Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

The most important cell in the initiation of normal haemostasis.

A. Erythrocyte
B. Fibrin
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Protein C
E. Endothelial cell
F. Thromboxane A2
G. a2 macroglobulin
H. Cycloxygenase
I. Platelet
J. Plasmin
K. Fibrinogen
L. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
M. Antithrombin III
A

E. Endothelial cell

Damage to the endothelial cells causes the release of substances that INITIATE the process of haemostasis, including platelet activation.

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2
Q

The main component involved in stabilising the primary haemostatic plug.

A. Erythrocyte
B. Fibrin
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Protein C
E. Endothelial cell
F. Thromboxane A2
G. a2 macroglobulin
H. Cycloxygenase
I. Platelet
J. Plasmin
K. Fibrinogen
L. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
M. Antithrombin III
A

B. Fibrin

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3
Q

A serine protease which assists in the break down of blood clots by binding to the clot and localising agents which break it down.

A. Erythrocyte
B. Fibrin
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Protein C
E. Endothelial cell
F. Thromboxane A2
G. a2 macroglobulin
H. Cycloxygenase
I. Platelet
J. Plasmin
K. Fibrinogen
L. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
M. Antithrombin III
A

L. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)

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4
Q

A single chain glycoprotein, synthesised by the liver and endothelium, which has strongly anticoagulant action and is important in the mode of action of heparin.

A. Erythrocyte
B. Fibrin
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Protein C
E. Endothelial cell
F. Thromboxane A2
G. a2 macroglobulin
H. Cycloxygenase
I. Platelet
J. Plasmin
K. Fibrinogen
L. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
M. Antithrombin III
A

M. Antithrombin III

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5
Q

A potent inhibitor of plasmin in the blood.

A. Erythrocyte
B. Fibrin
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Protein C
E. Endothelial cell
F. Thromboxane A2
G. a2 macroglobulin
H. Cycloxygenase
I. Platelet
J. Plasmin
K. Fibrinogen
L. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
M. Antithrombin III
A

G. a2 macroglobulin

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6
Q

This product of the cyclic endoperoxides induces platelet aggregation

A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Sensitised platelet
C. Christmas disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency
E. Thromboxane A2
F. Haemophilia
G. Megakaryocyte
H. von Willebrand deficiency
I. Factor VIII deficiency
J. Factor XII deficiency
K. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Marfan syndrome
A

E. Thromboxane A2

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7
Q

A 6 foot 7 inch rower presents to his GP complaining of easy skin bruising. On further examination he is found to have pectus excavatum, lax joints and a high-arched palate.

A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Sensitised platelet
C. Christmas disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency
E. Thromboxane A2
F. Haemophilia
G. Megakaryocyte
H. von Willebrand deficiency
I. Factor VIII deficiency
J. Factor XII deficiency
K. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Marfan syndrome
A

K. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

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8
Q

A 62 year old overweight woman presents to the Emergency Department following a Road Traffic Accident. A full set of investigations is carried out – which shows an increased Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) and Prothrombin Time (PT)

A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Sensitised platelet
C. Christmas disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency
E. Thromboxane A2
F. Haemophilia
G. Megakaryocyte
H. von Willebrand deficiency
I. Factor VIII deficiency
J. Factor XII deficiency
K. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Marfan syndrome
A

D. Vitamin K deficiency

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9
Q

A 25 year old man presents to the Emergency Department a day after attending his dentist for a routine check-up. After treatment at the dentists the previous day, his gums had not stopped bleeding. On investigation, his APTT and bleeding time are prolonged but a normal PT.

A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Sensitised platelet
C. Christmas disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency
E. Thromboxane A2
F. Haemophilia
G. Megakaryocyte
H. von Willebrand deficiency
I. Factor VIII deficiency
J. Factor XII deficiency
K. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Marfan syndrome
A

H. von Willebrand deficiency

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10
Q

A 16 year old girl presents to the Haematology Outpatients clinic describing a fluctuating history of easy bruising, epistaxis and menorrhagia. On investigation there is a thrombocytopaenia with increased megakaryocytes on BM examination.

