Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 MBChB > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is alpha thalassaemia trait?

A

1/2 genes missing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the management of spherocytosis?

A

Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What infection can be gained from RBC?

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

Bone marrow is replaced with fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are the beta genes?

A

Chromosome 11 - one on each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the INR target for recurrent DVT/PE?

A

3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the presentation of ALL?

A

Fatigue

bleeding

Bruising

Infections

Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is seen on the blood film in G6PD deficiency?

A

Heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which disease is the HFE gene a part of?

A

Haemachromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do schistocytes indicate?

A

Intravascular haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can autoimmune haemolytic anaemias be typified?

A

Warm and cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a sickle cell crisis?

A

Episodes of tissue infarction due to vascular occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is associated with warm AI haemolytic anaemia?

A

SLE Lymphoma Leukaemias Mefenamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is seen on blood film in CLL?

A

‘Smear cells’, lots of small mature lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which age group commonly gets CML?

A

40-60 year olds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is this cell?

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment of a painful sickle cell crisis?

A

Opiate analgesia Hydration Rest oxygen ?transfusion?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is this?

A

Howell-Jolly body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the INR target for AF?

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is priapism associated with?

A

Sickle cell anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Increase in RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What special type of cells are seen in Hodgkins lymphoma and what do they look like?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells ‘owl’s eye’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the management of essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Aspirin Hydroxycarbamide Interferon alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is seen on the blood film in myelofibrosis?

A

Tear drop RBC, leucoerythroblastic change - nucleated RB + myelocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What features are common to MPD?

A

Increased cell turnover - gout, fatigue, weight loss, sweats Splenomegaly - abdo pain, can’t eat as much Marrow failure Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the INR for a mechanical aortic valve?

A

2.5-3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens if HbS is exposed to hypoxia for a prolonged period?

A

It polymerises and sickles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you manage INR > 5 with minor bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin, start when INR <5 IV Vit K 1-3mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is hydrops fetalis?

A

No alphae genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you manage a high INR with major bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin IV vit K 5mg FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the features of cold AI haemolytic anaemia?

A

Symptoms worse in cold Raynaud’s Acrocyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the best type of Hodgkins?

A

Lymphocyte rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long is warfarin given in an unprovoked DVT/PE?

A

6m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is amyloidosis?

A

Extracellular deposition of an insoluble fibrillar protein: amyloid –> tissue/organ dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which patients does essential thrombocytopenia most commonly affect?

A

Those over 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Rapid temp rise, chills, rigors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common adult leukaemia?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does clopidogrel work?

A

Irreversibly blocks effects of ADP on platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the mode of action of heparin?

A

Inactivation of thrombin through potentiating antithrombin III, factor Xa is also inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does IgM paraprotein indicate?

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which disease are auer rods present in?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is this cell?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is rituximab?

A

Monoclonal antibody against CD20 +ve B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which people does hodgkins commonly affect?

A

Those in the 3rd and 4th decades of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune condition resulting in the destruction of gastric parietal cells leading to B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does a pepper pot skull indicate?

A

Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

Inhibits platelet TXA2 synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is HbH disease?

A

1 alpha gene left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is LMWH monitored?

A

Anti-Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the investigation findings in spherocytosis?

A

Spherocytes on blood film Increased osmotic fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How long is warfarin given in a provoked DVT/PE?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is HbA2 made up of?

A

2 alpha and 2 delta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant condition resulting in a problem with the RBC membrane leading to extravascular haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the mode of action of warfarin?

A

Effectively causes an inactive from of factors VII, IX, X and prothrombin to be made - unable to form catalytic complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is this cell?

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What positive effects does aspirin have on patients?

A

Decreases MI risk in patients with angina Decreases stroke risk in patients who’ve had a TIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How is G6PD transmitted?

A

X-linked disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the management of pernicious anaemia?

A

Lifelong B12 injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the anaemia in alpha thalassaemia trait?

A

Microcytic hypo chromic mild anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the INR target for DVT prophylaxis/treatment?

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the features of HbH?

A

Splenomegaly +/- jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is amyloidosis diagnosed?

A

Congo red staining: apple green birefringence SAP scan Biopsy of rectal tissue

64
Q

What is the management of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

ABCDE Stop transfusion Send everything back to lab

65
Q

How does dipyridamole work?

A

Decreases platelet aggregation by increasing cAMP levels

66
Q

How long does it take for warfarin to fully work?

A

4-5 days

67
Q

What does lecuoerythroblastic change indicate?

