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revision > Halloween Mix > Flashcards

Halloween Mix Flashcards

1
Q

What are the side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Cough, HypERkalaemia

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2
Q

What are the side effects of Thiazides?

A

HyPOnatraemia, HyPOkalaemia, Impaired Glucose Tolerance, Gout

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3
Q

What are the side effects of Calcium Channel Blockers?

A

Headache, ankle oedema, flushing

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4
Q

What are the side effects of Beta Blockers?

A

Bronchospasm (esp in Asthmatics), Fatigue, Cold Peripheries

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5
Q

What are the three types of VW Disease?

A

1) (80% pts) partial reduction of VWF; autosomal dominant 2) abnormal form of VWF, 3) total lack of VWF (autosomal recessive)

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6
Q

What are the main signs of VWD?

A

prolonged bleeding time (epistaxis/menhorragia), decreased factor VIII levels, defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin

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7
Q

What is the commonest childhood cancer?

A

Acute Lymphoid Leukaemia

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8
Q

What are the cardinal signs of bone marrow failure?

A

Anaemia (may be later than other sx as RBCs have longer life than WBCs) ; Bleeding (due to thrombocytopaenia); Bacterial Infections (due to neutropaenia: often commensuals; may be no obvious focus of infection)

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9
Q

What is the microscopic marker for AML?

A

Auer Rods

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10
Q

With which type of Leukaemia is the Philadelphia Gene linked?

A

CML

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11
Q

What is the NICE definition of pre-eclampsia

A

New hypertension presenting after 20 weeks with significant proteinuria; where significant proteinuria is a urinary protein/creatinine ratio of >30mg/mmol or 24 collection of >300mg

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12
Q

What are the three main antibodies for SLE?

A

ANA (Antinuclear Antibody), Anti-dsDNA, Anti-sm

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13
Q

What condition is indicated by presence of the Ab Anti-centromere?

A

Localised Sclerodoma (CREST)

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14
Q

What condition is indicated by the presence of the Ab Anti-topoisomerase (Anti-SCL 70)?

A

Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis)

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15
Q

What Auto-Ab is present in Wegner’s Granulomatosis?

A

C-ANCA

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16
Q

For what condition is p-ANCA diagnsotic?

A

Microscopic Polyangitis and Churg-Strauss

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17
Q

To which organs does lung cancer usually spread?

A

Liver, lungs and bone

18
Q

Give four attributes to help differentiate Squamous Cell Carcinoma from other Bronchogenic Carcinomas

A
  • Keratin pearls
  • more common in men and associtaed with smoking
  • tumour is often central (as are SCC)
  • parathyroid like paraneoplastic syndrome
19
Q

Give four attributes to help differentiate Adenocarcinoma from other Bronchogenic Carcinomas

A
  • more common in women and in non-smokers
  • often located in the periphery
  • tend to be smaller than other bronchogenic carcinomas
  • mucin staining is found on histology
20
Q

Give four attributes to help differentiate Small Cell Carcinoma (Oat Cell) from other Bronchogenic Carcinomas

A
  • neoplasm contains small cells containing dark blue nuclei and sparse cytoplasm (Kulchitsky Cells)
  • ACTH and ADH are secreted ectopically (neuroendocrine tumour)
  • very aggressive - has often metastasized by the time it is diagnosed
  • linked to Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
21
Q

In addition to withdrawal of dopamimetics in Parkinson’s Disease, for which three drugs has Malignant Neuroleptic Syndrome been reported

A

Haloperidol, Chlorpromazine and Flupenthixol Decanoate

22
Q

What disease is associated with the genetic translocation t(15,17)

A

Acute promyelocitic leukaemia (M3)

23
Q

What genetic abnormality can be found in people with Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

t(8,14)

24
Q

What is the name of the Chromosome t(9,22) and with which disease is it associated?

A

Philadelphia Chromosome: CML

25
Q

What translocation occurs in Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

t(11,14)

26
Q

Define Stage 1, Stage 2 and Stage 3 Hypertension

A

Stage 1: clinic >140/90: A/HBPM >135/85
Stage 3: clinic>160/110: A/HBPM >150/95
Stage 3: Clinic sys >180 or dia >110

27
Q

What are the four types of Hypersensitivity

A

I - IgE and release of Mast Cells (anaphylaxis/atopy)
II- IgG/IgM (cell bound) - binds to antigen on cell surface (eg Goodpasture’s, pernicious anaemia)
III - Immune Complex (antigen/antibody combine) - SLE/post strep. glomerulonephritis
IV - delayed hypersensitivity. T-Cell mediated - TB, MS, GBS
V - Abds that recognise and bind to cell surface receptors - stimulate or block. eg Grave’s or Myasthenia gravis

28
Q

What is the definitive test for Addison’s Disease?

A

Short Synthacten Test

29
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities would you expect to see in in Addison’s Disease?

A

HyPERkalaemia, HyPOnatraemia, HyPOglycaemia, Metabolic Acidosis

30
Q

What are the side effects of L-DOPA

A

Nausea, hypotension, dyskinesias, visual hallucinations, orange pee

31
Q

What type of drug can lead to Impulse Control Disorders

A

Dopamine Agonists

32
Q

Bilateral Internuclear Opthalmoplegia is pathognomic of which disease?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (50% if unilateral)

33
Q

Which tract is affected in Internuclear Opthalmoplegia?

A

The Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus

34
Q

Give and outline of the findings with Internuclear Opthalmoplegia

A

Internuclear Opthalmoplegia is an impairment in the lateral conjugate gaze caused by a lesion in the Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus.
The ipsilateral eye is unable to adduct: nystagmus is seen in the contralateral eye. Convergence is usually intact as the fibres of the medial rectus subnucleus of CNIII are spared.

35
Q

Of psoriatic/reactive arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis, which is predominantly central and which is axial?

A

AS is predominantly axial: PA/Reactive A are predominantly peripheral

36
Q

Give four differences between Rheumatoid Arthritis and Inflammatory Back Pain

A

IBP is usually - asymmetrical, involves the spine and sacroiliac joint, large joints in the lower limbs, distal IPs, dactylitis and enthesitis.

37
Q

What are the classic descriptions of the end stage posture and spine in Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Question Mark Shaped Posture and Bamboo Spine

38
Q

What are the diagnostic features of Ankylosing Spondylitis

A
  • insidious onset before age of 40
  • morning stiffness which improves with exercise
  • pain at night - which improves during the day
  • diagnostically moves from sacroiliitis on MRI to radiographic sacroiliitis to syndesmophytes
39
Q

What us Arthritis Mutilans and of which disease is it indicative?

A
  • telescoping of fingers a.r.o bony destruction

- occurs in 5% people with psoriatic arthritis

40
Q

Which bacterial vectors most commonly lead to reactive arthritis?

A

Shigella, Salmonella, Chlamydia, Yersinia (not strep/viral)

41
Q

What are the clinical features of Reiter’s Syndrome?

A

Urethitis, Arthritis and Conjunctivitis
- and/or balanitis and Keratorderma Blennorhagica
“Can’t see, pee or climb a tree”

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