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AT 354 > Hawker Final PTM Questions > Flashcards

Hawker Final PTM Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The emergency escape hatch is on the ____ side, ____ window

A

right side fourth window

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2
Q

to receive external power, the ground power unit must be plugged into the ground power receptacle on the:

A

right rear fuselage

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3
Q

This color annunciator indicates a condition that requires immediate crew action

A

red

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4
Q

electrical heating is provided for

A

forward static plates
pitot heads
windshields

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5
Q

when the cabin door is not in the fully locked position, microswitches connected to the master warning system illuminate the ___ annunciator

A

yellow ENT DOOR UNLOCKED

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6
Q

Power for the EMERG-OFF-STORM switch is controlled by the ____ bus bar

A

PE

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7
Q

the entry light switch is on the:

A

left bulkhead sidewall

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8
Q

if the NO SMKG switch is positioned to AUTO the NO SMOKING light illuminated when

A

the nose gear locks down during extension

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9
Q

the batteries will maintain essential service during a dual generator failure for

A

60 minutes max

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10
Q

the max battery amps for takeoff is

A

20 amps

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11
Q

when a generator is 0ff-line and the GEN FAIL and ELEC annunciators are illuminated, the generator can be reinstated by

A

positioning the GEN switch to CLOSE for five seconds then releasing it

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12
Q

the battery-charging rate can be monitored by

A

depressing the BATT ammeter pushbutton

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13
Q

for engine starting, the ground power unit must produce

A

28 volts, 1500 amps, 1100 amp current limiter

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14
Q

circuit breakers protecting unstitched PE circuits are marked to ease isolation in the event of soke or fire with

A

a white background

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15
Q

when either the BATT 1 CNTCTR or BATT 2 CNTCTR annunciator illuminates, it indicates that the respective

A

battery contractor or emergency contactor is open

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16
Q

the MWS annunciators can be dimmed:

A

by pressing the face of either red MWS glare shield annunciator

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17
Q

with the exception of DUCT OVHT the arrows on the center annunciator panel flashers signify

A

that a roof panel annunciator is illuminated

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18
Q

the white annunciators indicate

A

completed operations or system status

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19
Q

the bus bar that powers the master warning system is

A

PE

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20
Q

the MW flashing lights on the glare shield can be extinguished by

A

pressing either MW light on the glare shield

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21
Q

to illuminate all MWS annunciators at max intensities”

A

press the ANNUN switch

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22
Q

to bypass the DIM Circuit

A

position the DIM OVRD switch to OVRD

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23
Q

boost pumps are located in the

A

left and right wing tanks

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24
Q

there are ___ water drains in the fuel system

A

FIVE

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25
Q

when the ventral tank contains fuel, a low Vmo speed warning will sound whenever aircraft exceeds

A

280 kts

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26
Q

the usable fuel capacity is

A

10,000 lbs

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27
Q

the maximum lateral imbalance permitted is

A

500 lbs

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28
Q

with both boost pumps inoperative

A

ventral fuel cannot be transferred

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29
Q

if the ventral tank is to be used in flight, it must be full, and each wing must contain more than

A

3450 lbs

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30
Q

the aircraft fueling system accepts a max refueling supply pressure of

A

50 psi

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31
Q

the function of the apu is to supply

A

bleed air and DC electrical power for ground operations and in flight operations

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32
Q

do not operate apu bleed air and main engine bleed air simultaneously for longer than

A

1 minute

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33
Q

normal APU shut down is accomplished by

A

depressing the red STOP button on the APU control panel

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34
Q

the ___ supplies fuel for the APU

A

left main tank

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35
Q

the power plant classification on the Hawker 900xp series aircraft is

A

two spool turbofan

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36
Q

when the aircraft is static on a standard day at sea level, each engine develops

A

4660 lbs of thrust

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37
Q

the primary overspeed rpm-limiting device on the 731 series engine is the

A

mechanical governor in the FCU

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38
Q

the maximum HP rotor N2 overspeed is

A

102.5% for 10 seconds

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39
Q

the maximum oil pressure for power at or above idle rpm without a time limit is

A

80 psi

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40
Q

the maximum interburbine temperature for engine starting or relight is

A

994C

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41
Q

the maximum transient oil pressure permissible is

A

100psi

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42
Q

if the MWS reverser annunciator illuminates during the deploy cycle, it indicates

A

rudder bias not inhibited

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43
Q

to facilitate an accurate setting of climb power

A

CLIMB in green displayed on the MFD engine display

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44
Q

the APR system is available

A

to any engine with an operative computer

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45
Q

Engine fire extinguisher bottles are in the

A

rear equipment bay

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46
Q

the exterior preflight check of the fire extinguishers includes

A

checking the condition of two engine discharge indicators

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47
Q

the engine fire bell can be silenced

A

by pressing the BELL CANCEL switch

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48
Q

which statement is true regarding discharge of the fire bottles

A

when a visual fire warning appears, discharge SHOT 1 first then SHOT 2 if neccessary (Purdue recommends shot 2 before shot 1)

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49
Q

the following bus bars provide DC power for engine fire extinguisher operation

A

PE and PS2

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50
Q

a portable handheld fire extinguisher is stowed in the

A

cockpit and baggage compartment

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51
Q

for a fire in the apu

A

a switch on the apu control panel controls the firing of a separate fire extinguisher

52
Q

the apu fire extinguisher automatically discharges _____ seconds after detection of the apu fire alarm

A

5 seconds

53
Q

The HP bleed air supplements the LP bleed air at the mixing valve when both main air valve switches are selected to OPEN and

A

LP bleed-air pressure drops to 27 psi

54
Q

Prior to takeoff and landing, ensure that the flight deck valve and the main air valves are set to the ____ position

A

CLOSE

55
Q

this occurs when a main air valve switch is moved from the CLOSE position to the LP ON position

A

the main air valve opens, but HP air augmentation is not allowed

56
Q

the position of the MAIN AIR VLV 1 or 2 switch in which electrical power is applied to a pressure switch is

A

OPEN

57
Q

When placed in the “open” circuit, the No 1 MAV has a time delay of approximately _____ before it reaches the fully open position

A

20 seconds

58
Q

the following components are anti-iced by the use of hot bleed air

A

A engine inlet cowlings

59
Q

for takeoff or landing approach in icing conditions, the following switches must be turned on

A

ENG IGNITION
ENG ANTICE
WING/TAIL ANTICE

60
Q

the following switches provide DC power to rudder bias heater muffs

A

PITOT/VANE HEAT

61
Q

engine inlet cowling is heated by

A

hot bleed air

62
Q

the ICE PROT annunciator on the MWS panel does not illuminate when

A

PITOT/VANE HEAT is on and operating normally

63
Q

the following component may fail to operate satisfactorily when the left pitot heat is inoperative

A

ADC No1

64
Q

the ENG 1 or A/ICE annunciator indicates

A

That anti-icing air pressure is not available at sufficient pressure

65
Q

the PITOT AMPS ammeter checks amps of

A

the left or right pitot heating elements

66
Q

the forward static plates are heated

A

only when airborne

67
Q

when engine anti-icing is required, the ENG ANTICE switches should be turned on (when)

A

before takeoff power is set

68
Q

the TKS fluid supply lasts for approximately

A

108 minutes

69
Q

the airframe anti-icing system

A

should be primed before flight

70
Q

the following ICE PROTECTION switches shall always be switched on before takeoff and remain on throughout the light

A

PITOT/VANE HEAT and SCREEN HEAT

71
Q

Which component in the air conditioning system determines the temperature of the air after entering the water separator

A

low limit temperature control

72
Q

When the duct temperature limiter senses a duct temperature of 116

A

the limiter illuminates the DUCt OVHT annunciator and automatically gives reduction in duct temperature

73
Q

Cabin delivery air temperature is controlled by the operation of the

A

Cabin temp control valve

74
Q

a pressure switch downstream of the PRSOV protects the ACM from overspeed if pressure rises above

A

40 psi

75
Q

when too much air pressure is present the 40-psi pressure switch protects the ACM from overspeed by closing

A

the No 2 main air valve

76
Q

the switch that controls the auxiliary heating valve to provide additional heating to the cockpit is the

A

F/DK VLV switch

77
Q

The ____ bus powers the CABIN TEMP-MANUAL mode

A

PE

78
Q

pressurization system is capable of maintaining a cabin altitude of 7500 feet when the airplane altitude is

A

41,000 feet

79
Q

the pressurization system can maintain a maximum cabin differential pressure of

A

8.55 psi

80
Q

the maximum allowable negative cabin differential pressure is

A

.5

81
Q

the fan-operated Venturi provides suction to open

A

both outflow valves

82
Q

with the CABIN HIGH DATUM not selected, the CABIN ALTITUDE warning annunciator illuminates and the warning horn sounds at ____ feet

A

9,300 +/- 300

83
Q

Q
if one engine driven pump fails ( in relation to what the pressure indicator will show)

A

the hydraulic pressure indicator will display 3000psi and the applicable low pressure annunciator will illuminate

84
Q

if both engine driven hydraulic pumps fail

A

indicated pressure is 2300 and both low pressure annunciators are illuminated

85
Q

the main hydraulic reservoir is pressurized to prevent

A

loss of wheel brakes

86
Q

the first step in operating the auxiliary hydraulic system is to

A

pull the AUX HYD SYSTEM lever

87
Q

the purpose of the pressure-maintaining valve in the main hydraulic system is

A

to maintain 2300 psi in the main accumulator for normal brake operation

88
Q

if one hydraulic pump fails what systems fail

A

none - either pump can operate all systems

89
Q

Inadvertent landing gear retraction on the ground is prevented by

A

a solenoid-operated device engaging the selector lever

90
Q

when all landing gear are up and locked, the position indications are

A

no green or red annunciators are illuminated

91
Q

the main landing gear inboard doors are closed

A

when the gear is in either the extended or the retracted position

92
Q

the landing gear warning horn will sound when

A

gear is not locked down with flaps selected 25
the gear is not locked down with either power lever between 60% and 70% N1 and airspeed below 150kts
the gear is down and locked, the LANDING GEAR lever is not selected down, and start power is selected

93
Q

an indication of landing gear down and locked accompanied by 3 red annunciators indicates

A

the LANDING GEAR lever is not in the down position and the landing gear is down and locked

94
Q

if the nose gear does not lock down during extension, the indication is that

A

the red N GEAR annunciator on the panel is illuminated and the mechanical indicator on the pedestal is not extended

95
Q

nose wheel steering with the gear retracted is prevented by

A

A mechanically actuated hydraulic shutoff valve

96
Q

the EMRG BRK LO PRESS annunciator illuminates

A

when emergency brake accumulator pressure drops to 2250 psi and below

97
Q

in order to select emergency brakes, the WHEEL BRAKE lever must be positioned

A

to first aft notch marked in red

98
Q

Elevator trim tabs can be actuated

A

mechanically and electrically

99
Q

The purpose of the rudder bias system is

A

to automatically counteract asymmetrical thrust due to engine failure

100
Q

if takeoff is attempted with the aileron/elevator gust lock

A

only one throttle can be advanced to full power

101
Q

the guard is removed from a pitch trim switch

A

during testing, to ascertain that trimming cannot be accomplished with one element of the switch

102
Q

the flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are

A

flaps and airbrakes

103
Q

asymmetrical flap operation is prevented by

A

a synchronizing cable arrangement that isolates the hydraulic supply to the flap motor, stopping the flaps

104
Q

the purpose of lift dump is

A

to increase drag and decrease lift on the ground

105
Q

stall warning is provided by

A

the stick shaker

106
Q

stall identification is provided by

A

the stick pusher

107
Q

in the stall warning and identification system

A

flap position is integrated with angle-of-attack signals to determine critical angle of attack of the wing

108
Q

inadvertent stick pusher operation can be prevented by inhibiting

A

both channel 1 and channel 2 at the same time

109
Q

the rudder bias annunciator extinguishes when

A

Both RUDDER BIAS switches are on

110
Q

Engine indications are normally displayed on the

A

pilot MFD

111
Q

aircraft attitude and dynamic flight data are normally displayed on the

A

pilot PFD

112
Q

If one of the AFDs becomes unusable due to a failure, the same display can be moved to a different display unit by using the controls on the

A

reversionary control panel

113
Q

which of the following is not a lateral mode of the flight guidance system

A

flight level change

114
Q

RA MIN, BARO MIN, and V-speeds can be set manually in the _____ menu pages on the PFD

A

REFS

115
Q

The display control panels are located

A

above the PFDs

116
Q

if a PFD failure were to occur

A

power down the failed PFD by pushing the MFD REV switch. A composite PFD/MFD format will display on the MFD

117
Q

On the flight guidance system display on the PFD, active modes are displayed in ____ and armed modes are displayed just below in ____

A

green, white

118
Q

pressing the ____ confirms modifications and activates the modified flight plan

A

EXEC

119
Q

The FORMAT LSK allows different options for the lower portion of the PFD. Which is/are an option

A

arc format
map format
full compass rose format

120
Q

the fully serviced oxygen cylinder pressure at 70F is

A

1800psi

121
Q

the charging OXYGEN CONTENTS gauge reads

A

direct system high pressure

122
Q

to deploy the pax oxygen masks, the pilot should pull the

A

PAX SUPPLY EMERGENCY valve
(red control knob)

123
Q

the valve that controls the oxygen supply to all cockpit and cabin outlets/valves is the

A

master SUPPLY valve

124
Q

the pax constant-flow masks deliver oxygen

A

at all times when the system is activated and the mask lanyard is pulled

125
Q

the pax oxygen masks are automatically deployed and oxygen is available to the pax when

A

cabin alt reaches 14,000 +/- 500 feet, for Hi Datum and the master SUPPLY and pax supply ON-OFF valves are in the ON positions

126
Q

the portable oxygen smoke set supplies oxygen to the wearer for approximately

A

15 minutes

AT 354 (12 decks)

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