Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

METABOLIC > HAEMATOLOGY - BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS > Flashcards

HAEMATOLOGY - BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 blood transfusion services in the UK?

A

NHS blood and transplant for England

• The Scottish national blood transfusion service
• The welsh blood service
• The Northern Ireland blood transfusion service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are warm and cold antibodies?

A

Some antibodies react with red cells around normal body temperature (warm antibodies). Others are only active at lower temperatures (cold antibodies) and do not usually cause clinical problems although they may be picked up on laboratory testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What class of immunoglobulins are anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

A

Mainly IgM -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What class of immunoglobulins are Rh antigens?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a direct anti globulin test also known as?

A

Coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 different types of Coombs tests and what are the differences?

A

Direct Coombs test - detects antibodies or complement on the surface of RBCs
Indirect Coombs test - detects antibodies in the serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the uses for direct Coombs test?

A

Autoimmune haemolysis
Drug induce haemolysis
Alloimmune haemolysis (haemolytic disease of the newborn or alloimmune haemolytic transfusion reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the uses for indirect Coombs test?

A

Pre transfusion testing e.g. blood types and cross matching
Prenatal antibody screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Whats a positive Coombs test?

A

Visible agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Whats the rarest blood type?

A

AB-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Whats the most common blood type?

A

O+ (37% of population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Whats the difference between homologous and autologous transfusions?

A

Autologous blood transfusion is the collection and re-infusion of the patient’s own blood or blood components. Homologous, or more correctly allogenic, blood transfusions involves someone collecting and infusing the blood of a compatible donor into him/herself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Whats the universal donor blood type?

A

O negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Whats blood mixed with once collected to prevent it from coagulating?

A

Sodium citrate

Citrate reduces the ionized calcium levels in the blood, which prevents the blood from clotting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Whats the universal recipient?

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which blood can people with Rh+ blood have?

A

Rh+ or Rh- blood as they don’t have antibodies against the Rh glycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens if a Rh- person receives Rh+ blood?

A

They could develop a haemolytic transfusion reaction as they have anti-Rh antibodies so can only recieve Rh- blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is blood typing tested?

A

A blood sample is mixed with anti-A/antiB antibodies
If an agglutination reaction occurs when mixing with anti-A antibodies but not when mixing with anti-B antibodies then they have type A blood (as they have A antigens on RBC surface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is cross matching?

A

When the recipients serum gets mixed with the donors blood to check for agglutination
If it des then it means the recipients blood contains antibodies against donors RBCs so cannot recieve it - this is important in case there are additional glycoproteins causing a reaction not identified by blood typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Outline the epidemiology of rhesus positive and negative blood?

A

85% of the population have rhesus positive blood so can recieve any type of blood
15% are RhD negative so can only recieve RhD negative blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is ‘group and save’?

A

A quick check for blood group compatibility just looking at ABO - takes about 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Whats the minimum age and weight for donating blood?

A

17
50kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How often can you donate blood?

