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Clinical Pathology > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of tube is a red top and what is it used for?

A

Plain tube - clotted blood. General biochemistry, bile acids, serology, endocrinology.

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2
Q

What type of tube is a purple top and what is it used for?

A

EDTA tube - whole blood. Haematology.

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3
Q

What type of tube is a green top tube and what is it used for?

A

Heparin tube - plasma. Biochemistry (plasma), reptilian / avian haematology (whole blood).

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4
Q

What type of tube is a grey top and what is it used for?

A

Oxalate / fluoride tube - whole blood or plasma. Glucose.

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5
Q

What type of tube is a blue top and what is it used for?

A

Sodium citrate tube - whole blood or plasma. Clotting times, PT & APTT, VWB factor Ag.

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6
Q

List the erythrocyte maturation sequence in order:

A

Rubriblast > Prorubicyte > Rubricyte > Metarubricytes > Reticulocyte > Erythrocyte

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7
Q

At which stage does red blood cell division stop and what triggers it?

A

Red blood cell division stops at the rubricyte stage when critical haemoglobin concentration is reached.

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8
Q

What will an iron deficiency do to red blood cell division?

A

Rubricytes will not be able to reach the critical haemoglobin concentration and therefore will keep dividing and form microcytes.

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9
Q

In which species will you not find circulating reticulocytes in health?

A

Horse, cow, sheep and goat.

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10
Q

In which species are reticulocytes found in circulation in health?

A

Dog, cat and pig.

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11
Q

What substance is the most important stimulus for erythroid production and where does it originate?

A

Erythropoetin - originates in the kidneys.

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12
Q

What determines the release of erythropoetin?

A

Released in response to oxygen deficiency in the circulating blood.

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13
Q

List 3 essential nutrients for erythroid production:

A

Iron, Copper and Vitamin B6.

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14
Q

Which erythroid cells in peripheral blood indicate regeneration?

A

Reticulocytes

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15
Q

Where does reticulocyte maturation begin and where is it completed?

A

Maturation begins in the bone marrow. In the horse, cow, sheep and goat it is also completed in the bone marrow. In the dog, cat and pig it is completed in the peripheral blood and spleen.

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16
Q

What are the four important haematopoetic growth factors?

A

Erythropoetin, interleukin, thrombopoetin and colony stimulating factors.

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17
Q

List the granulocytic maturation sequence in order:

A

Myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > (band >segmented) neutrophil / eosinophil / basophil.

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18
Q

How long does it take the bone marrow to produce RBC’s after stimulation?

A

3-4 days - can’t tell if an anaemia is regenerative until this time has passed.

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19
Q

How long does it take the bone marrow to produce WBC’s after stimulation?

A

6-9 days for mature neutrophils - transit time is shortened with inflammation.

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20
Q

What is the key stimulator of thrombocyte / platelet maturation?

A

Thrombopoetin which is produced by the liver.

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21
Q

What are the two main categories of haematopoetic neoplasia?

A

Lymphoproliferative and myeloproliferative

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22
Q

Which cells may be involved with myeloproliferative disease?

A

Monocytes, myelocytes, erythrocytes and platelets.

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23
Q

Name 2 non-haematopoetic forms of neoplasia that may be identified in the bone marrow:

A

Metastatic carcinoma and sarcoma of bone

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24
Q

What collection tube is used to obtain serum?

A

Red - plain tube

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25
Q

What happens if you underfill an EDTA tube?

A

Shrinkage of RBC’s (EDTA is a salt) Artefactual decrease in PCV and MCV Mismatch of PCV and HCT

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26
Q

What happens if you overfill and EDTA tube?

A

The blood might clot

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27
Q

How should you transport blood tubes?

A

In an ice box / esky wrapped in tissue paper (must not be in direct contact with ice blocks)

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28
Q

How should you transport blood smears?

A

Must be kept dry (seperate to ice box) and away from formalin as this will distort the cells.

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29
Q

List the correct ‘order of draw’ when collecting blood and explain why this is important:

A

RED > BLUE > PURPLE > GREY Avoid possible test error by carry over of additives between tubes When using a vacutainer EDTA salts can get sucked back into the needle

30
Q

What is the difference between PCV and HCT?

A

PCV - given as a percentage of whole blood composed of RBCs HCT - L/L

31
Q

Approximately how much of the capillary microhaematocrit tube should be filled?

A

3/4

32
Q

Does the exact volume of the microhaematocrit tube matter?

A

No, tube readers have a linear scale to accomodate for variation in volume (calibration)

33
Q

There may be a slight difference between PCV and HCT. Which one can be lower and why?

A

HCT can be slightly lower than PCV due to there being no trapped plasma between the RBCs artefactually increasing the reading.

34
Q

Cab you tell if a patient has eaten a meal prior to blood sampling when evaluating the microhaematocrit tube?

A

Yes, the plasma will be white - lipaemia.

35
Q

What makes up the buffy coat?

A

WBC, platelets and mast cells. May see parasites.

36
Q

What may cause an increased reading of total plasma protein levels?

A

Lipaemia, urea, glucose and cholesterol.

37
Q

List 4 conditions or erythrocyte features that may produce an erroneous Hgb concentration when measured by an automated haematology analyser:

A

Hemolysis. Lipaemia. Heinz bodies. Spherocytosis.

38
Q

What is the most common cause of hypochromasia (low MCHC) and which other two laboratory changes would you expect to find with this condition?

A

Blood loss (haemorrhage) is the most common cause. You would also expect to see low PCV and TP with clear serum.

39
Q

Is hyperchromasia possible?

A

Not possible because they rubricyte stops dividing and matures when the critical haemglobin concentration is reached - therefore no more can be ‘packed’ into the cell and cause it to become hyperchromic.

40
Q

List 5 types of leukocytes:

A

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils.

41
Q

Which bovine disease is unusual with respect to its bone marrow response to inflammation?

A

Bovine ephemeral fever - high neutrophilia with a left shift. Usually lymphocytes predominate in the inflammatory response.

42
Q

Which species are notorious for incorrect platelet counts on an automated haematology analyser?

A

Cats because their platelets clump readily and the analyser counts the clump as 1.

43
Q

Which domestic species has the largest RBCs with greatest central pallor?

A

Canine

44
Q

Which domestic species demontrate rouleax in health?

A

Horses and cats

45
Q

Which domestic species demonstrate 1+ anisocytosis of their RBCs?

A

Cats and cattle

46
Q

How might you differentiate rouleax from agglutination?

A

Saline dispersion test - rouleax will disperse but agglutination will persist (Ab bridges)

47
Q

If PCV is not decreased, would a red colouration of plasma in a microcapillary tube more likely be caused by in-vitro technique / presence of lipaemia OR in-vivo haemolytic anaemia?

A

in-vitro technique / presence of lipaemia

48
Q

What will the PCV and plasma protein readings look like in a case of dehydration?

A

Both PCV and TPP will be increased

49
Q

What will PCV and plasma protein readings look like in a case of blood loss?

A

Decreased PCV and TPP

50
Q

List the type of haematology analyzers available for use in veterinary practice:

A

Quantitative Buffy Coat Systems Impedance Analysers Laser-based Flow Cytometers

51
Q

What is the general rule for HCT in relation to Hgb?

A

HCT should be roughly 3x the Hgb

52
Q

In which species are neutrophils the predominant WBC?

A

Dogs, Cats and Horses

53
Q

What is the predominant WBC type in cattle?

A

Lymphocytes

54
Q

What might you observe in the feathered edge of a blood smear?

A

Platelet clumps, parasites, large / neoplastic cells, WBC clumps

55
Q

Which species have anisocytosis of their erythrocytes in health?

A

Cats (mild) and Cattle

56
Q

What might extreme erythrocytosis lead to?

A

Sludging of blood - impaired blood flow and poor tissue oxygenation

57
Q

What defines a degenerative left shift and what does it tell you?

A

An increase in immature neutrophils while mature neutrophils are decreased to normal - this tells you that bone marrow isn’t coping.

58
Q

What type of leukogram is this and what causes it?

A

This is a physiological leukogram - caused by the release of catecholamines in response to fear, excitement or exercise. Increased blood flow causes a shift of cells from the marginal pool into the central pool.

59
Q

What type of leukogram is this?

A

This could either be a stress leukogram (if the changes were only mild) or an acute inflammation leukogram (if the changes were more severe). To differentiate you would also look for a left shift and toxic change as these occur in inflammation but not stress.

60
Q

What type of leukogram is this and what else might you look for in this case?

A

This leukogram demonstrates what would be found in a case of Addison’s (hypoadrenocorticism). You would also check for azotaemia.

61
Q

What type of leukogram is this?

A

Chronic inflammatory leukogram

62
Q

What type of leukogram is this?

A

This is an overwhelming inflammatory or endotoxic leukogram. Likely to also see a left shift.

63
Q

What type of WBC can be seen in this blood smear?

A

Neutrophils

64
Q

What is the arrow pointing to in this image?

A

A band neutrophil

65
Q

What type of WBC can be seen in this blood smear?

A

A lymphocyte

66
Q

What cells are pictures in this image?

A

Lymphocytes

67
Q

What is this cell and which species is it from?

A

Equine eosinophil

68
Q

What is this cell and which species is it from?

A

Feline eosinophil

69
Q

Describe the RBC arrangement in the left and right images:

A

Left = Rouleax

Right = Agglutination

70
Q

What is evident in the blood smear on the right when compared to the left?

A

Anaemia

71
Q

What is the arrow pointing to in this image?

A

A macrocyte

72
Q

What are the arrows pointing to in this blood smear?

A

Polychromatophils

Clinical Pathology (4 decks)

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