Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Low ferritin vs high ferritin

A

Low ferritin = iron deficiency anaemia

High ferritin = inflammatory marker

Normal ferritin can still have iron deficiency, especially in the context of inflammation e.g. infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

High TIBC (total iron binding capacity) =

A

iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Transferrin saturation =

A

Good indication of total iron in the body, normally around 30%.

decreased transferrin saturation = less iron

Goes up after meals so try to measure a fasting sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What pathology can increase all iron test values (apart from decreased TIBC) ?

A

Acute liver damage

  • lots of iron is stored in the liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Best iron supplements?

A

Ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate

  • slowly corrects the iron deficiency.
    (Oral iron causes constipation and black coloured stools. It is unsuitable where malabsorption is the cause of the anaemia).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2nd most common leukaemia in children ?

A

AML - acute myeloid leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do the commonest childhood leukaemias present ?

A

ALL 2-3 years
AML under 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The excessive production of a single type of blood cell causes …

A

Pancytopaenia:
Red blood cells (anaemia),
White blood cells (leukopenia)
Platelets (thrombocytopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Risk factors for leukaemia ?

A

Radiation exposure, e.g. abdominal x-ray during pregnancy, is the main environmental risk factor for leukaemia.

Conditions that predispose to a higher risk of developing leukaemia:
- Down’s syndrome
- Kleinfelter syndrome
- Noonan syndrome
- Fanconi’s anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Presentation of leukaemia =

A
  • Persistent fatigue
  • Unexplained fever
  • Failure to thrive
  • Weight loss
  • Night sweats
  • Pallor (anaemia)
  • Petechiae and abnormal bruising (thrombocytopenia)
  • Unexplained bleeding (thrombocytopenia)
  • Abdominal pain
  • Generalised lymphadenopathy
  • Unexplained or persistent bone or joint pain
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

any child with unexplained petechiae or hepatomegaly?

A

immediate specialist assessment

  • urgent FBC (pancytopenia + high number of the abnormal WBCs)
  • blood film shows blast cells
  • bone marrow biopsy
    -lymph node biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Further tests for staging of leukaemia

A
  • Chest x-ray
  • CT scan
  • Lumbar puncture
  • Genetic analysis and immunophenotyping of the abnormal cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Helminth infection (with roundworms, hookworms, or whipworms) - treatment?

A

Single dose of albendazole or mebendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Microcytic anaemia causes

A

TAILS

T – Thalassaemia
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
I – Iron deficiency anaemia
L – Lead poisoning
S – Sideroblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normocytic anaemia causes

A

3 As, 2 Hs

A – Acute blood loss
A – Anaemia of Chronic Disease
A – Aplastic Anaemia
H – Haemolytic Anaemia
H – Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 types of macrocytic anaemia

A

Megaloblastic (B12/folate deficiency)

Normoblastic (H-LARD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of normoblastic macrocytic anaemia ?

A

H-LARD

Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Alcohol
Reticulocytosis
Drugs such as azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptoms of anaemia + symptoms that are specific to iron deficiency anaemia ?

A

Tiredness
Shortness of breath
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions

Specific to iron deficiency anaemia:
Pica
Hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Generic signs of anaemia

A

Pale skin
Conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Raised respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Koilonychia (spoon nails)
Angular chelitis (cracked corners of mouth)
Atrophic glossitis (smooth tongue)
Brittle hair and nails

= what type of anaemia ?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bone deformities occur in what type of anaemia ?

A

Thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  • What are reticulocytes?
  • What do they indicate is happening?
  • What conditions might this be associated with?
A
  • Immature red blood cells
  • They indicate active production of red blood cells to replace lost cells
  • indicates anaemia due to blood loss / haemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Medications which reduce B12 absorption ?

A

PPIs, metformin, chloramphenicol, colchicine

24
Q
  • Which cells produce intrinsic factor and where?
  • What is the role of intrinsic factor?
A
  • Parietal cells in the stomach
  • Aids B12 absorption in the distal ileum
25
Explain what pernicious anaemia is.
- Autoantibodies attack parietal cells - Parietal cells can't produce intrinsic factor - Reduced B12 absorption in the distal ileum
26
Which autoantibodies are associated with pernicious anaemia?
- Intrinsic factor antibodies - Gastric parietal cell antibodies
27
Treatment for B12 deficiency:
Intramuscular hydroxocobalamin No neurological symptoms - 3 times weekly for 2 weeks Neurological symptoms - every other day until symptoms stop improving
28
B12 and folate deficiency - which to treat first and why?
Treat B12 first - giving patients folic acid when they have a B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the cord, with demyelination in the spinal cord and severe neurological problems.
29
Maintenance B12 replacement for pernicious anaemia =
2-3 monthly injections for life
30
Maintenance B12 replacement for dietary deficiency =
oral cyanocobalamin or twice-yearly injections
31
Multiple myeloma features
CRAB: - hyperCalcaemia - Renal failure - Anaemia (and thrombocytopenia) - Bone fractures/lytic lesions
32
For how long should anticoagulation therapy be continued?
Provoked = 3 months Unprovoked = 6 months
33
Differentiate between CML and CLL
cML - Massive splenomegaly cLL - Lymphadenopathy
34
Differentiate between acute and chronic leukaemia
If there are only blasts (babies) --> acute If they managed to develop and mature --> chronic
35
Which blood component is at highest risk of bacterial contamination?
Platelet concentrates (stored at ambient temperatures, which increases the risk of bacterial proliferation. Common contaminants include Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacillus cereus)
36
Imaging for staging of Hodgkin's lymphoma
PET/CT scan
37
Staging system for Hodgkin's lymphoma
Lugano classification (replacing Ann Arbor staging)
38
Headaches, dizziness, and pruritus, especially after bathing. Ruddy complexion and mild splenomegaly. Diagnosis?
Polycythaemia vera - leads to increased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets - prescribe aspirin to reduce risk of thrombotic events
39
Sickle cell disease - presents with dyspnoea, chest pain, cough, hypoxia and new pulmonary infiltrates seen on chest x-ray
Acute chest syndrome (complication of sickle cell)
40
Dabigatran reversal agent?
Idarucizumab (Dab gets the mab)
41
Recent chemo + fever Management?
Immediate IV antibiotics
42
Sites of absorption in the small intestine
Dude I Just Feel Ill Bro Duodenum (Iron) Jejunum (Folate) Ileum (B12)
43
Test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Positive direct antiglobulin test (Coombs' test)
44
Sore hip in sickle cell disease
Salmonella infection? "sickla cella salmonella" (vaso-occlusive crises normally affect the long bones)
45
Polycythaemia vera can lead to which two more serious conditions?
AML / myelofibrosis
46
Tumour lysis syndrome: 1. What is it? 2. Management?
1. Rapid lysis of tumour cells following chemotherapy (or rapid onset of haematological malignancy) - causes massive release of intracellular contents - this causes AKI and electrolyte disturbance. 2. Managed by correcting/managing electrolyte disturbances (e.g. calcium gluconate for hyperkalaemia) + IV fluids & Rasburicase - metabolises uric acid to allantoin
47
Patient on methotrexate contracts UTI - which antibiotic should be avoided and why?
Trimethoprim Both methotrexate and trimethoprim are folate antagonists therefore, they should not be prescribed together to mitigate the risk of BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION.
48
Sickle cell disease + acute RUQ pain
Acute cholecystitis due to sickling and sludging of red blood cells in the microvasculature of the gallbladder, leading to ischaemia and infarction of the gallbladder wall.
49
A hypocellular marrow with no abnormal cell population, fibrosis or other infiltrate = ?
Aplastic anaemia - bone marrow stops producing sufficient blood cells which can lead to pancytopenia - tends to affect children, young adults and the elderly
50
Metabolic vs respiratory alkalosis ABG results
Respiratory = low CO2, low HCO3 (due to blowing off CO2) Metabolic = opposite Raised CO2, raised HCO3
51
Why does hypocalcaemia?
Phosphate binds with calcium to form calcium phosphate. This deposits in the renal tubules, causing AKI.
52
Which marker to assess renal function in children post-transplantation?
Serum creatinine
53
Hyperkalaemia - which medication should be stopped?
Ramipril
54
Electrolyte abnormalities in refeeding syndrome?
Big Massive PP: low B1 (thiamine) low Magnesium low Potassium low Phosphate
55
Refeeding syndrome - hyper or hypoglycaemic? And why?
Hyperglycaemic because cells/tissues become insulin-resistant in starvation then, when feeding is reintroduced, insulin spikes.
56