A

The normal interval between whole blood donations is 16 weeks but no more than 3 donations a year are collected from female donors because of a more precarious iron status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What infectious agents are screened for when donating blood?
hepatitis B hepatitis C hepatitis E HIV treponemal infections (like syphilis) Donations from new donors and those used for non-leucodepleted components are tested for human T cell lymphotropic virus (HTLV).
26
What volume is a whole blood donation?
470ml
27
Why are most WBC removed from blood donations?
To reduce the incidence of febrile transfusion reactions, alloimmunisation to white cells and to reduce the risk of vCJD
28
What is irradiated blood?
Cellular blood components which have been exposed to irradiation via x-ray or gamma rays to inactivate lymphocytes This prevents transfusion- Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease (TA-GvHD)
29
Who needs to recieve irradiated blood components?
Patients recieving transfusions from a first or second degree relative Patients receiving a granulocyte transfusion Recieving HLA selected components Recieving purine analogues All intrauterine transfusions Neonates Those with Hodgkin lymphoma Those recieving allogenic or autologous HSC grafts Those with aplastic anaemia recieving immunosuppressive therapy with anti-thymocyte globulin or alemtuzumab Those with T cell immunodeficiency
30
What is transfusion- Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease (TA-GvHD)?
a rare complication of blood transfusion, in which the immunologically competent donor T lymphocytes mount an immune response against the recipient's lymphoid tissue. In situations where the recipient is severely immunocompromised, or when the donor and recipient HLA type is similar (as can occur in directed donations from first-degree relatives), the recipient's immune system is not able to destroy the donor lymphocytes.
31
What are symptoms and signs of transfusion-associated-graft-versus-host disease?
2 days-6 weeks after transfusion fever erythematous maculopapular rash, which can progress to generalised erythroderma toxic epidermal necrolysis in extreme cases hepatomegaly diarrhea
32
How are red cells stored and used?
Shelf life 35 days Stored 4 degrees Transfusion should be completed within 4 hours of removal from storage
33
How are platelets stored and used?
Shelf life 5 days Stored at 20-24 degrees on agitation rack Must be used within 4 hours of collection from stoage
34
How are FFP and cryoprecipitate stored and used?
Shelf life 1 years Stored -30 degrees Thaw at 37 degrees and use within 4 hours
35
What should you do if you have unused red cells that have not been transfused within 4 hours of removal from storage?
They must be returned to the Hospital Transfusion laboratory with clear documentation confirming the length of time out of refrigeration
36
What is cryoprecipitate?
The precipitate of thawed FFP Has high levels of factor 8 and fibrinogen
37
What are the 3 steps to a safe transfusion?
Positive patient identification Good documentation Excellent communication
38
What is haemovigillance?
the systemic surveillance of adverse reactions and adverse events related to transfusion
39
What are acute transfusion reactions?
adverse signs or symptoms during or within 24 hours of a blood transfusion.
40
What are some different transfusion reactions?
Acute hemolytic Delayed hemolytic Febrile non-hemolytic Anaphylactic Simple allergic Septic Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO
41
Whats the difference between TACO and TRALI?
TACO is characterized by pulmonary hydrostatic (cardiogenic) edema, whereas TRALI presents as pulmonary permeability edema (noncardiogenic)
42
What is variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (cVJD)?
a fatal type of brain disease within the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy family; known as mad cow disease because it’s caused by eating beef from infected cows. Initial symptoms include psychiatric problems, behavioral changes, and painful sensations
43
What is SHOT?
the UK’s independent, professionally-led haemovigilance scheme. Since 1996 SHOT has been collecting and analysing anonymised information on adverse events and reactions in blood transfusion from all healthcare organisations that are involved in the transfusion of blood and blood components in the United Kingdom
44
What are the most common delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions?
Graft versus host disease Iron overload Post transfusion purpura
45
What is graft versus host disease?
when the donor’s T cells view the patient’s healthy cells as foreign, and attack and damage them. Graft-versus-host disease can be mild, moderate or severe. In some cases, it can be life-threatening. - alloimmunity
46
What are some alternative or adjuncts to blood transfusions?
Tranexamic acid EPO stimulating agents TPO mimetics Parenteral iron Haemodilution Cell salvage
47
Outline Jehova’s witnesses views on blood transfusions?
their refusal of transfusions of whole blood or its four primary components—red cells, white cells, platelets and plasma—is a non-negotiable religious stand and that those who respect life as a gift from God do not try to sustain life by taking in blood, even in an emergency. Witnesses are taught that the use of fractions such as albumin, tranexamic acid, EPO stimulants, immunoglobulins and hemophiliac preparations are not absolutely prohibited and are instead a matter of personal choice
48
What should you do where the parents or legal gausrdians of a child under 16 refuses blood transfusions that, in the opinion of the treating clinician, is life saving?
a Specific Issue Order (or national equivalent) can be rapidly obtained from a court. All hospitals should have policies that describe how to do this, without delay, 24 hours a day.
49
How should you treat a patient who needs a blood transfusion but you do not know their wishes e.g. unconscious?
clinicians must give life-saving treatment, including blood transfusion, unless there is clear evidence of prior refusal such as an Advance Decision Document. The patient record should document the indication for transfusion and the patient should be informed of the transfusion when mental capacity is regained (and their future wishes should be respected).
50
Who is anaphylaxis from blood transfusion most likely in?
IgA deficiency
51
What is the presentation of anaphylaxis?
Hypotension Dyspnoea Wheeze Angiooedema
52
How should you manage anaphylaxis secondary to blood transfusions?
Stop transfusion Adrenaline Antihistamine Corticosteroids A-E assessment
53
How does acute haemolytic blood transfusion reaction present?
Fever >40 Abdo pain Hypotension Shock Within hours of transfusion
54
What causes acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
It’s a never event - RBC destruction by IgM type antibiotics - incomparable ABO
55
How can you confirm a diagnosis of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
Direct Coombs test will be positive
56
How do you manage acute haemolytic transfusion reactions?
Stop transfusion Check identity Supportive treatment with fluids
57
How does febrile non-haemolytic transfusions reaction present?
Within 4 hours… Low grade fever
58
What causes a febrile non-haemolytic transfusions reaction ?
Antibodies reacting to WBC fragments and cytokines that leaked from blood cells during storage
59
How do you manage febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction?
Stop transfusion Paracetemol
60
What causes TRALI?
Caused by increased vascular permeability - host neutrophils activated by substances in donated blood causing non-cardio genie pulmonary oedema
61
How does TRALI present?
6-72 hours after transfusion Hypoxia, pulmonary infiltrates on X-ray, fever, HYPOTENSION
62
How do you manage TRALI?
Stop Give oxygen May need to escalate!
63
How does TACO present?
Within 6 hours - pulmonary oedema and HYPERtENSION
64
Who is TACO common in?
Elderly, pre-existing HF, excessive rate of transfusion
65
How do we manage TACO?
Slow/stop transfusion IV loop diuretics
66
What causes delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction?
Exaggerated response to a foreign antigen the pt has been exposed to before?
67
How does delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction present?
About 5 days after transfusion… anaemia, Jaundice and fever
68
What is a mild, moderate and severe transfusion reaction?
Mild - temp <39 and/or isolated rash Moderate - temp >40 and symptoms other than just ash Severe - haemodynamic compromise
69
What causes transfusion related sepsis?
Bacterial contamination of blood

METABOLIC (43 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions