2
Q

True of properly timed cord clamping

a. Has a significant impact of post-partum hemorrhage
b. Clamp and Cut within 1-3 seconds
c. Minimizes transfusion of blood
d. Prevents intraventricular hemorrhage among preterm infants

A

D

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3
Q

True of fetal hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve

a. Shifted to the right
b. Shifted to the left
c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation

A

D

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4
Q

True of oxygen margin of safety

a. Refers to fetus’ ability to increase fractional oxygen extraction
b. Shifted to the left
c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation

A

A

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5
Q

True of fetal breathing movements in utero

a. Allows for perfusion of fetal lungs
b. Results in 20% decrease in oxygen consumption
c. Increases muscle tone
d. Is an abnormal observation

A

B

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6
Q

True of the biophysical profile for determining fetal well-being

a. Is inaccurate
b. Normal range is 7-9
c. Reactive nonstress test suggests that the fetal heart rate increases in response to fetal movement
d. NOTA

A

C

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7
Q

True about Barker’s Hypothesis

a. Low birth weight would increase the incidence of adult onset diseases such as hypertension, diabetes, and cancer
b. Decreased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
c. Increased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
d. NOTA

A

C

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8
Q

True of Neonatal resuscitation

a. Consists of series of interventions designed to provide adequate ventilation, oxygenation, and cardiac output
b. Ensure smooth transition from uterus to an extrauterine environment
c. Resuscitation of depressed infants in the first few minutes of life may affect the quality of person’s life
d. AOTA

A

D

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9
Q

Neonates source of fuel for energy

a. Oxygen
b. Glucose
c. Both
d. Neither

A

C

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10
Q

ABCs of resuscitation

a. Airway, bag +mask, circulation
b. Airway, breathing, chest compression
c. Airway, bag + mask, chest compression
d. Airway, breathing, circulation

A

D

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11
Q

True of Thermoregulation

a. Accomplish prior to resuscitation
b. Is important to prevent fatal hypothermia
c. Pre heated radiant warmer
d. AOTA

A

D

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12
Q

Chest compressions are initiated when:

a. HR is <80 despite adequate bag + mask ventilation

A

A

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13
Q

Initial assessment of neonate includes:

a. Determining if amniotic fluid is meconium stained
b. Determining if infant is breathing or crying
c. Determining if infant is of timely gestation
d. AOTA

A

D

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14
Q

What does “Ventilation” is the key” mean?

a. The need to bag and ventilate all babies
b. Ventilation is the key to a better life
c. Important that air is breathed into the baby’s lungs
d. NOTA

A

C

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15
Q

True of Philippine mortality statistics

a. The Philippines is one of 42 countries that comprise 90% of maternal deaths
b. Reaching the MDG for maternal mortality means decreasing it to a ratio by 2015
c. Lowering maternal mortality means addressing neonatal mortality
d. AOTA

A

D

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16
Q

Core steps of essential intrapartum & neonatal care

a. Rapid initial assessment
b. Prevention of hypothermia
c. Assessment of gasping or not breathin
d. Non-separation of baby and mother prior to completion of first breastfeeding

A

D

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17
Q

Which about sexual differentiation is true?

a. SRY gene is found in Chromosome Y
b. Genes for androgen receptors are found in chromosome X
c. Autosomal chromosomes don’t play a role in sexual differentiation
d. AOTA
e. A and B only

A

E

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18
Q

Genetic sex is determined by:

a. X or Y chromosome
b. Presence of internal genitalia
c. External genitalia
d. Parental social cues

A

A

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19
Q

hCG plays a role in:

a. testicular descent
b. sexual libido
c. steroidogenesis
d. AOTA

A

D

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20
Q

A female exposed to excess maternal adrenal androgens after the 20th week of fetal development will have?

a. Testis
b. Vagina
c. Ambiguous external genitalia
d. AOTA

A

C

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21
Q

Major site of degradation of sex steroids:

a. brain
b. kidney
c. liver
d. heart

A

C

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22
Q

Prior to puberty, the expected profile of a 7-year old child is:

a. Low FSH, low LH, low estradiol
b. Low FSH, low LH, high estradiol
c. High FSH, high LH, low estradiol
d. high FSH, high LH, high estradiol

A

A

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23
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of female pubertal development:

a. Thelarche, Adrelarche, growth spurth, Menarch
b. Adrelarche, growth spurt, thelarche, menarche
c. Growth spurt, Menarch, Thelarche, Adrelarche
d. Menarche, Thelarche, Adrelarche, Growth Spurt

A

A

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24
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of post-menopausal women?

a. Low estradiol, high FSH, High LH
b. Low estradiol, low FSH, low, LH
c. Normal estradiol, high FSH, high LH
d. Normal estradiol, low FSH, low LH

A

A

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25
Q

All of the following hormones attached to a membrane receptor except:

a. LH
b. FSH
c. GnRH
d. Estradiol

A

D

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26
Q

Which of the following findings hint that the female is in the second half of the ovarian cycle

a. beady cervical mucus
b. increased basal body temperature
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

C

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27
Q

Dr. Buenaluz fears that she is nearing menopause. She may expect the following changes except:

a. Increase in transport globulins
b. Increase in LDL
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

A

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28
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in male pubertal growth

a. Testicular growth, pubic hair, growth spurt, penile enlargement
b. Penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt, testicular growth
c. Testicular growth, pubic hair, penile enlargement, growth spurt
d. Testicular growth, penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt

A

C

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29
Q

What is the normal adult testicular size:

a. 2cm long X 2cm wide
b. 2cm long X 3cm wide
c. 5cm long X 3cm wide
d. 7cm long X 5cm wide

A

C

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30
Q

The following are secreted by sertoli cells except:

a. Estradiol
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Androgen binding protein
d. Meiosis inhibiting factor

A

B

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31
Q

Which of the following substances ensures a high concentration of testosterone in the seminiferious tubule

a. Acid phosphatase
b. Androgen binding Protein
c. Anti-meiotic Hormone
d. Inhibin

A

B

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32
Q

Injecting male sterior hormones in preparation for a body building competition may result in

a. Testicular shrinkage
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Infertility
d. AOTA

A

D

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33
Q

Movement of sperm cells from the seminiferous tubule is due to the

a. Contraction of tubule
b. Relaxation of tubule to allow flow
c. Ciliary movement in the tubule
d. NOTA

A

A

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34
Q

Organ responsible for forming the second fraction of ejaculate

a. Prostate
b. Vas Deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Seminal Vesicle

A

B

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35
Q

Scalloped Appearance

a. Rete Testis
b. Tubuli Recti
c. Ductuli Efferentes
d. Epididymis

A

C

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36
Q

Nutrition for the sperm cell as they travel along the reproductive tract comes from

a. 1st fraction
b. 2nd fraction
c. 3rd fraction
d. 4th fraction

A

C

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37
Q

On seminanalysis, patient was noted to have sperm with irregular shape. In which phase of spermatogenises could this have resulted from

a. Golgi Phase
b. Cap Phase
c. Maturation Phase
d. NOTA

A

A

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38
Q

The midpiece of the sperm cell is related to which organelle

a. RER
b. Nucleus
c. Golgi Apparatus
d. Mitochondria

A

D

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39
Q

Which of the following cases show a patient most susceptible to infertility

a. Construction worker who regularly works with machinery
b. 24 year old social drinker
c. Retired 60year old with no chronic diseases
d. NOTA

A

A

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40
Q

The extraembryonic mesoderm are formed from:

a. Primary yolk sac
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Chorionic cavity

A

A

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41
Q

Localized thickening of hypoblast

a. Prechordal plate
b. Cloacal plate
c. Oropharyngeal membrane
d. Bucopharyngeal membrane

A

A

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42
Q

Epiblast is associated with

a. Primary yolk sac
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Chorionic cavity

A

C

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43
Q

Process by which epiblast gives rise to 3 germ layers

a. Gastrulation
b. Neurulation
c. Involution
d. Blastulation

A

A

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44
Q

Allantois is a diverticulum of the

a. Primary yolk sac
b. Definitive yolk sac
c. Amniotic Cavity
d. Chorionic Cavity

A

B

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45
Q

Chorionic villi associated with decidua that are compressed:

a. Decidua basalis
b. Decidua capsularis
c. Decidua parietalis
d. Decidua vera

A

B

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46
Q

Structure in placenta membrane that disappears at term

a. Syncytiotrophoblast
b. Mononucleated layer of cells
c. Villi
d. Chorionic plate

A

B

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47
Q

As the zygote invades the endometrium during implantation

a. The endometrial cells accumulate glycogen and nutrients
b. The endometrial cells atrophy
c. The endometrial cells release inhibitory granules
d. The endometrial cells do nothing

A

A

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48
Q

Primary yolk sac develops from the

a. Extracoelomic space
b. Amniotic cavity
c. Chorionic Cavity
d. Blastocoele

A

D

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49
Q

Somites form from the:

a. Paraxial mesoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. AOTA

A

A

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50
Q

Which is the origin of the three germ layers?

a. Epiblast
b. Hypoblast
c. Yolk sac
d. Trophoblast

A

A

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51
Q

Primordium of intervillous space

a. Lacunae of cytotrophoblast
b. Lacunae of syncytiotrophoblast
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

B

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52
Q

Ultrasound can detect a mass at the coccygeal area of the fetus. What is the probable origin?

a. Allantois
b. Ileal diverticulum
c. Primitive Streak
d. NOTA

A

C

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53
Q

What lines the extraembryonic coelom?

a. Amniotic membrane
b. Heusser’s membrane
c. Exocoelomic membrane
d. Chorionic membrane

A

D

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54
Q

Between which two membranes does the extraembryonic mesoderm lie?

a. Epiblast and Hypoblast
b. Cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast
c. Exocoelomic and syncitiotrophoblast
d. Cytotrophoblast and chorionic membrane

A

D

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55
Q

Characteristics or one-week old blastocyst

a. Has a single layer of trophoblast and at embryonic pole
b. Developed amniotic cavity
c. Attached to the uterine endometrium
d. Surrounded by a degenerating zona pellucida

A

C

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56
Q

Early Stage of Cleavage are characterized by

a. Increase in number of cells inside the zona pellucida
b. Increase in size of cells inside the zona pellucida
c. Increase in size and number of cells inside the zona pellucida
d. Formation of zona pellucida

A

A

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57
Q

Development of primary oocytes occur

a. Before birth
b. At birth
c. During puberty
d. During pregnancy

A

A

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58
Q

Completion of meiosis I

a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. During puberty
d. Before birth

A

A

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59
Q

pending sign of ovulation

a. Macula pellucida
b. Macula densa
c. Fovea
d. NOTA

A

A

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60
Q

A male cannot breastfeed because of

a. No secretory alveoli
b. No ducts
c. No breast fat
d. No progesterone and oxytocin

A

A

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61
Q

Mammary gland secretory alveoli appear when

a. Pregnancy occurs
b. Puberty
c. Baby sucks on the nipple
d. NOTA

A

A

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62
Q

What type of gland is the mammary gland?

a. Simple tubular
b. Compound tubular
c. Tubular-acinar
d. Simple coiled

A

C

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63
Q

A polar body forms

a. Before fertilization
b. After fertilization
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

C

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64
Q

The antrum is a characteristic of:

a. Secondary Follicle
b. Graafian Follicle
c. Primary Follicle
d. AOTA
e. A and B only

A

E

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65
Q

What area in the female experiences the greatest change in the menstrual cycle?

a. Endometrium
b. Ovary
c. Vagina
d. Cervix

A

A

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66
Q

Within the ovary, primordial follicles begin their development

a. During prenatal period
b. At birth
c. At puberty
d. During pregnancy

A

A

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67
Q

Epithelium present in the female reproductive tract

a. Simple columnar
b. Stratified squamous
c. Stratified columnar
d. Only A, and B
e. A, B and C

A

D

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68
Q

Which phase of the menstrual cycle has tubular endometrial glands

a. Follicular
b. Menstrual
c. Luteal
d. Only A, and B

A

A

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69
Q

Increased thickness of the endometrium during the follicular phase is due to:

a. Cellular proliferation
b. Cellular hypertrophy
c. Nonessential cell death
d. A and B only

A

A

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70
Q

What is not found in a graafian follicle?

a. Corona radiate
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Theca Interna
d. Granulosa cells

A

B

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71
Q

The plasma level of certain steroid hormones are increased during pregnancy, elevation of the blood levels of which of the following is a result of decreased clearance due to an increase in binding protein

a. cortisol
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. oxytocin

A

A

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72
Q

Hemochorion nature of placenta results in a directional secretion of steroids such that

a. 85% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
b. 75% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
c. 65% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
d. NOTA

A

A

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73
Q

In which condition is fetal estrogen production increased?

a. Anencephaly
b. Fetal adrenal hypoplasia
c. fetal erythroblastosis
d. NOTA

A

C

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74
Q

Low maternal hCG is associated with

a. Anencephaly
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. fetal erythroblastosis
d. NOTA

A

B

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75
Q

Which is a biologic function of hPL

a. promotes maternal lipolysis
b. inhibits insulin secretion
c. promotes maternal lipogenesis
d. NOTA

A

A

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76
Q

Which placental hormone acts to prevent pituitary FSH, preventing ovulation

a. inhibin
b. activin
c. progestin
d. NOTA

77
Q

Slow block to polyspermy

a. release of cortical lysozomal enzymes
b. depolarization causing repulsion of sperms
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

78
Q

Blastocyst needs to lose this structure

a. Corona radiata
b. zona pellucida
c. corona radiate
d. cumulus oophorus

79
Q

IUD interferes with implantation by

a. causing a local inflammatory response
b. destroying the ovum before implantation
c. physically blocking the ovum in the fallopian tube
d. NOTA

80
Q

Sperm gain ability to penetrate the corona after

a. priming
b. capacitation
c. meiosis II
d. ejaculation

81
Q

An ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out by the presence of

a. Elevated hCG levels in the blood
b. Gestational sac
c. Elevated hCG levels in urine
d. NOTA

82
Q

The definitive oocyte with its haploid number of chromosomes is formed after:

a. Sperm penetrates the ovum’s cytoplasm
b. The first mitotic division
c. Sperm penetrates the corona
d. NOTA

83
Q

Protein important during phase 3 of fertilization

a. Egg Integrin
b. Sperm Disintegrin
c. Alpha Fertilin
d. AOTA

84
Q

Invading blastocyst starts to penetrate the endometrium because of the

a. Chorionic Plate
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
c. Cytotrophoblast
d. Extraembryonic mesoderm

85
Q

Implantation is completed when it has invaded

a. Endometrium
b. Inner third of myometrium
c. Maternal blood vessels
d. AOTA

86
Q

Fetal growth of 200-300 g/week

a. 3rd month
b. 2nd month
c. 5th month
d. last 4 weeks

87
Q

Estimation of gestation age during the 7th to 14th weeks is done using

a. CRL
b. CHL
c. BPL
d. FL

88
Q

Fetal length at 16 weeks

a. ½ CRL
b. 1/3 CRL
c. ½ CHL
d. ¼ CHL

89
Q

Period of rapid brain development

a. 4th month
b. 5th month
c. 7th month
d. 8th month

90
Q

prenatal growth is mainly influenced by

a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
b. Growth Hormone (GH)
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

91
Q

Half of birth length

A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
92
Q

Bone marrow site of erythropoiesis

A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
93
Q

Lung surfactant

A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
94
Q

Quickening

A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
95
Q

Human looking face

A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
96
Q
  1. True of fetal hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve
    a. Shifted to the right
    b. Shifted to the left
    c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
    d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation
97
Q
  1. True of oxygen margin of safety
    a. Refers to fetus’ ability to increase fractional oxygen extraction
    b. Shifted to the left
    c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
    d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation
98
Q
  1. True of fetal breathing movements in utero
    a. Allows for perfusion of fetal lungs
    b. Results in 20% decrease in oxygen consumption
    c. Increases muscle tone
    d. Is an abnormal observation
99
Q
  1. True of the biophysical profile for determining fetal well-being
    a. Is inaccurate
    b. Normal range is 7-9
    c. Reactive nonstress test suggests that the fetal heart rate increases in response to fetal movement
    d. NOTA
100
Q
  1. True about Barker’s Hypothesis
    a. Low birth weight would increase the incidence of adult onset diseases such as hypertension, diabetes, and cancer
    b. Decreased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
    c. Increased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
    d. NOTA
101
Q
  1. True of Neonatal resuscitation
    a. Consists of series of interventions designed to provide adequate ventilation, oxygenation, and cardiac output
    b. Ensure smooth transition from uterus to an extrauterine environment
    c. Resuscitation of depressed infants in the first few minutes of life may affect the quality of person’s life
    d. AOTA
102
Q
  1. Neonates source of fuel for energy
    a. Oxygen
    b. Glucose
    c. Both
    d. Neither
103
Q
  1. ABCs of resuscitation
    a. Airway, bag +mask, circulation
    b. Airway, breathing, chest compression
    c. Airway, bag + mask, chest compression
    d. Airway, breathing, circulation
104
Q
  1. True of Thermoregulation
    a. Accomplish prior to resuscitation
    b. Is important to prevent fatal hypothermia
    c. Pre heated radiant warmer
    d. AOTA
105
Q
  1. Chest compressions are initiated when:

a. HR is <80 despite adequate bag + mask ventilation

106
Q
  1. Initial assessment of neonate includes:
    a. Determining if amniotic fluid is meconium stained
    b. Determining if infant is breathing or crying
    c. Determining if infant is of timely gestation
    d. AOTA
107
Q
  1. What does “Ventilation” is the key” mean?
    a. The need to bag and ventilate all babies
    b. Ventilation is the key to a better life
    c. Important that air is breathed into the baby’s lungs
    d. NOTA
108
Q
  1. True of Philippine mortality statistics
    a. The Philippines is one of 42 countries that comprise 90% of maternal deaths
    b. Reaching the MDG for maternal mortality means decreasing it to a ratio by 2015
    c. Lowering maternal mortality means addressing neonatal mortality
    d. AOTA
109
Q
  1. Core steps of essential intrapartum & neonatal care
    a. Rapid initial assessment
    b. Prevention of hypothermia
    c. Assessment of gasping or not breathin
    d. Non-separation of baby and mother prior to completion of first breastfeeding
110
Q
  1. Which about sexual differentiation is true?
    a. SRY gene is found in Chromosome Y
    b. Genes for androgen receptors are found in chromosome X
    c. Autosomal chromosomes don’t play a role in sexual differentiation
    d. AOTA
    e. A and B only
111
Q
  1. Genetic sex is determined by:
    a. X or Y chromosome
    b. Presence of internal genitalia
    c. External genitalia
    d. Parental social cues
112
Q
  1. hCG plays a role in:
    a. testicular descent
    b. sexual libido
    c. steroidogenesis
    d. AOTA
113
Q
  1. A female exposed to excess maternal adrenal androgens after the 20th week of fetal development will have?
    a. Testis
    b. Vagina
    c. Ambiguous external genitalia
    d. AOTA
114
Q
  1. Major site of degradation of sex steroids:
    a. Brain
    b. kidney
    c. liver
    d. heart
115
Q
  1. Prior to puberty, the expected profile of a 7-year old child is:
    a. Low FSH, low LH, low estradiol
    b. Low FSH, low LH, high estradiol
    c. High FSH, high LH, low estradiol
    d. high FSH, high LH, high estradiol
116
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of female pubertal development:
    a. Thelarche, Adrelarche, growth spurth, Menarch
    b. Adrelarche, growth spurt, thelarche, menarche
    c. Growth spurt, Menarch, Thelarche, Adrelarche
    d. Menarche, Thelarche, Adrelarche, Growth Spurt
117
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of post-menopausal women?
    a. Low estradiol, high FSH, High LH
    b. Low estradiol, low FSH, low, LH
    c. Normal estradiol, high FSH, high LH
    d. Normal estradiol, low FSH, low LH
118
Q
  1. All of the following hormones attached to a membrane receptor except:
    a. LH
    b. FSH
    c. GnRH
    d. Estradiol
119
Q
  1. Which of the following findings hint that the female is in the second half of the ovarian cycle
    a. beady cervical mucus
    b. increased basal body temperature
    c. AOTA
    d. NOTA
120
Q
  1. Dr. Buenaluz fears that she is nearing menopause. She may expect the following changes except:
    a. Increase in transport globulins
    b. Increase in LDL
    c. AOTA
    d. NOTA
121
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in male pubertal growth
    a. Testicular growth, pubic hair, growth spurt, penile enlargement
    b. Penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt, testicular growth
    c. Testicular growth, pubic hair, penile enlargement, growth spurt
    d. Testicular growth, penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt
122
Q
  1. What is the normal adult testicular size:
    a. 2cm long X2 cm wide
    b. 2cm X3 cm
    c. 5cm X3cm
    d. 7cm X 5cm
123
Q
  1. The following are secreted by sertoli cells except:
    a. Estradiol
    b. Acid phosphatase
    c. Androgen binding protein
    d. Meiosis inhibiting factor
124
Q
  1. Which of the following substances ensures a high concentration of testosterone in the seminiferious tubule
    a. Acid phosphatase
    b. Androgen binding Protein
    c. Anti-meiotic Hormone
    d. Inhibin
125
Q
  1. Injecting male sterior hormones in preparation for a body building competition may result in
    a. Testicular shrinkage
    b. Muscle hypertrophy
    c. Infertility
    d. AOTA
126
Q
  1. Movement of sperm cells from the seminiferous tubule is due to the
    a. Contraction of tubule
    b. Relaxation of tubule to allow flow
    c. Ciliary movement in the tubule
    d. NOTA
127
Q
  1. Organ responsible for forming the second fraction of ejaculate
    a. Prostate
    b. Vas Deferens
    c. Epididymis
    d. Seminal Vesicle
128
Q
  1. Scalloped Appearance
    a. Rete Testis
    b. Tubuli Recti
    c. Ductuli Efferentes
    d. Epididymis
129
Q
  1. Nutrition for the sperm cell as they travel along the reproductive tract comes from
    a. 1st fraction
    b. 2nd fraction
    c. 3rd fraction
    d. NOTA
130
Q
  1. On seminanalysis, patient was noted to have sperm with irregular shape. In which phase of spermatogenises could this have resulted from
    a. Golgi Phase
    b. Cap Phase
    c. Maturation Phase
    d. NOTA
131
Q
  1. The midpiece of the sperm cell is related to which organelle
    a. RER
    b. Nucleus
    c. Golgi Apparatus
    d. Mitochondria
132
Q
  1. Which of the following cases show a patient most susceptible to infertility
    a. Construction worker who regularly works with machinery
    b. 24 year old social drinker
    c. Retired 60year old with no chronic diseases
    d. NOTA
133
Q
  1. The extraembryonic mesoderm are formed from:
    a. Primary yolk sac
    b. Secondary yolk sac
    c. Amniotic cavity
    d. Chorionic cavity
134
Q
  1. Localized thickening of hypoblast
    a. Prechordal plate
    b. Cloacal plate
    c. Oropharyngeal membrane
    d. Bucopharyngeal membrane
135
Q
  1. Epiblast is associated with
    a. Primary yolk sac
    b. Secondary yolk sac
    c. Amniotic cavity
    d. Chorionic cavity
136
Q
  1. Process by which epiblast gives rise to 3 germ layers
    a. Gastrulation
    b. Neurulation
    c. Involution
    d. Blastulation
137
Q
  1. Allantois is a diverticulum of the
    a. Primary yolk sac
    b. Definitive yolk sac
    c. Amniotic Cavity
    d. Chorionic Cavity
138
Q
  1. Chorionic villi associated with decidua that are compressed:
    a. Decidua basalis
    b. Decidua capsularis
    c. Decidua parietalis
    d. Decidua vera
139
Q
  1. Structure in placenta membrane that disappears at term
    a. Syncytiotrophoblast
    b. Mononucleated layer of cells
    c. Villi
    d. Chorionic plate
140
Q
  1. As the zygote invades the endometrium during implantation
    a. The endometrial cells accumulate glycogen and nutrients
    b. The endometrial cells atrophy
    c. The endometrial cells release inhibitory granules
    d. The endometrial cells do nothing
141
Q
  1. Primary yolk sac develops from the
    a. Extracoelomic space
    b. Amniotic cavity
    c. Chorionic Cavity
    d. Blastocoele
142
Q
  1. Somites form from the:
    a. Paraxial mesoderm
    b. Intermediate mesoderm
    c. Lateral plate mesoderm
    d. AOTA
143
Q
  1. Which is the origin of the three germ layers?
    a. Epiblast
    b. Hypoblast
    c. Yolk sac
    d. Trophoblast
144
Q
  1. Primordium of intervillous space
    a. Lacunae of cytotrophoblast
    b. Lacunae of syncytiotrophoblast
    c. AOTA
    d. NOTA
145
Q
  1. Ultrasound can detect a mass at the coccygeal area of the fetus. What is the probable origin?
    a. Allantois
    b. Ileal diverticulum
    c. Primitive Streak
    d. NOTA
146
Q
  1. What lines the extraembryonic coelom?
    a. Amniotic membrane
    b. Heusser’s
    c. Exocoelomic membrane
    d. Chorionic Membrane
147
Q
  1. Between which two membranes does the extraembryonic mesoderm lie?
    a. Epiblast and Hypoblast
    b. Cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast
    c. Exocoelomic and syncitiotrophoblast
    d. Cytotrophoblast and chorionic membrane
148
Q
  1. Characteristics or one-week old blastocyst
    a. Has a single layer of trophoblast and at embryonic pole
    b. Developed amniotic cavity
    c. Attached to the uterine endometrium
    d. Surrounded by a degenerating zona pellucida
149
Q
  1. Early Stage of Cleavage are characterized by
    a. Increase in number of cells inside the zona pellucida
    b. Increase in size of cells inside the zona pellucida
    c. Increase in size and number of cells inside the zona pellucida
    d. Formation of zona pellucida
150
Q
  1. Development of primary oocytes occur
    a. Before birth
    b. At birth
    c. During puberty
    d. During pregnancy
151
Q
  1. Completion of meiosis I
    a. Ovulation
    b. Fertilization
    c. During puberty
    d. Before birth
152
Q
  1. pending sign of ovulation
    a. Macula pellucida
    b. Macula densa
    c. Fovea
    d. NOTA
153
Q
  1. A male cannot breastfeed because of
    a. No secretory alveoli
    b. No ducts
    c. No breast fat
    d. No progesterone and oxytocin
154
Q
  1. Mammary gland secretory alveoli appear when
    a. Pregnancy occurs
    b. Puberty
    c. Baby sucks on the nipple
    d. NOTA
155
Q
  1. What type of gland is the mammary gland?
    a. Simple tubular
    b. Compound tubular
    c. Tubular-acinar
    d. Simple coiled
156
Q
  1. A polar body forms
    a. Before fertilization
    b. After fertilization
    c. Both A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
157
Q
  1. The antrum is a characteristic of:
    a. Secondary Follicle
    b. Graafian Follicle
    c. Primary Follicle
    d. AOTA
    e. A and B only
158
Q
  1. What area in the female experiences the greatest change in the menstrual cycle?
    a. Endometrium
    b. Ovary
    c. Vagina
    d. Cervix
159
Q
  1. Within the ovary, primordial follicles begin their development
    a. During prenatal period
    b. At birth
    c. At puberty
    d. During pregnancy
160
Q
  1. Epithelium present in the female reproductive tract
    a. Simple columnar
    b. Stratified squamous
    c. Stratified columnar
    d. Only A, and B
    e. A, B and C
161
Q
  1. Which phase of the menstrual cycle has tubular endometrial glands
    a. Follicular
    b. Menstrual
    c. Luteal
    d. Only A, and B
162
Q
  1. Increased thickness of the endometrium during the follicular phase is due to:
    a. Cellular proliferation
    b. Cellular hypertrophy
    c. Nonessential cell death
    d. A and B only
163
Q
  1. What is not found in a graafian follicle?
    a. Corona radiate
    b. Germinal epithelium
    c. Theca Interna
    d. Granulosa cells
164
Q
  1. The plasma level of certain steroid hormones are increased during pregnancy, elevation of the blood levels of which of the following is a result of decreased clearance due to an increase in binding protein
    a. cortisol
    b. progesterone
    c. estrogen
    d. oxytocin
165
Q
  1. Hemochorion nature of placenta results in a directional secretion of steroids such that
    a. 85% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
    b. 75% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
    c. 65% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
    d. NOTA
166
Q
  1. In which condition is fetal estrogen production increased?
    a. Anencephaly
    b. Fetal adrenal hypoplasia
    c. fetal erythroblastosis
    d. NOTA
167
Q
  1. Low maternal hCG is associated with
    a. Anencephaly
    b. ectopic pregnancy
    c. fetal erythroblastosis
    d. NOTA
168
Q
  1. Which is a biologic function of hPL
    a. promotes maternal lipolysis
    b. inhibits insulin secretion
    c. promotes maternal lipogenesis
    d. NOTA
169
Q
  1. Which placental hormone acts to prevent pituitary FSH, preventing ovulation
    a. Inhibin
    b. activin
    c. progestin
    d. NOTA
170
Q
  1. Slow block to polyspermy
    a. release of cortical lysozomal enzymes
    b. depolarization causing repulsion of sperms
    c. AOTA
    d. NOTA
171
Q
  1. Blastocyst needs to lose this structure
    a. Corona radiata
    b. zona pellucida
    c. corona radiate
    d. cumulus oophorus
172
Q
  1. IUD interferes with implantation by
    a. causing a local inflammatory response
    b. destroying the ovum before implantation
    c. physically blocking the ovum in the fallopian tube
    d. NOTA
173
Q
  1. Sperm gain ability to penetrate the corona after
    a. priming
    b. capacitation
    c. meiosis II
    d. ejaculation
174
Q
  1. An ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out by the presence of
    a. Elevated hCG levels in the blood
    b. Gestational sac
    c. Elevated hCG levels in urine
    d. NOTA
175
Q
  1. The definitive oocyte with its haploid number of chromosomes is formed after:
    a. Sperm penetrates the ovum’s cytoplasm
    b. The first mitotic division
    c. Sperm penetrates the corona
    d. NOTA
176
Q
  1. Protein important during phase 3 of fertilization
    a. Egg Integrin
    b. Sperm Disintegrin
    c. Alpha Fertilin
    d. AOTA
177
Q
  1. Invading blastocyst starts to penetrate the endometrium because of the
    a. Chorionic Plate
    b. Syncytiotrophoblast
    c. Cytotrophoblast
    d. Extraembryonic mesoderm
178
Q
  1. Implantation is completed when it has invaded
    a. Endometrium
    b. Inner third of myometrium
    c. Maternal blood vessels
    d. AOTA
179
Q
  1. Fetal growth of 200-300 g/week
    a. 3rd month
    b. 2nd month
    c. 5th month
    d. last 4 weeks
180
Q
  1. Estimation of gestation age during the 7th to 14th weeks is done using
    a. CRL
    b. CHL
    c. BPL
    d. FL
181
Q
  1. Fetal length at 16 weeks
    a. ½ CRL
    b. 1/3 CRL
    c. ½ CHL
    d. ¼ CHL
182
Q
  1. Period of rapid brain development
    a. 4th month
    b. 5th month
    c. 7th month
    d. 8th month
183
Q
  1. prenatal growth is mainly influenced by
    a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF
    b. Growth Hormone (GH)
    c. Both A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
184
Q
105.	Half of birth length 
A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
185
Q
106.	Bone marrow site of erythropoiesis 
A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
186
Q
107.	Lung surfactant
A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
187
Q
108.	Quickening
A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks
188
Q
109.	Human looking face 
A.	12 weeks
B.	20 weeks
C.	24 weeks
D.	28 weeks
E.	32 weeks