A

Sepsis

Haemorrhage

Myelofibrosis

68
Q

How is severe HbH managed?

A

Splenectomy +/- transfusions

69
Q

What is this cell?

A

Basophil

70
Q

What do nucleated red blood cells indicate?

A

Myeloma

Leukaemia

Lymphoma

71
Q

How long is warfarin given in AF?

A

Life-long

72
Q

What are the features of warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Anaemia Jaundice Splenomegaly

73
Q

What does Bence-jones protein indicate?

A

Myeloma

74
Q

How long is warfarin given in a calf DVT?

A

6 weeks

75
Q

What is the prognosis of hydrops fetalis?

A

Most die in utero

76
Q

What is the management of myelofibrosis?

A

Supportive: blood transfusions Allogeneic STC transplant JAK2 inhibitors Splenectomy

77
Q

What does rouleaux indicate?

A

Diabetes

Myeloma

CTDs

78
Q

What is the management of polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Venesection Hydroxycarbamide

79
Q

Where are the alpha genes?

A

Chromosome 16 - two on each

80
Q

What is pernicious anaemia associated with?

A

Atrophic gastritis + PMH of other AI disorders

81
Q

What is the presentation of AML?

A

Anaemia

Malaise

Infections

Bleeding

Skin Infiltration

Short history

Gum hypertrophy

82
Q

What are the features of Hodgkins?

A

Painless lymphadenopthy - alcohol induces pain

Resp symptoms

Pruritis

Splenomegaly

Swingin fever

83
Q

What are these?

A

Rouleaux

84
Q

When does a delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction occur?

A

5-10 days after transfusion

85
Q

What is the management of warm AI haemolytic anaemia?

A

Steroids Azathioprine Rituximab Splenectomy

86
Q

What is the older people leukaemia?

A

CLL

87
Q

What infection can be gained from platelets?

A

Staph, strep, salmonella

88
Q

How are alpha thalassaemias diagnosed?

A

HPLC/DNA testing

89
Q

What are the FBC changes in myelofibrosis?

A

Anaemia Leucocytosis Thrombocytosis

90
Q

What is associated with cold AI haemolytic anaemia?

A

Lymphoma Mycoplasma Leukaemia EBV

91
Q

What type of reaction is an urticarial transfusion reaction?

A

Mast cell IgE reaction

92
Q

How do you manage an INR > 8 with no bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin until INR <5 PO Vit K 1-3mg

93
Q

What investigations are done for polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Look for other causes JAK2 status

94
Q

What is the long term treatment of sickle cell anaemia?

A

Hyposplenism - prophylactic penicillin, vaccination Folic acid supplementation Hydroxycarbamide

95
Q

When is G6PD deficiency asymptomatic until?

A

Infection Acidosis Fava beans

96
Q

What is the test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemias?

A

Coombs test

97
Q

What are the symptoms in sickle cell anaemia?

A

Depend on site and severity Pain may be extremely severe Sites: digits, bone marrow, lung, spleen, and CNS

98
Q

What is this cell called?

A

target cell

99
Q

When should myeloproliferative disorders be considered?

A

Increased granulocytes Increased RBCs Increase platelets Eosinophilia Splenomegaly No reactive explanation

100
Q

What is AML associated with?

A

Radiation

Down’s

Benzene

CML

101
Q

How is warfarin monitored?

A

INR

102
Q

What cells are seen in ALL?

A

Blast cells of B cell origin

103
Q

How do you manage INR 5-8 with no bleeding?

A

Withhold 1-2 doses Decrease maintenance dose

104
Q

What is the most common cancer in children?

A

ALL

105
Q

What is Schilling’s test done for?

A

B12 deficiency

106
Q

What are the blood changes in CML?

A

High WCC

Increased basophils

107
Q

What does a positive Shumm’s test indicate?

A

Intravascular haemolytic anaemia

108
Q

Which leukaemia is more responsive to chemo?

A

ALL

109
Q

How does CLL present?

A

Lymphadenopathy

Anaemia

Chest infection

110
Q

When is LMWH monitored?

A

In renal failure and pregnancy

111
Q

What is the translocation in CML?

A

t(9;22) - Philadelphia chromosome

112
Q

What are the features of a delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Less acute than AHR Unexplained fall in Hb Jaundice Renal failure Increase in bilirubin and LDH

113
Q

What is the management of cold AI haemolytic anaemia?

A

Rituximab

114
Q

What are the features of essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Thrombosis Bleeding ( increasing levels of platelets causes and acquired von willebrand)

115
Q

How is warfarin reversed?

A

Vitamin K

116
Q

What is haemarthrosis a sign of?

A

Haemophilia - problem with secondary haemostasis

117
Q

What do platelets look like on a blood film?

A

Little purple specs

118
Q

Which antibodies is an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction associated with?

A

IgM

119
Q

What is Hodgkins disease associated with?

A

EBV

Immunosuppression

120
Q

What happens in myelofibrosis?

A

Massive splenomegaly –> left upper quadrant pain, portal hypertension, weight loss, night swears, fever

121
Q

Which is the worst type of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Lymphocyte depleted

122
Q

How is pernicious anaemia diagnosed?

A

Macrocytic anaemia –> hypersegmented neutrophils, macrovalocytes Auto-antibodies: Anti gpc, anti IF

123
Q

What does this blood film show?

A

Leucoerythroblastic change

124
Q

What do target cells indicate?

A

Sickle cell anaemia

Thalassaemias

125
Q

Roughly what % of myeloblasts are in AML?

A

30%

126
Q

What are precipitants of sickle crises?

A

Hypoxia Dehydration Infection Cold exposure Stress

127
Q

Top differential:

Young boy with reduced factor 8 and a raised aPTT

A

Haemophilia A

128
Q

What is HbF made up of?

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

129
Q

What are the features of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Pyrexia Dizziness Shock Pallor Feeling as though something is wrong Cyanosis

130
Q

What does a Howell-Jolly body indicate?

A

Spleen problems

131
Q

What are the three phases of CML?

A

Chronic

Accelerated

Blast crisis

132
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Headache Dizziness Stroke Plethora Itchy after hot shower Hepato and splenomegaly

133
Q

What mutation causes sickling disorders?

A

Point mutation in codon 6 of beta global gene

134
Q

What is the INR target for a mechanical mitral valve?

A

3-4

135
Q

Which factors does heparin affect?

A

prevents activation of 2, 9, 10, 11

136
Q

What factors does warfarin affect?

A

Synthesis of 2, 7, 9, 10

137
Q

What factors are affected in DIC?

A

1, 2, 5, 8, 11

138
Q

What are the clotting test results in haemophilia?

A

Increased APTT, normal PT, normal bleeding time

139
Q

What are the clotting test results in von willebrands?

A

Increased APTT, normal PT, increased bleeding time

140
Q

What are the clotting test results in vit K deficiency?

A

Increased APTT, Increased PT, normal bleeding time

141
Q

What is APS characterised by?

A

thromboses, recurrent foetal loss and thrombocytopenia

142
Q

How is APS managed in pregnancy?

A

Low dose aspirin, LMWH when fetal heart seen

143
Q

What are the features of aplastic anaemia?

A

normochromic, normocytic anaemia,

leukopenia (with lymphocytes relatively spared),

thrombocytopenia

144
Q

What is basophilic stoppling associated with?

A

Lead poisoning, thalaessemia, sideroblastic anaemia, myelodysplasia

145
Q

What are Burr cells associated with?

A

Uraemia, pyruvate kinase deficiency

146
Q

When does an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction occur?

A

Minutes after transfusion is started

147
Q

What is an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction due to?

A

ABO incompatability leading to massive intravascular haemolysis

148
Q

What are the features of an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Fever, abdo pain, chest pain, agitation, hypotension

149
Q

What is the management of an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Stop transfusion, generous fluid resus, inform the lab

150
Q

What is a non-haemolytic febrile reaction due to?

A

white blood cell HLA antibodies often as a result of previous sensitisation (pregnancies, transfusions)

151
Q

When does an anaphylactic transfusion reaction occur?

A

Within minutes of starting transfusion

152
Q

How should a simple urticarial rash be treated from transfusion reaction?

A

Stop transfusion, give antihistamine - transfusion may be continued when symptoms resolve

153
Q

How should a severe anaphylactic transfusion reaction be managed?

A

Stop transfusion, IM adrenaline, consider antihistamines, bronchodilators and steroids

154
Q

What is the mode of action of dabigatran?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

155
Q

What is the mode of action of apixaban and rivaroxaban?

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitor

156
Q

What is the mode of action of tranexamic acid?

A

reversibly binds to lysine receptor sites on plasminogen or plasmin

157
Q

What is the key features of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia?

A

monoclonal IgM paraproteinaemia

Year 3 MBChB (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions