Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Haematology > Haemopoiesis > Flashcards

Haemopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

What is haemopoiesis?

A

The process of blood cell production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does haemopoiesis occur?

A

Red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main site of haemopoiesis in the foetus in the first two months of gestation?

A

Yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main site of haemopoiesis in the foetus in the first two to six months of gestation?

A

Liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The liver and spleen continue to produce blood cells until what point in an infant’s life?

A

2 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

From what point in gestation does bone marrow become the most important site of haemopoiesis?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In adult life haemopoiesis is confined to which bones?

A 
Vertebrae
Ribs
Sternum
Skill
Sacrum
Pelvis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the composition of bone marrow change from childhood to adulthood?

A

Red marrow is gradually replaced with yellow marrow (fat) in the long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which drug stimulates the movement of haemopoietic stem cells into the blood?

A

Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cells do myeloid stem cells give rise to?

A 
Eryhtrocyte
Platelets
Macrophages
Monocytes
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Mast cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What cells do lymphoid stem cells give rise to?

A

B cells
T cells
Plasma cells
NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the name of the RBC precursor?

A

Reticulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What cell type do. megakayocytes give rise to?

A

Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Haemopoietic stem cells make up the majority of cells present in the bone marrow. T/F?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Haemopoietic stem cells are usually in a state of quiescence. T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What term is used to describe the ability of haemopoietic stem cell to differentiate into many different types of cells?

A

Multipotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the potential fates of a haemopoietic stem cell.

A

Symmetrical division producing two differentiated cells and causing contraction of stem cell numbers
Asymmetrical division producing one stem cell and one differentiated cell to. maintenance stem cell numbers
Symmetrical division producing two new stem cells causing expansion of stem cell numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What cells make up the stromal cells in bone marrow?

A 
Macrophages
Fibroblasts
Endothelial cells
Fat cells
Reticulum cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give examples of extracellular molecules which are secreted by and act to support the stromal cells of the bone marrow

A 
Collagen
Fibronectin
Haemonectin
Laminin
Proteoglycans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give examples of hereditary conditions which can impair bone marrow function

A 
Thalassaemia
Sickle cell anaemia
Fanconi anamia
Dyskeratosis congenita
Scwachman-diamond syndrome
Diamond-blackfan syndrome
Thrombocytopenia with absent radii
Hereditary leukaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give examples of acquired conditions which can impair bone marrow function

A 
Aplastic anaemia
Leukaemia
Myelodysplasia
Meyloproliferative disorders
Lymphoproliferative disorders
Myelofibrosis
Metastatic malignancy
Infections
Drugs and toxins
Chemotherapy
Haematinic deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

Condition where fibrotic tissue replaces bone marrow and the main sites of haemopoiesis moves to the liver and spleen causing organomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some of the problems associated with stem cell transplant?

A

Limited donor availability with an upper age limit
Mortality is 10-50% depending on risk factors
Graft versus host disease
Immunosuppression
Infertility in both sexes
Risk of cataract formation
Hypothyroidism, dry eyes and mouth
Risk of second malignancy
Risk of osteoporosis and avascular necrosis
Risk of relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of inheritance is exhibited by fanconi’s. anaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What somatic abnormalities can eb present in fanconi’s anaemia?

A 
Microopthalmia
GU / GI malformation
Mental retardation
Hearing loss
CNS conditions e.g. hydrocephalus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Other than somatic abnormalities, what are the characteristics of Fanconi syndrome?

A

Bone marrow failure
Short telomeres
Malignancy
Chromosome instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bone marrow failure may present from birth to adulthood in fanconi’s anaemia. T/F?

A

True

28
Q

What is the gold standard therapy for fanconi’s anaemia?

A

Allogeneic stem cell transplants

29
Q

Other than stem cell transplants, how can fanconi’s anaemia be managed?

A

Supportive care
Corticosteroids
Androgens e.g. oxymethalone

30
Q

Fanconi’s anaemia requires lifetime surveillance for secondary tumours. T/F?

A

True

31
Q

If myelodysplasia is secondary to chemotherapy or radiotherapy, how long after treatment would myelodysplasia appear?

A

3-10 years

32
Q

Which acquired cytogenetic abnormalities is myelodysplasia commonly associated with?

A

Monosomy 5
Monosomy 7
Trisomy 8
p53 deletion

33
Q

Myelodysplasia can progress to acute myeloid leukaemia. T/F?

A

True

34
Q

Which age group is primarily affected by myelodysplasia?

A

The elderly

35
Q

Many cases of myelodysplasia are incidental findings on FBC. T/F?

A

True

36
Q

Which symptom is often the first presentation of myelodysplasia?

A

Fatigue due to anaemia

37
Q

How is myelodysplasia managed?

A

Supportive care - blood and platelet transfusion
Growth factors e.g. EPO, G-CSF
Immunosuppression
Low dose chemo - hydroxycarbamide, cytarabine
Demethylation agents
Intensive chemo or allogeneic stem cell transplantation in selective patients

38
Q

Give three examples. of myeloproliferative disorders?

A

Polycythaemia rubra vera
Essential thrombocytosis
Myelofibrosis

39
Q

Mastocytosis, clinical hypereosinophilic syndrome and chronic neutrophilic leukaemia are rare examples of what type fo disorder?

A

Myeloproliferative disorder

40
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders can progress to…?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

41
Q

What mutations are associated with myeloproliferative disorders?

A

JAK2V617F and calreticulin mutations

42
Q

What are the clinical features of essential thrombocytosis?

A 
Continuum with polycythaemia ruby vera
Thrombotic and haemorrhage complications
Splenomegaly
Transformation to polycythaemia rubra vera or myelofibrosis
Leukaemia transformation in 3% of cases
43
Q

How are low risk patients under 40. and with no high risk features with essential thrombocytosis treated?

A

Aspirin or another anti-platelet agent

44
Q

How are intermediate risk patients between 40-60 and with no high risk features with essential thrombocytosis treated?

A

Aspirin possibly alongside hydroxycarbamide

45
Q

How are high risk essential thrombocytosis patients over the over of 60 or with one or more high risk features treated (first line)?

A

Hydroxycaramide and aspirin

46
Q

What is hydroxycaramide?

A

Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor

47
Q

What are the high risk features of essential thrombocytosis?

A

Platelets >15000x10^9
Previous thrombosis
Thrombotic risk factors e.g. diabetes or hypertension

48
Q

What is the second line therapy for high risk patients with essential thrombocytosis?

A

Anagrelide with aspirin

49
Q

What drug is used to treat essential thrombocytosis in pregnancy?

A

INF alpha

50
Q

Give an example of a JAK2 inhibitor?

A

Ruxolitinib

51
Q

In what circumstances would an autologous haemopoietic stem cell transplant be used?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
Myeloma

52
Q

How are stem cells harvested for autografts?

A

Aphaeresis

53
Q

What drug can be used to mobilise stem cells in a patient which has failed to mobilise?

A

Mozobil

54
Q

What is a syngeneic transplant?

A

A transplant between identical twins

55
Q

What is a allogeneic transplant?

A

Transplant between HLA identical individuals

56
Q

What is a haplotype transplant?

A

Transplant between half matched family members - usually parent or sibling

57
Q

What is a VU transplant?

A

A transplant where the donor is an unknown volunteer

58
Q

In what circumstances would an allogeneic bone marrow transplant be used?

A

Chronic leukaemias
Relapsed lymphoma
Aplastic anaemia
Hereditary disorders

59
Q

If low dose chemotherapy and radiotherapy is used in an allogeneic transplant what additional treatment will the patient require in order to convert to the donor’s immune system?

A

Donor lymphocyte infusion

60
Q

What is the advantage of using an allograft as opposed to an autograft to treat malignant blood disease?

A

There is a graft versus leukaemia effect

61
Q

Why is it useful to use an umbilical blood transplant to treat leukaemia?

A

More rapidly available than volunteer unrelated donors

Less rigorous matching to the patient type as the immune system. is naive

62
Q

What are the disadvantages of using an umbilical cord blood transplant?

A

Slower engraftment
DLI cannot be used if there is a relapse
Requires several cord transplants
Expensive

63
Q

At what point is graft versus host disease considered chronic?

A

If it occurs 100 days or more after transplant

64
Q

How is graft versus host disease treated?

A

Immunosuppressive agents

65
Q

What is graft versus host disease?

A

The result of the new donor’s immune system recognising the. host’s body as ‘foreign’ and starting to attack it

66
Q

How does graft versus host disease manifest?

A

Skin rash
Jaundice
Diarrhoea

Haematology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions