Haematology & Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

In beta-thalassaemia major, iron chelation therapy (e.g. desferrioxamine) is important to prevent the complications of _____________ due to repeat transfusions

A

iron overload

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2
Q

Examples of iron chelation agents are:

A

Deferiprone
Deferoxamine
Deferasirox

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3
Q

_______ is used in Wilson’s disease as a copper chelator.

A

Trientine

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4
Q

Beta-thalassaemia minor and major result from mutations in the ___________ on chromosome ___ which lead to reduced (beta-thalassemia minor) or absent (beta-thalassemia major) production of beta-globulin chains.

A

HBB gene ; 11

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5
Q

classical findings in beta-thalassaemia major

A

frontal and parietal bossing, chipmunk face and hepatosplenomegaly.

[These signs are caused by compensatory extramedullary haematopoiesis.]

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6
Q

X ray finding associated with Beta Thalassemia

A

hair-on-end appearance on skull X-ray.

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7
Q

________________ is a key laboratory finding in Beta Thalassemia

A

Microcytic anaemia (low MCV)

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8
Q

The superior vena cava can become obstructed by external compression, most commonly from __________

A

bronchogenic carcinoma.

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9
Q

Features of SVC Obstruction

A

dyspnoea is the most common symptom
swelling of the face, neck and arms - conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
headache: often worse in the mornings
visual disturbance
pulseless jugular venous distension
[The development of chest wall collaterals (sometimes called ‘caput medusae’) is a classic sign as the body attempts to establish alternative venous drainage pathways]

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10
Q

Causes of SVC Obstruction

A

common malignancies: small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
aortic aneurysm
mediastinal fibrosis
goitre
SVC thrombosis

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11
Q

Methotrexate therapy may result in a ______________ secondary to folate deficiency

A

megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia

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12
Q

Megaloblastic causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

vitamin B12 deficiency
folate deficiency
e.g. secondary to methotrexate

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13
Q

Normoblastic causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

alcohol
liver disease
hypothyroidism
pregnancy
reticulocytosis
myelodysplasia
drugs: cytotoxics

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14
Q

Antithrombin III is a vitamin K-independent protease that inhibits ______, ____, ________

A

factor II, IX and X

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15
Q

Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are usually the result of RBC destruction by ___________

A

IgM-type antibodies

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16
Q

A low haemoglobin may be seen in CML as ________________________

A

there is an increased haemolysis of red blood cells.

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17
Q

Diagnostic Ix for CML

A

bone marrow biopsy is diagnostic and is likely to show the t(9;22) chromosomal translocation commonly seen in CML (the Philadelphia chromosome)

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18
Q

How does Imatinib treat CML

A

imatinib, an inhibitor of the BCR-ABL fusion protein created with the t(9;22) chromosomal translocation

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19
Q

Haemophilia is an_______________disorder of coagulation.

A

X-linked recessive

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20
Q

Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency of _______ whilst in haemophilia B (Christmas disease) there is a lack of _______

A

factor VIII ;factor IX

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21
Q

Features of haemophilia

A

haemoarthroses
haematomas
prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma

22
Q

blood tests for haemophilia show what?

A

prolonged APTT
bleeding time, thrombin time, prothrombin time normal

23
Q

Smudge/smear cells on blood film are a classical finding of ________

A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

24
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is common in children and is also associated with exposure to the _______________. Burkitt’s lymphoma also causes a _______________ appearance on blood film.

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) ; ‘starry sky’

25
Pathophysiologyy of Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand's factor cause platelets to clump within vessels
26
in TTP there is a deficiency of _________ (a metalloprotease enzyme) which breakdowns ('cleaves') large multimers of von Willebrand's factor
ADAMTS13
27
Features of TTP
rare, typically adult females fever fluctuating neuro signs (microemboli) microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia thrombocytopenia renal failure
28
Causes of TTP
post-infection e.g. urinary, gastrointestinal pregnancy drugs: ciclosporin, oral contraceptive pill, penicillin, clopidogrel, aciclovir tumours SLE HIV
29
The most common form of leukaemia in adults is _______
Chronic lymphocytic leukamaemia (CLL)
30
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common adult leukaemia, representing around ___% of cases
25
31
Chronic myeloid leukaemia represents around __% of adult leukaemias
15
32
_____________ is the most common childhood leukaemia.
Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL)
33
______ cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone
Prostate
34
The intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade is assessed by measurement of ____
aPTT
35
The extrinsic pathway is best assessed by measurement of the ___________
Prothrombin time (PT).
36
Which clotting factors will be most rapidly consumed in disseminated intravascular coagulation ?
Factor V and VIII {Factors V and VIII are both labile factors with relatively short half-lives (12-36 hours for Factor V and 8-12 hours for Factor VIII)}
37
Causes of DIC
sepsis trauma obstetric complications e.g. aminiotic fluid embolism or hemolysis, elevated liver function tests, and low platelets (HELLP syndrome) malignancy
38
DIC : A typical blood picture includes:
↓ platelets ↓ fibrinogen ↑ PT & APTT ↑ fibrinogen degradation products schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
39
What happens in sideroblastic anaemia?
It happens when red cells fail to completely form haem (a precursor to haemoglobin) and lead to iron deposits in the mitochondria that form a ring around the nucleus called a ring sideroblast.
40
the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies points to ________________
pernicious anaemia
41
________ increases the HbF levels and is used in the prophylactic management of sickle cell anemia to prevent painful episodes
Hydroxyurea
42
How does Tranexamic acid work?
Tranexamic acid is an anti-fibrinolytic drug, which works to prevent major haemorrhage by binding to plasminogen and prevents plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots
43
Burkitt's lymphoma
t(8:14) positive Epstein-Barr virus 'starry sky' appearance on microscopy ; lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumour cells. Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8:14).
44
The features of a peripheral blood film in iron deficiency anaemia are:
Microcytic cells Hypochromic cells Pencil cells Target cells
45
Schistocytes can be caused by ____________
mechanical heart valves
46
Rouleaux can be seen in ____________ + _______________
chronic liver disease ; malignant lymphoma.
47
Tear drop poikilocytes can be seen in __________
myelofibrosis
48
Acanthocytes can be seen in ______ and _______________
liver disease ; McLeod blood group phenotype.
49
True or False: Haemophilia does not affect bleeding time
True [Haemophilia is a disorder of secondary haemostasis and does not affect platelets. Therefore bleeding time, a measure of primary haemostasis, is usually normal in haemophilia.]
50
How does Dabigatran work?
Dabigatran is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that binds to thrombin, also known as clotting factor II. Thrombin normally acts on fibrinogen to produce the fibrin strands that compose a normal clot. By inhibit this process dabigatran impairs clot formation. Additionally in severe bleeding, dabigatran can be reversed with a medication called idarucizumab.