A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Sensitised platelet
C. Christmas disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency
E. Thromboxane A2
F. Haemophilia
G. Megakaryocyte
H. von Willebrand deficiency
I. Factor VIII deficiency
J. Factor XII deficiency
K. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Marfan syndrome
A

A. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

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11
Q

Which protein, important in haemostasis, is vitamin K dependent but is not a serine protease?

A. Thrombin
B. Activated factor X
C. Vascular subendothelium
D. Protein C
E. Protein S
F. Cyclooxygenase
G. Factor VII
H. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
I. Arichidonic acid
J. Platelets
K. Vascular endothelium
L. Tissue factor
A

E. Protein S

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12
Q

Which option is required as a cofactor for protein C activity?

A. Thrombin
B. Activated factor X
C. Vascular subendothelium
D. Protein C
E. Protein S
F. Cyclooxygenase
G. Factor VII
H. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
I. Arichidonic acid
J. Platelets
K. Vascular endothelium
L. Tissue factor
A

E. Protein S

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13
Q

Which option synthesises tissue factor, vWF, prostacyclin, plasminogen activator, antithrombin III and thrombomodulin?

A. Thrombin
B. Activated factor X
C. Vascular subendothelium
D. Protein C
E. Protein S
F. Cyclooxygenase
G. Factor VII
H. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
I. Arichidonic acid
J. Platelets
K. Vascular endothelium
L. Tissue factor
A

K. Vascular endothelium

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14
Q

Which enzyme, important for platelet aggregation, is irreversibly inhibited by aspirin?

A. Thrombin
B. Activated factor X
C. Vascular subendothelium
D. Protein C
E. Protein S
F. Cyclooxygenase
G. Factor VII
H. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
I. Arichidonic acid
J. Platelets
K. Vascular endothelium
L. Tissue factor
A

F. Cyclooxygenase

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15
Q

Which key clotting factor activates both factors V and VIII, and also activates protein C?

A. Thrombin
B. Activated factor X
C. Vascular subendothelium
D. Protein C
E. Protein S
F. Cyclooxygenase
G. Factor VII
H. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
I. Arichidonic acid
J. Platelets
K. Vascular endothelium
L. Tissue factor
A

A. Thrombin

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16
Q

A 37 year old mother of 4 children, presents to her GP because of recurrent nose bleeds and feeling tired all the time and heavy periods.

A. Warfarin overdose
B. Christmas Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. B-Thalassaemia
E. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
F. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
G. Von Willebrand’s Disease
H. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
I. Factor V Leiden
J. Bile acid malabsorption
K. Haemophilia A
L. Malignancy
M. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
N. Sickle cell anaemia
A

H. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome

A rare autosomal dominant disorder. Alternative name = hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. There is a structural abnormality of the blood vessels, resulting in telangiectases, which are thin walled so are likely to bleed. This leads to haemorrhage and anaemia. It is more common in females, and may not present until later in life. Epistaxis is the commonest presenting symptom. This patient is feeling tired, not just because of her 4 children, but because she also has iron deficiency anaemia.

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17
Q

A 3 year old boy is brought to see his GP by his mother. A fortnight ago he had been brought along because of cold-like symptoms, unsurprising since it was the middle of winter and he attends nursery. He was therefore sent home with some Calpol, and as expected his symptoms soon resolved. However this morning his mother noticed a rash on his bottom, and he said his tummy ached.

A. Warfarin overdose
B. Christmas Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. B-Thalassaemia
E. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
F. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
G. Von Willebrand’s Disease
H. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
I. Factor V Leiden
J. Bile acid malabsorption
K. Haemophilia A
L. Malignancy
M. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
N. Sickle cell anaemia
A

M. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura

Affects children between 2-8yrs old. More common in winter. Usually presents following an upper respiratory tract infection. Rapid onset, with a palpable purpuric rash over the buttocks and legs, as well as symmetrical urticarial plaques, and haemorrhagic bullae. Arthritis of the knee and ankle. Abdominal pain – perhaps due to mesenteric vasculitis.

Can have renal involvement – with haematuria/proteinuria. (not idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura – because it’s not an option here

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18
Q

22 year old Saharawi refugee presents with anaemia, weight loss, loose stools and blood tests reveal an increased PT and slightly increased APTT, with normal thrombin time and platelet count.

A. Warfarin overdose
B. Christmas Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. B-Thalassaemia
E. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
F. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
G. Von Willebrand’s Disease
H. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
I. Factor V Leiden
J. Bile acid malabsorption
K. Haemophilia A
L. Malignancy
M. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
N. Sickle cell anaemia
A

C. Vitamin K Deficiency

Prevalence of coeliac disease is highest in Saharawi refugees. This patient has coeliac disease, and as a result of malabsorption is losing weight and has loose stools (steatorrhoea), and vitamin K deficiency. The blood results related to vitamin K deficiency.

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19
Q

A 5 year old boy has the following blood results: normal PT, increased APTT, normal platelet count, decreased VIII:C and decreased vWF.

A. Warfarin overdose
B. Christmas Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. B-Thalassaemia
E. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
F. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
G. Von Willebrand’s Disease
H. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
I. Factor V Leiden
J. Bile acid malabsorption
K. Haemophilia A
L. Malignancy
M. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
N. Sickle cell anaemia
A

G. Von Willebrand’s Disease

The most common hereditary bleeding disorder, affect 1% of the population. vWF is a carrier protein for factor VIII and stabilises it. Mutation is in chromosome 12.

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20
Q

A 32 week pregnant lady who has gestational diabetes and is epileptic has a caesarean section while on holiday in rural China. Her newborn baby is suffering from bleeding from the umbilical stump, as well as nose and gums. What is wrong with the baby?

A. Warfarin overdose
B. Christmas Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. B-Thalassaemia
E. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
F. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
G. Von Willebrand’s Disease
H. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
I. Factor V Leiden
J. Bile acid malabsorption
K. Haemophilia A
L. Malignancy
M. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
N. Sickle cell anaemia
A

C. Vitamin K Deficiency

Drugs, such as anticonvulsants, which the mother is likely to be taking as she suffers from epilepsy, as well as isoniazid, rifampicin and anticoagulants, are risk factors for haemorrhagic disease of the newborn – which is what this baby has. This is due to vitamin K deficiency – although rare now in the UK as prophylactic vitamin K is given to newborns.

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21
Q

A fit 48-year-old investment banker presents to A&E with a painful R arm that was present when he woke up that morning. He is otherwise well and there is no history of trauma or abnormalities of any system. On examination there is marked tenderness and mild erythema along the anterolateral aspect of the forearm and cubital fossa, with no abnormality of the upper arm or axilla.

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Superior vena caval obstruction
C. Postphlebitic syndrome
D. Thrombophlebitis
E. Inferior vena caval obstruction
F. Axillary vein thrombosis
G. Superficial venous thrombosis
H. Varicose veins
I. DIC
J. Pulmonary embolism
A

G. Superficial venous thrombosis

Superfical venous thrombosis is what it says on the tin - thrombosis of a superficial vein.

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22
Q

A 45-year-old lady, known heavy smoker with chronic respiratory problems, presents to her GP with increasing dyspnoea and swelling of her R arm and face. On examination of her chest there is no asymmetry or tracheal deviation, but there are added sounds over the R upper lobe and on bending forward her face becomes congested.

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Superior vena caval obstruction
C. Postphlebitic syndrome
D. Thrombophlebitis
E. Inferior vena caval obstruction
F. Axillary vein thrombosis
G. Superficial venous thrombosis
H. Varicose veins
I. DIC
J. Pulmonary embolism
A

B. Superior vena caval obstruction

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23
Q

A 56-year-old woman returns to the Vascular Clinic with recurrence of her L leg ulcer after the area has been knocked by a shopping trolley. On examination the ulcer is situated above the medial malleolus, its dimensions being 6cm x 5cm. The base is filled with yellowish slough and the surrounding area is erythematous, with prominent oedema.

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Superior vena caval obstruction
C. Postphlebitic syndrome
D. Thrombophlebitis
E. Inferior vena caval obstruction
F. Axillary vein thrombosis
G. Superficial venous thrombosis
H. Varicose veins
I. DIC
J. Pulmonary embolism
A

C. Postphlebitic syndrome

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24
Q

A 48-year-old man develops R-sided pleuritic chest pain and coughs up a trace of bloodstained sputum 8 days after a R hemicolectomy. He has mild dyspnoea but chest examination and chest radiography are normal.

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Superior vena caval obstruction
C. Postphlebitic syndrome
D. Thrombophlebitis
E. Inferior vena caval obstruction
F. Axillary vein thrombosis
G. Superficial venous thrombosis
H. Varicose veins
I. DIC
J. Pulmonary embolism
A

J. Pulmonary embolism

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25
Q

A 32-year-old lady develops acute swelling of her L leg 2 days post-partum. She had bilateral leg swelling during the pregnancy but the delivery was normal. On examination there is tense swelling of the leg and thigh and some deep tenderness over the calf and medial aspect of the thigh.

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Superior vena caval obstruction
C. Postphlebitic syndrome
D. Thrombophlebitis
E. Inferior vena caval obstruction
F. Axillary vein thrombosis
G. Superficial venous thrombosis
H. Varicose veins
I. DIC
J. Pulmonary embolism
A

A. Deep vein thrombosis

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26
Q

A drug that is administered intravenously and has a rapid effect by potentiating the action of antithrombin. Action can be reversed quickly which is of relevance in myocardial infarction patients who may require early invasive treatment (ie PTCA).

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

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27
Q

Potentiates antithrombin III. Usually given subcutaneously. Can cause osteoporosis and hyperkalaemia.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

N. Dalteparin (LMWH)

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28
Q

Used to monitor patients undergoing warfarin therapy.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

P. Prothrombin time (PT)

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29
Q

Used to monitor patients undergoing unfractionated heparin therapy.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

F. APTT

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30
Q

This anticoagulant drug is directly contraindicated in pregnancy, especially the first 16 and last 4 weeks of a 40 week gestation.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

A. Warfarin

31
Q

Reflects the amount and activity of fibrinogen.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

M. Thrombin time (TT)

32
Q

Antiplatelet action. Indicated for primary prophylaxis of stroke in a patient experiencing recurrent retinal TIAs (amaurosis fugax). Ineffective for DVT prophylaxis.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

I. Aspirin

33
Q

Antiplatelet action. Licensed for secondary prophylaxis of stroke. More effective than aspirin alone. Cheap.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin

34
Q

Antiplatelet action. Licensed for primary prevention of stroke in aspirin allergic patients, secondary prevention of stroke (but expensive) and in acute myocardial infarction in addition to aspirin.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

O. Clopidogrel

35
Q

Dangerous combination with no added efficacy and increased GI bleed.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

K. Clopidogrel and aspirin

36
Q

Old model of starting warfarin

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days

37
Q

New (recommended, Tait) model of starting warfarin

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days

38
Q

In patients with metallic heart valves, this drug is the most effective anticoagulant

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

A. Warfarin

39
Q

In patients with cancer and acute venous thromboembolism, the most effective drug at reducing the risk of recurrent VTE is __?

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

N. Dalteparin (LMWH)

40
Q

This drug when given alone initially increases the clotting risk

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

A. Warfarin

41
Q

Side effects include cutaneous necrosis

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

A. Warfarin

42
Q

The drug most likely to cause thrombocytopaenia with paradoxical thrombosis

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

43
Q

Indicated as thrombotic prophylaxis in DIC

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

N. Dalteparin (LMWH)

44
Q

Contra-indicated if recent sore throat, if ever used before, or in the presence of proliferative retinopathy.

A. Warfarin
B. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
C. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
D. LMWH and aspirin
E. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
F. APTT
G. Calciparone
H. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
I. Aspirin
J. Pentapolysaccharide
K. Clopidogrel and aspirin
L. Streptokinase
M. Thrombin time (TT)
N. Dalteparin (LMWH)
O. Clopidogrel
P. Prothrombin time (PT)
A

L. Streptokinase

45
Q

A 65 year old patient presents with hepatosplenomegaly. He is mildly anaemic and thrombocytompenic. A blood monocyte count of 1.2 x 109/l is observed. Bone marrow aspirate reveals ring sideroblasts at 15% of total blasts. Auer rods are observed.

A. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
B. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
D. Refractory anaemia
E. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
F. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
G. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
H. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia
I. Aplastic Anaemia
J. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
K. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

A

H. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia

a) <20% blasts on BM aspirate
AND
b) a peripheral monocyte count of >1/0 x 10^9/L

The diagnosis of AML requires >20% blasts, so clearly this patient doesn’t meet the criteria.

46
Q

An alcoholic presents to your clinic with anaemia. Sideroblasts are observed on morphological examination.

A. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
B. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
D. Refractory anaemia
E. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
F. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
G. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
H. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia
I. Aplastic Anaemia
J. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
K. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

A

J. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia

47
Q

A 58 year old lady complains of lethargy and “easy bruising”. She presents with purpura. Her FBC reveals Hb 10.5g/dl; WBCs 2.3x109/l and platelets 8x109/l. Blood film reveals <1% Blasts, and marrow aspirate shows 20% dysplasia in erythroid lineage, 60% dysplasia in platelet lineage, 5% dysplasia in granulocyte lineage, and less than 5% blasts.

A. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
B. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
D. Refractory anaemia
E. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
F. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
G. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
H. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia
I. Aplastic Anaemia
J. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
K. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

A

F. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia

To count as RCMD, at least 2 MYELOID lineages must be dysplastic, and there must be bi or pancytopenia in the peripheral blood

48
Q

A 78 year old male patient with recurring infections of the face and maxillary sinuses associated with neutropenia. His bloods are: Hb 9.8 g/dl; WBC 1.3x109/l; Neutrophils 0.3x109/l; platelets 38x109/l.The lab informs you that there are Blasts approximately compromise 17% of bone marrow aspirate.

A. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
B. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
D. Refractory anaemia
E. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
F. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
G. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
H. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia
I. Aplastic Anaemia
J. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
K. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

A

B. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II

49
Q

You are called to A&E to see a 65 year old man. He is complaining of fever, shortness of breath, and has lost 5Kg in the last few months. His notes say he was previously diagnosed with “Refractory Anaemia with excess Blasts in Transformation” (RAEB-t). His blast cell count is approximately 30% of all nucleated cells.

A. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
B. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
D. Refractory anaemia
E. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
F. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
G. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
H. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia
I. Aplastic Anaemia
J. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
K. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

A

K. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

50
Q

A 34 year old man with peripheral cytopenia suffers from bleeding gums. Peripheral blood shows 5% blast cells and bone marrow 42% blast cells.

A. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
B. Secondary aplastic anaemia
C. 5q syndrome
D. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
E. Inherited aplastic anaemia
F. Acute myeloid leukaemia
G. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
H. Myelofibrosis
I. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
J. Refractory anaemia
A

F. Acute myeloid leukaemia

51
Q

A 74 year old woman with high-normal platelet count. Bone marrow aspirate shows hyperplasia of hypolobulated micromegakaryocytes. Responds well to lenalidomide.

A. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
B. Secondary aplastic anaemia
C. 5q syndrome
D. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
E. Inherited aplastic anaemia
F. Acute myeloid leukaemia
G. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
H. Myelofibrosis
I. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
J. Refractory anaemia
A

C. 5q syndrome

52
Q

A 20 year old man with hepatitis C complains of fatigue and breathlessness and bruises very easily.

A. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
B. Secondary aplastic anaemia
C. 5q syndrome
D. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
E. Inherited aplastic anaemia
F. Acute myeloid leukaemia
G. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
H. Myelofibrosis
I. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
J. Refractory anaemia
A

B. Secondary aplastic anaemia

53
Q

This patients blood film shows classic Pelger-Huet neutrophils and bone marrow blasts make up 15% of cells.

A. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
B. Secondary aplastic anaemia
C. 5q syndrome
D. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
E. Inherited aplastic anaemia
F. Acute myeloid leukaemia
G. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
H. Myelofibrosis
I. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
J. Refractory anaemia
A

A. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts

  • characterized by 5-19% myeloblasts in the marrow
54
Q

In this case haemoglobin is normal but there is a reduction in platelets and neutrophils

A. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
B. Secondary aplastic anaemia
C. 5q syndrome
D. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
E. Inherited aplastic anaemia
F. Acute myeloid leukaemia
G. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
H. Myelofibrosis
I. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
J. Refractory anaemia
A

G. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia

55
Q

A 64 year old man complains of headaches, fatigue and itchy skin, particularly evident after a hot bath. He has a long-standing history of alcohol abuse and drug history reveals that he taking thiazide diuretics. On examination, you note that he is thin with sunken eyes.

A. Splenomegaly
B. Microcytosis
C. Imitanib
D. Essential thrombocythaemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
F. Haematocrit
G. Venesection
H. Acute myeloid leukaemia
I. Pseudopolycythaemia
J. Polycythaemia vera
K. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
L. Chlorambucil
M. Hydroxycarbamide
N. Erythropoeitin
O. Tear drop poikilocytes
P. Melphalan
A

I. Pseudopolycythaemia

You can get psudopolycythemia if you’re dehydrated as your haematocrit is artificially high. alcohol and thiazides was a clue

therefore, will get the same symptoms from reducing your blood volume and hence effectively increasing the red blood cells.

56
Q

A 55 year old female has a past medical history of deep vein thrombosis. She also complains of easy bruising. Her platelet count is 770 x109/L, CRP is 4mg/L. You prescribe aspirin.

A. Splenomegaly
B. Microcytosis
C. Imitanib
D. Essential thrombocythaemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
F. Haematocrit
G. Venesection
H. Acute myeloid leukaemia
I. Pseudopolycythaemia
J. Polycythaemia vera
K. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
L. Chlorambucil
M. Hydroxycarbamide
N. Erythropoeitin
O. Tear drop poikilocytes
P. Melphalan
A

D. Essential thrombocythaemia

When the platelet count is very high the platelets aggregate spontaneously and discharge their granule contents and become poorly functional, creating a risk of bleeding. As treatment lowers the count towards normal, aggregation is less likely and so platelet function
improves, even though the platelets are still derived from megakaryocytes of the neoplastic clone

57
Q

A 53 year old man goes to see his doctor about an embarrassing problem. It seems that his friends have nicknamed him ‘Rudolph’. You seem quite confused, but all becomes apparent when he points to his nose, which appears red. After further questioning, he describes a ‘burning’ sensation on his nose, hands and feet and visual disturbances. You send him for ‘blood tests’. What do you expect to be raised?

A. Splenomegaly
B. Microcytosis
C. Imitanib
D. Essential thrombocythaemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
F. Haematocrit
G. Venesection
H. Acute myeloid leukaemia
I. Pseudopolycythaemia
J. Polycythaemia vera
K. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
L. Chlorambucil
M. Hydroxycarbamide
N. Erythropoeitin
O. Tear drop poikilocytes
P. Melphalan
A

F. Haematocrit

58
Q

A consultant grills you on a ward round: there is a patient with a WBC of 140 x109/L, Hb 12 g/dL, Platelet count 320 x109/L. She complains of tiredness, night sweats, fever and abdominal pain. Her spleen is markedly enlarged. Blood film shows blasts, neutrophils, basophils. How would you treat her?

A. Splenomegaly
B. Microcytosis
C. Imitanib
D. Essential thrombocythaemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
F. Haematocrit
G. Venesection
H. Acute myeloid leukaemia
I. Pseudopolycythaemia
J. Polycythaemia vera
K. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
L. Chlorambucil
M. Hydroxycarbamide
N. Erythropoeitin
O. Tear drop poikilocytes
P. Melphalan
A

C. Imitanib

59
Q

You are asked to see a 76 year old man on the wards, who presented with fatigue, dyspnoea, bleeding gums and nightsweats. His abdomen is massively enlarged. You read his notes and find ‘bone marrow aspirate: ‘dry tap’. What would you expect to see on the blood film?

A. Splenomegaly
B. Microcytosis
C. Imitanib
D. Essential thrombocythaemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
F. Haematocrit
G. Venesection
H. Acute myeloid leukaemia
I. Pseudopolycythaemia
J. Polycythaemia vera
K. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
L. Chlorambucil
M. Hydroxycarbamide
N. Erythropoeitin
O. Tear drop poikilocytes
P. Melphalan
A

O. Tear drop poikilocytes

60
Q

A 64-year old woman receiving long-term chemotherapy for lymphoma presents with worsening bone pain, recurrent fever and night sweats. Blood film shows blast cells with Auer rods.

A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Tumour-lysis syndrome
D. Septicaemia
E. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
F. Lung fibrosis
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
J. Bronchial carcinoma
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
L. Hypothyroidism
M. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
N. Richter's syndrome
A

G. Acute myeloid leukaemia

Why AML and not APL?

APL (FAB M3) presents as a haematological emergency,
with bleeding +/- DIC and intracranial bleeds, so that would sway your decision towards AML in this patient who only has worsening B symptoms and bone pain.

61
Q

A 61-year-old man with CLL presents with recurrent pneumonia and haemoptysis. On fibreoptic bronchoscopy, the patient is found to have an endobronchial mass. The biopsy shows anaplastic, large cell lymphoma.

A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Tumour-lysis syndrome
D. Septicaemia
E. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
F. Lung fibrosis
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
J. Bronchial carcinoma
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
L. Hypothyroidism
M. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
N. Richter's syndrome
A

N. Richter’s syndrome

62
Q

A newly diagnosed ALL patient complains of tiredness, polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain and vomiting on receiving chemotherapy.

On examination, BP: 160/100mmHg, temp: 39ºC, and ECG shows tented T waves. Blood test shows serum K+: 6.9mmol/L and phosphate: 7.1 mmol/L. The patient later dies of cardiac arrest.

A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Tumour-lysis syndrome
D. Septicaemia
E. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
F. Lung fibrosis
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
J. Bronchial carcinoma
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
L. Hypothyroidism
M. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
N. Richter's syndrome
A

C. Tumour-lysis syndrome

63
Q

A routine medical of 33-year-old footballer reveals: Hb = 9.9g/dl and WCC = 130 x 109/L. His blood film shows whole spectrum of myeloid precursors, including a few blast cells. He admits to having frequent night sweats and blurred vision. There is a presence of Ph chromosome t(9;22) on cytogenetic analysis.

A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Tumour-lysis syndrome
D. Septicaemia
E. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
F. Lung fibrosis
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
J. Bronchial carcinoma
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
L. Hypothyroidism
M. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
N. Richter's syndrome
A

K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia

64
Q

A 5-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive, recurrent fever and bruising. Immunotyping reveals the presence of CD10.

A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Tumour-lysis syndrome
D. Septicaemia
E. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
F. Lung fibrosis
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
J. Bronchial carcinoma
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
L. Hypothyroidism
M. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
N. Richter's syndrome
A

E. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

65
Q

A 6-year-old boy presents with bone pain. On examination you notice he looks pale and has many bruises. What is his diagnosis?

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia
B. Magnesium exposure
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Thalassaemia
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Lymphocytes
J. Neutrophils
K. Marfan’s syndrome
L. Blast cells
M. Ionising radiation
A

H. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia

66
Q

A patient has acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. A bone marrow biopsy will show infiltration by which cells?

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia
B. Magnesium exposure
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Thalassaemia
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Lymphocytes
J. Neutrophils
K. Marfan’s syndrome
L. Blast cells
M. Ionising radiation
A

L. Blast cells

67
Q

Patients with this inherited disorder have an increased risk of developing acute leukaemia.

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia
B. Magnesium exposure
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Thalassaemia
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Lymphocytes
J. Neutrophils
K. Marfan’s syndrome
L. Blast cells
M. Ionising radiation
A

C. Down’s syndrome

Children with Down syndrome have an increased risk of leukemia with a ratio of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) typical for childhood acute leukemia…ie ALL more common. The exception is during
the first 3 years of life, when AML predominates and exhibits a distinctive biology.

In addition to increased risk for AML during the first 3 years of life, neonates with Down syndrome may also develop
a transient myeloproliferative disorder (TMD) (also termed transient leukemia and TAM - transient abnormal
myelopoeisis). Although TMD is usually a self-resolving condition, it may be sometimes associated with significant
morbidity and may be fatal in 10% to 20% of affected infants.

68
Q

An environmental factor associated with acute leukaemia.

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia
B. Magnesium exposure
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Thalassaemia
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Lymphocytes
J. Neutrophils
K. Marfan’s syndrome
L. Blast cells
M. Ionising radiation
A

M. Ionising radiation

69
Q

The commonest adult leukaemia.

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia
B. Magnesium exposure
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Thalassaemia
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Lymphocytes
J. Neutrophils
K. Marfan’s syndrome
L. Blast cells
M. Ionising radiation
A

G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

70
Q

A 50yr old man presents to his GP complaining of weight loss, tiredness, easy bruising and a painful big toe. On examination his spleen is massively enlarged. Investigation shows a raised serum urate. The peripheral blood film is abnormal, showing proliferation of which type of cell?

A. Clonal B lymphocytes
B. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
C. Spherocytes
D. Auer rods
E. Platelets
F. Neutrophils
G. Reticulocytes
H. Pelger-Huet cells
I. Blast cells
J. Eosinophils
K. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
A

F. Neutrophils

CML. Increased mass of turning-over cells generates urate.

71
Q

A 65yr old lady is seen in the haematology clinic where she has been treated for 7 years with Imantinib for chronic myeloid leukaemia. Having been previously well, she is now complaining of shortness of breath and general weakness. Examination reveals splenomegally. Her peripheral blood film has changed from previous appointments and reflects the progression of her disease. Which type of cell is now proliferating?

A. Clonal B lymphocytes
B. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
C. Spherocytes
D. Auer rods
E. Platelets
F. Neutrophils
G. Reticulocytes
H. Pelger-Huet cells
I. Blast cells
J. Eosinophils
K. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
A

I. Blast cells

CML, blast phase. Transformation tends to be into AML but in 20% is lymphoblastic (ALL).

72
Q

A 70yr old man complains of a year’s history of fatigue, weight loss and recurrent sinusitis. His white cell count is raised with a lymphocytosis of 283x109 /L. Blood film shows features of haemolysis and Coomb’s test is positive. Further investigation show the bone marrow, blood and lymph nodes are infiltrated with which cell population?

A. Clonal B lymphocytes
B. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
C. Spherocytes
D. Auer rods
E. Platelets
F. Neutrophils
G. Reticulocytes
H. Pelger-Huet cells
I. Blast cells
J. Eosinophils
K. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
A

A. Clonal B lymphocytes

CLL. Only two chronic B cell leukaemia/lymphomas are CD5+: CLL (CD5+ CD23+) and Mantle Cell Lymphoma (CD5+ CD23-). CLL may be assoc. with Coombs positive AIHA and ITP. The combination is called Evans syndrome.

73
Q

A routine full blood count on a 62yr old gardener reveals a high white cell count of 154x109 /L, and the differential shows this to be a neutrophilia. The haemoglobin and platelet count are normal. Biopsy shows a hypercellular “packed” bone marrow, and cells show the presence of which chromosomal abnormality?

A. Clonal B lymphocytes
B. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
C. Spherocytes
D. Auer rods
E. Platelets
F. Neutrophils
G. Reticulocytes
H. Pelger-Huet cells
I. Blast cells
J. Eosinophils
K. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
A

K. Chromosome 9;22 translocation

CML del(11q23): poor prognostic sign in CLL.