Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

State first line antibiotic in neutropenic sepsis

A

Tazocin

(Meropenem if penicillin allergic)

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2
Q

State some fungal biomarkers which can be used to monitor for fungal infections in haematological malingancy

A

Aspects of fungal wall
- Beta D-Glucan
- Galactomannan
- Aspergillus PCR

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3
Q

State 2 additional antibiotics to consider if Tazocin isn’t working in suspected neutropenic sepsis and why they are given

A

Vancomycin - to cover gram positive bacteria
Gentamicin - if suspect overwhelming gram negative bacteria from urine/gut

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4
Q

State some prophylactic medications to consider in patients with neutropenia

A

Aciclovir - prevent varicella and herpes
Posaconazole / other antifungals - prevent fungal infection
Co-trimoxazole - prevent PCP pneumonia
G-CSF - can reduce severity and duration of neutropenia
- Consider antibacterials but risk of resistance

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5
Q

State some side effects of G-CSF

A
  • Bone pain
  • Headache
  • Fatigue
  • Nausea
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6
Q

State some types of IV access

A
  • Cannula
  • Tunnelled central line
  • PICC line (peripherally inserted central catheter)
  • Portacath
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7
Q

State some complications of IV lines

A
  • Infection!!
  • Thrombosis (fairly common)
  • Bleeding (especially if first put in)
  • Failure (block if blood clots, if not been flushed properly)

Always take cultures from line if the patient is septic

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8
Q

State the threshold for platelets:
- Normally
- If patient is septic
- If patient requires surgery

A

Normally = 10

If septic = 20
If needing surgery = 50

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9
Q

Outline how fertility can be managed for patients starting chemotherapy

A

Discussions regarding fertility is important
Need to tell patients that they need to be on contraception

Males - sperm banking
Females - if urgent chemo not much can do (if delayed, oocyte presevation or ovarian tissue preservation)

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10
Q

State the main 5 haematological malignancies

A
  • Leukaemia
  • Lymphoma
  • Myeloma
  • Myelodysplastic syndromes
  • Myeloproliferative neoplasms
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11
Q

State 3 findings of bone marrow failure on basic blood tests

A
  • Anaemia
  • Thrombocytopaenia
  • Neutropaenia

= pancytopenia

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12
Q

State some constitutional symptoms of cancer

A
  • Unintentional weight loss (quantify)
  • Drenching night sweats
  • Fevers
  • Pruritis
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13
Q

State some symptoms of hypercalcaemia

A
  • Fatigue
  • Abdo pain
  • N&V
  • Constipation
  • Confusion
  • Headaches
  • Polydipsia
  • Polyuria
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14
Q

State some symptoms of hyperviscocity

A
  • Headache
  • Somnolence
  • Visual disturbance
  • Ischaemic events
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15
Q

State some routine bloods to investigate haematological malignancies

A

FBC
U&E
LFT
CRP
Ca2+

Blood film
Reticulocyte count (reflects bone marrow functioning)
Haematinics

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16
Q

Suggest some blood tests to do to determine potential causes of an anaemia

A

Repeat FBC
U&Es
LFTs
Thyroid function

Iron studies
B12 and folate

Blood film
Reticulocytes + reticulocyte haemoglobin

Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Serum electrophoresis and serum free light chains

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17
Q

State some ‘special’ bloods to investigate haematological malignancies

A
  • LDH & urate (product of DNA when cells die - part of tumour lysis syndrome)
  • Myeloma screen (immunoglobulins +/- serum free light chains)
  • Beta 2 Microglobulin (B2M)
  • Immunophenotyping (flow cytometry)
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18
Q

State some imaging and more invasive tests to investigate haematological malignancies

A

Imaging:
- CT scan
- PET scan (lymphoma / myeloma)
- MRI spine / pelvis (myeloma)

Invasive tests:
- Tissue biopsy (morphology, flow cytometry, immunohistochemistry, cytogenetics, mutationals)
- Bone marrow aspirate and trephine

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19
Q

State some complications of essential thrombocythemia

A
  • Thrombosis (arterial/venous)
  • Haemorrhage – more common if plt count >1500
  • Splenomegaly
  • Transformation to myelofibrosis
  • Transformation to AML

Use cytoreduction in high risk patients (reduce platelet number)

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20
Q

State what cell line is affected in polycythaemia vera

A

Erythrocytes (RBCs)

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21
Q

State what cell line is affected in acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Myeloid stem cells

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22
Q

State what cell line is affected in acute lymphoid leukaemia

A

Lymphoid stem cells

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23
Q

State what cell line is affected in myeloma

A

Plasma cells (antibody-producing cells)

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24
Q

State what % of blast cells are required on a film to fulfil a diagnosis of ACUTE myeloid/lymphoid leukaemia, vs diagnosis of CHRONIC myeloid/lymphoid leukaemia

A

Acute leukaemia: >20% of blood film are blast cells

Chronic leukaemia: <20% of blood film are blast cells

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25
Q

State some presenting signs/symptoms of leukaemia

A

Bone marrow failure:
- Pale, tired (anaemia)
- Frequent bleeding / bruising (thrombocytopenia)
- Recurrent / severe infections (neutropenia)

Disease involvement:
- Lymphadenopathy
- Organomegaly

Constitutional symptoms:
- Night sweats
- Weight loss
- Fever / pruritis

Hpercalcaemia:
- Renal stones
- Bone pain
- Abdominal pain / constipation
- N&V
- Fatigue / depression

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26
Q

Outline some differences on a blood film between acute vs chronic leukaemia

A

Acute leukaemia:
- Many blast cells (>20%)
- Mostly 1 cell lineage

Chronic leukaemia:
- Few blast cells (<20%)
- Variety of cell lineages

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27
Q

State the general age ranges for developing acute myeloid leukaeamia

A

Occurs later in life
Mostly after age of 60

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28
Q

State the general age ranges for developing acute lymphoblastic leukaeamia

A

Commonly occurs early in life
Mostly under age of 4 (but slight peak after 80 years)

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29
Q

State how acute myeloid leukaeamia is generally treated

A

Multi-drug chemotherapy

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30
Q

State how acute lymphoblastic leukaeamia is generally treated

A

Intensive vs non-intensive management
Intensive: Undergo traditional chemotherapy, with an aim for remission
Non-intensive low-intensity therapy can be used if not suitable for above
Trial
Allogenic stem cell transplant (only helps if already in remission)

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31
Q

State what Auer rods are and in which disease they are found

A

Cells with abnormal granule development, leading to formation of rods within the cytoplasm

Commonly found in AML (acute myeloid leukaemia)

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32
Q

State the genetic translocation see in chronic myeloid leukaemia and how CML is managed, as well as general prognosis

A

AML caused by cytogenic translocation of 9:22 (Philadelphia) chromosome

Now considered potentially curable
- Use tyrosine kinase inhibitors e.g Imatinib

Prognosis:
- Long remission periods
- 95% go into cure/remission
- Normal life expectancy

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33
Q

State how chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is managed

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Targeted immune therapy e.g. Ibrutinib
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34
Q

State 4 main myeloproliferative disorders

A
  • Primary myelofibrosis
  • Essential thrombocythemia
  • Polycythaemia vera
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
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35
Q

State 3 haematological changes in a myeloproliferative neoplasm

A
  • Polycythaemia (increased RBC)
  • Leukaemia (increased WCC)
  • Thrombocythaemia (increased platelets)
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36
Q

Essential thrombocythemia - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Most common age
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Essential thrombocythaemia refers to a high platelet count that is not caused by another health condition
- Myeloproliferative neoplasm, resulting from uncontrolled proliferation of megakaryocytes
- Causes excessive platelet production
- Mutation due to presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation (up to 50%)

Most common age:
- 50-70 years old (affects women more)

Presentation:
Many patients are asymptomatic (up to 50%)
- Headache
- Thrombosis
- Bleeding (paradoxical)
- Dizziness / syncope / headache
- Erythromelalgia (red/blue discolouration of the extremities, often accompanied by a burning pain)
- Livedo reticularis (net like purple rash)
- Splenomegaly

Investigations:
- FBC (significantly high platelet count) & WCC may be raised
- Blood smear
- If no clear precipitant JAK2 mutation testing
- Trephine biopsy (hypercellular marrow and pathological megakaryocytic clumping)

Management:
Based on risk stratification
Low risk = Aspirin alone
Medium risk = Aspirin and Hydroxycarbamide (or aspirin alone)
High risk = Aspirin and Hydroxycarbamide

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37
Q

State the risk stratification categories for essential thrombocythemia and how it changes management

A

Management based on risk stratification

Low risk
Age <40 years AND:
Fairly low Platelet count <1500 × 109/l
No history of thrombosis or haemorrhage
No CVS risk factors (diabetes, hypertension, obesity and smoking)
= Aspirin alone

Medium risk
Has any of the above
= Hydroxycarbamide and Aspirin (or aspirin alone)

High risk
Age >60 years OR
Significantly high platelet count >1500 × 109/l
Previous history of thrombosis or haemorrhage
Diabetes or hypertension
= Hydroxycarbamide and Aspirin

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38
Q

State some potential complications of essential thrombocythemia (myeloproliferative disorder)

A
  • Thrombosis (clotting)
  • Paradoxical haemorrhage (esp. if platelet count >1500)
  • Splenomegaly
  • Can progress to myelofibrosis or AML
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39
Q

State the main differential to consider for essential thrombocythemia and some underlying causes for the differential

A

Secondary (reactive) thrombocytosis
- Infection
- Bleeding
- Chronic hypoxia
- Iron deficiency
- Splenectomy (loss of storage function)
- Thrombosis
- Trauma
- Recovery phase after bone marrow suppression e.g. after chemotherapy

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40
Q

Polycythaemia vera - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Blood results seen
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Myeloproliferative neoplasm which causes excessive RBC / erythrocyte production
- An absolute increase in red cell blood volume
- JAK2 mutation found in 95% of patients

Blood results seen:
- Raised RBC level (but also raised platelets and WCC usually)
- Low EPO

Presentation:
Can be asymptomatic
- Hyperviscosity symptoms e.g. headache / visual disturbance
- Hypertension
- Splenomegaly
- Fatigue
- Tinnitus
- Itching / paraesthesia
- Thrombotic symptoms e.g. neurological deficits, DVT

Investigations:
- FBC (raised haemoglobin +/- raised haematocrit)
- Check EPO levels (reduced in polycythemia vera)
- LFTs (should be normal - to rule out other causes)
- JAK2 genetic testing (negative result doesn’t rule out)
- Bone marrow biopsy (helps distinguish primary from secondary)
- Imaging e.g. USS (identify splenomegaly)

Management:
- Aspirin (reduce risk thrombotic events)
- Venesection (maintain Hb in normal range)
- Chemotherapy e.g. Hydroxycarbamide

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41
Q

Outline some tests to distinguish primary polycythemia (polycythemia vera) from secondary polycythemia

A

EPO levels:
Low = primary
High = secondary

JAK2 genetic testing:
Mutation = primary more likely
No mutation = secondary more likely

Bone marrow biopsy:
Changes (hypercellular marrow) = primary more likely
No changes = secondary more likely

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42
Q

Outline some tests to distinguish essential thrombocythemia from differential causes

A

JAK2 genetic testing:
Mutation = essential thrombocytopenia more likely
No mutation = other diagnoses more likely

Bone marrow biopsy:
Changes (hypercellular marrow and pathological megakaryocytic clumping) = essential thrombocytopenia more likely
No changes = other diagnoses more likely

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43
Q

List some potential complications of polycythaemia vera

A
  • Thrombosis (clotting)
  • Risk of progression to myelofibrosis or leukaemia (5-15% progress)
  • 20 year life expectancy after diagnosis
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44
Q

State some secondary causes of raised platelets (other than essential thrombocythemia)

A
  • Infection / inflammation
  • Post-surgery
  • Bleeding
  • Iron deficiency
  • Splenectomy
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45
Q

State some secondary causes of raised RBCs (other than polycythemia vera)

A

Chronic hypoxia:
- Smoking
- Obstructive sleep apnoea
- Congenital heart disease

Endocrine disorders:
- EPO secreting tumours e.g. renal / hepatic
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Adrenal tumours

Use of EPO stimulating agents e.g. athletes

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46
Q

Myelofibrosis - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Most common age
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Haematological malignancy that causes fibrosis of bone marrow and causes abnormal cell production
- Produce cytokines, leading to bone marrow fibrosis
- Can be primary, or occur secondary to polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia
- Often presents as pancytopenia, but can produce high numbers in some cell lines
- Results in bone marrow scarring, peripheral blood abnormalities, and enlarged spleen
- Associated with JAK2 mutation

Most common age:
- Typically affects older adults (>65 years)

Presentation:
- Bone pain
- Signs of bone marrow failure (anaemia, recurrent infection, and abnormal bleeding/bruising)
- Splenomegaly / hepatomegaly
- Constitutional symptoms – weight loss, fever, night sweats

Investigations:
- Bloods: urate and LDH (high)
- Blood film (tear drop-shaped RBCs) and a immature RBCs and WCCs
- Platelet count & WCC high initially, pancytopenia occurs later
- Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy = ‘dry tap’ bone marrow aspiration
- JAK-2 genetic testing

Management:
Generally incurable :(
- Stem cell transplant (if good candidate < 70)
- Chemotherapy (can help control but not curative)
- JAK2 inhibitors e.g. Ruxolitinib
- Supportive care e.g. blood transfusion for anaemia, splenectomy

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47
Q

State what would be seen on the following investigations for myelofibrosis
- Bloods
- Blood film
- Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy
- JAK-2 genetic testing

A

Bloods:
- Urate and LDH high
- Platelet count & WCC high initially, pancytopenia occurs later

Blood film:
- Tear drop-shaped RBCs
- Immature RBCs and WCCs

Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy:
- ‘Dry tap’ bone marrow aspiration

JAK-2 genetic testing:
- Mutation may be present

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48
Q

What is a paraproteinaemia

A

A group of disorders characterised by overproduction of monoclonal antibodies by plasma cells
- Monoclonal immunoglobulins are produced by a colonial population of mostly plasma cells
- Pre-malignant and malignant types

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49
Q

Explain the different range of paraproteinaemias (outline spectrum)

A

Range of pre-malignant and malignant paraproteinaemic conditions

All conditions associated with a rise in paraproteins

  1. MGUS (monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance)
    - ASYMPTOMATIC + raised paraproteins (no CRAB features - often found incidentally)
    - Non-cancerous
    - Fairly normal in the population, found in 3% of over 50’s
    - Only 1% will progress into cancer each year (higher risk of lymphoma and myeloma)
  2. Smouldering myeloma
    (asymptomatic but half way between MGUS and multiple myeloma)
  3. Multiple myeloma
    - Symptomatic (CRAB features)
    - Malignant condition
  4. Plasma cell myeloma
    (more aggressive type of multiple myeloma)
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50
Q

List some non-modifiable risk factors for developing myeloma

A
  • Family history
  • Older age
  • Male
  • Obesity
  • Black
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51
Q

Myeloma - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Most common age (and ethnicity)
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Myeloma is cancer of plasma cells where a mutation in plasma cells leads to large quantities of monoclonal immunoglobulin (antibody) production = monoclonal paraprotein
- In 50% cases, IgG is overproduced
- Multiple myeloma is where the myeloma affects multiple areas of the body

Most common age:
- Over 60 (most cases over 70)
- Twice as common in black populations

Presentation:
CRAB
- Calcium elevation (hypercalcaemia symptoms)
- Renal dysfunction
- Anaemia (pallor, fatigue etc.)
- Bone marrow infiltration / osteolytic lesions (bone pain)

Investigations:
- FBC (anaemia)
- U&Es (renal impairment / hypercalcaemia)
- Blood film
- Myeloma screen
1. Serum protein electrophoresis
2. Serum free light chain assay
- Bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy
- Whole body MRI (or CT or skeletal survey)

Management:
MDT approach
- Chemotherapy e.g. Cyclophosphamide, Doxirubicin
- Corticosteroids e.g. Dexamethasone
- Immunomodulatory drugs e.g. Thalidomide
- Bisphosphonates / radiotherapy (bone disease)
- Erythropoietin analogues (anaemia)
- VTE prophylaxis
- High dose drug therapy / stem-cell transplant

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52
Q

Outline the difference between benign polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia, MGUS and multiple myeloma

A

Benign polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
- Non-malignant condition of plasma cells with no malignant potential
- Polyclonal
- Asymptomatic
- Usually reactive to primary condition

MGUS
- Non-malignant condition of plasma cells with some malignant potential
- Monoclonal
- Asymptomatic

Multiple myeloma
- MALIGNANT condition of plasma cells
- Monoclonal
- Symptomatic = CRAB symptoms

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53
Q

State some clinical situations associated with benign polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

A

Autoimmune diseases
Liver disease
Acute / chronic inflammation
Infections

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54
Q

State some common places for myeloma bone disease to occur (destruction of bone secondary to cytokines released by cancerous plasma cells)

A

Osteolytic lesions:
- Spine
- Skull
- Ribs
- Long bones

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55
Q

List some complications of myeloma

A

Renal failure
Anaemia
Pain
Infection
Hyperviscosity
Peripheral neuropathy

Hypercalcaemia
Spinal cord compression

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56
Q

State some signs of myeloma that can be seen on x-ray

A
  • Lytic lesions
  • Punched out lesions
  • Pepper pot skull
57
Q

Outline why hyperviscosity occurs in paraproteinaemias, how it might present, what investigations to do and how it is managed

A

Oncological emergency - caused by aggregation of paraproteins within the blood, leading to increased viscosity

Presentation:
- Abnormal bleeding e.g. epistaxis
- Visual changes e.g. double/blurred vision
- Headaches, dizziness, seizures and other neurological symptoms
- Heart failure

Investigations:
- Bloods (FBC, U&Es, coagulation)
- Serum viscosity
- Fundoscopy

Management:
- IV fluids
- Chemotherapy to treat underlying cause
- In serious cases, consider plasmaphresesis

58
Q

Outline how spinal cord compression can occur in paraproteinaemias, how it might present, what investigations to do and how it is managed

A

Oncological emergency - increased activity of osteoclasts, causing osteolytic bone lesions which can cause vertebral fractures and spinal cord compression

Presentation:
- Back pain (most common and first)
- Focal neurological signs
- Signs of cauda equina syndrome

Investigations:
- Urgent MRI whole spine and pelvis

Management:
- Dexamethasone
- Radiotherapy
- Surgical decompression
+ bed rest and analgesia

59
Q

Outline how renal failure can occur in paraproteinaemias, how it might present, what investigations to do and how it is managed

A

Paraproteins are nephrotoxic and cause damage to: glomeruli, proximal and distal tubules
Damage can be exacerbated by dehydration, nephrotoxic drugs or hypercalcaemia

Presentation:
- Oligouria
- Loss of weight

Investigations:
- Serum creatinine
- 24 hr urinary creatinine and protein

Management:
- IV fluids if dehydration
- Dexamethasone and Bortezomib combination
- Stop any nephrotoxic drugs
May need to consider dialysis

60
Q

Primary amyloidosis - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Disease where light chains of immunoglobulins misfold
- Misfolded proteins cause amyloid plaques, which can be deposited around the body (then broken down very slowly by the body

Presentation:
- Dementia
- Organomegaly (spleen or liver)
- Macroglossia
- CHF or cardiomegaly
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Weight loss (from malabsorption)

Investigations:
- Biopsy and congo red staining of affected organ e.g. skin
- Can do bone marrow biopsy

Management:
- Symptomatic relief if HF e.g. pacemaker
- Chemotherapy / targeted therapy (target plasma cells)
- Bone marrow stem cell transplant

61
Q

State some risk factors for primary amyloidosis

A
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Lymphoma
  • Older age
  • Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
62
Q

Pancytopenia - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
Not a diagnosis in itself
Combination of three cellular abnormalities:
1. Anaemia (low haemoglobin)
2. Leukopenia (low white cells)
3. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

Presentation (relating to low cell lines):
Anaemia - breathlessness, pallor, tachycardia, tachypnoea, palpitations etc.
Leukopenia - recurrent infections, ulcers, oral candidiasis
Thrombocytopenia - easy bruising, epistaxis, gum bleeding, petechiae/purpura

Investigations:
Bloods
- FBC and reticulocyte count (identify poor production or increased destruction)
- Vitamin B12 / folate
- LFTs and lactate dehydrogenase
- Peripheral blood smear (blasts, leukocytes or immature cells)
If abnormal cells on blood smear
- Bone marrow aspirate + biopsy
- If inconclusive, cytogenetic testing, flow cytometry of bone marrow / blood or molecular studies
- Check for infection e.g. HIV
- Serum calcium, PTH and TFTs

Management:
Based on underlying cause
Can do supportive measures e.g. blood transfusion / platelet transfusion
- Correct any nutritional deficiencies
- Treat any underlying infections e.g. HIV
- If malignancy / autoimmune, manage with chemotherapy / immunosuppression
Supportive measures if reversible underlying cause found

63
Q

State some causes of pancytopenia
- Decreased production (central)
- Decreased production (bone)
- Increased destruction

A

Decreased production (central):
- Aplastic Anaemia
- Nutritional Deficiencies
- Infection/Sepsis
- Chemotherapy / radiotherapy
- Methotrexate

Decreased production (bone):
- Lymphoma
- Acute myeloid leukaemia
- Acute lymphoid leukaemia
- Multiple Myeloma
- Granulomatous disorders
- Metastatic tumours

Increased destruction:
- Autoimmune destruction
- Splenic sequestration
- Liver failures
- Drug-induced e.g. Rifampicin

64
Q

State some causes of neutrophilia

A
  • Bacterial infection
  • Corticosteroid use
  • Myeloproliferative disorders
  • Physiological stress e.g. trauma
  • Active inflammation
65
Q

State some causes of neutropenia

A
  • Sepsis
  • Viral infection
  • Drugs e.g. chemotherapy
  • Bone marrow failure
  • Hypersplenism
66
Q

State some causes of lymphocytosis

A
  • Acute viral infection (EBV / CMV especially)
  • Chronic atypical infection (TB. toxoplasmosis)
  • Lymphoproliferative disorders e.g. lymphoma, CLL
  • Hyposplenism
  • Physiological stress e.g. trauma
67
Q

State some causes of eosinophilia

A
  • Parasite infection
  • Allergy e.g. to drug
  • Inflammatory diseases
  • Skin disorders e.g. eczema, psoriasis
68
Q

State some causes of thrombocytopenia

A

Decreased production
- Bone marrow failure
- Myelosuppressive drugs

Increased destruction
- ITP
- Hypersplenism
- Consumption e.g. DIC

69
Q

State some causes of thrombocytosis

A

Primary:
- Essential thrombocytosis

Secondary (precipitant):
- Bleeding
- Infection
- Iron deficiency
- Hyposplenism
- Trauma / surgery

70
Q

State some cancer-specific risk factors for VTE events

A

Medication
- Chemotherapy
- Tamoxifen and other hormonal therapies
- Thalidomide and lenalidomide- used in multiple myeloma

Patient Factors:
- Immobility
- Requiring hospitalization
- Infection risk
- Likely having procedures such as PICC line insertion

Site:
- VTE is a common risk factor of solid organ cancers
- Multiple myeloma due to hyperviscosity and high burden of disease
- Metastasis

71
Q

State some primary cancer sites that have higher incidence of VTEs

A
  • Pancreatic
  • Gastric
  • Glioblastomas
    .
  • Renal
  • Ovarian
  • Lung
  • Oesophageal
72
Q

Outline some symptoms of intra-abdominal clots

A

Severe abdominal pain
N&V
Diarrhoea
Bloating

+/- signs of peritonitis

73
Q

Outline some symptoms of cerebral clots

A

(Stroke symptoms)
Headache
Visual disturbance
N&V
Neuromuscular issues
Speech difficult
Hearing loss
LOC

74
Q

Outline the steps for suspected DVT

A

Calculate Wells score:
Wells > 2 = DVT likely -> ultrasound scan
Wells < 2 = DVT unlikely -> D-dimer test

If d-dimer negative -> consider low risk
If d-dimer positive -> ultrasound scan

75
Q

Outline the steps for suspected PE

A

Calculate Wells score:
Wells > 4 = PE likely -> CTPA
Wells < 4 = PE unlikely -> D-dimer test

If d-dimer negative -> consider low risk
If d-dimer positive -> CTPA

76
Q

Outline how VTEs are managed once identified on imaging

A

1st line: DOAC e.g. Edoxaban, Rivaroxaban, Apixaban

2nd line: LMWH

77
Q

State which cancer patients receive VTE prophylaxis

A
  • Myeloma patients receiving certain chemotherapy agents e.g. Thalidomide
  • Pancreatic cancer receiving chemotherapy (given LMWH)
  • Other risk factors for VTE (ignoring the cancer)
78
Q

State the difference between an autologous and allogenic stem cell transplant

A

Autologous stem cell transplant
- involves mobilising and collecting a patient’s stem cells, providing chemotherapy to deplete the bone marrow, and then retransfusing their stem cells
- less complex
- less potential side effects than an allogeneic stem cell transplant

Allogeneic stem cell transplant
- involves depleting a patient’s bone marrow using chemotherapy, and then transfusing another (matched) patient’s stem cells
- both replacing their haematopoietic cells with normal cells
- provides some degree of graft-vs-disease effect

79
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Autoimmune condition, caused by antibody production against platelets
- Leads to thrombocytopenia
- Generally a diagnosis of exclusion, once other causes are ruled out

Presentation:
- Bleeding e.g. epistaxis, gum bleeding, poor to slow bleeding
- Absence of concerning systemic features e.g. weight loss, fevers
- Absence of other concerning features e.g. lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly or hepatomegaly

Investigations - bloods:
- FBC
- Peripheral smear (no evidence of abnormal cells or myelodysplasia)
- HIV, hepatitis B and C
- H pylori test
- TFT

Management - depends on platelet count:
- Asymptomatic adults with platelets >30 + no additional risk factors = observation and monitoring
- If platelets < 30 = Corticosteroids +/- IV immunoglobulins (IVIG)

80
Q

For the following blood film findings, briefly explain what they are and when they are seen
- Anisocytosis
- Reticulocytes
- Target cells
- Sideroblasts
- Schistocytes
- Spherocytes

A

Anisocytosis = variation in sizes of RBCs
- Myelodysplastic syndrome
- Some forms of anaemia

Reticulocytes = immature RBCs, appear larger than mature RBCs and RNA within them, shows bone marrow is very active
- Haemolytic conditions e.g. haemolytic anaemia
- Acute bleeding

Target cells = central pigmented area
- Iron deficiency anaemia (in small numbers)
- Haemaglobinaemias
- Post-splenectomy

Sideroblasts = immature RBCs with iron deposits, bone marrow unable to incorporate iron into Hb
- Myelodysplastic syndrome
- Alcoholism

Schistocytes = fragments of RBCs, indicates damage during transport
- Haemolytic anaemia
- Metallic heart valves
- DIC
- Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
- ITP / TTP

Spherocytes = spherical RBCs, without dip in middle
- Hereditary spherocytosis
- Haemolytic anaemia

81
Q

For the following blood film findings, briefly explain what they are and when they are seen
- Heinz bodies
- Howell-Jolly bodies

A

Heinz bodies = blobs within RBCs caused by denatured globin
- G6PD deficiency
- alpha-thalassaemia

Howell-Jolly bodies = blobs of DNA material within RBCs, normally removed by spleen
- Post-splenectomy
- Hyposplenism

82
Q

What is basophilic stippling and when is it seen?

A

Blue staining of ribosomes within the cytoplasm

Seen in:
- Thalassaemia
- Megaloblastic anaemia
- Sideoblastic anaemia
- Alcohol abuse

83
Q

List causes of normocytic anaemia

A

AAA, HH

Acute blood loss
Anaemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anaemia

Haemolytic anaemias e.g. sickle cell, sideroblastic anaemia
Hypothyroidism

84
Q

List causes of microcytic anaemia

A

TAILS

Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency anaemia
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia

85
Q

List causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

FAT RBC

Foetus (pregnancy)
Alcohol
Thyroid (hypothyroidism)

Reticulocytes
B12 and folate deficiency
Cirrhosis / chronic liver disease

All normoblastic macrocytic anaemia, except B12 and folate deficiency = megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia (from impaired DNA synthesis)

86
Q

List some clinical findings specific to iron-deficiency anaemia (vs other causes of anaemia)

A
  • Hair loss / brittle hair
  • Brittle nails
  • Koilonychia
  • Angular cheilitis
  • Atrophic glossitis
    + pica
87
Q

List some initial investigations for a patient presenting with anaemia (low Hb), and extra tests to consider if the patient is > 40

A
  • Hb check
  • MCV (microcytic, normocytic or macrocytic)
  • B12 and folate
  • Ferritin
  • Peripheral blood film

May consider further tests if > 40:
- OGD
- Colonoscopy
- Bone marrow biopsy if cause is unclear

88
Q

List some questions to consider asking in a patient with suspected anaemia (low HB)

A
  • Dietary history / vegetarian / vegan
  • Sources of potential blood loss e.g. menorrhagia or malaena
  • Any absorption issues e.g. gastrectomy, coeliac disease
  • Any family history of haematological disorders
  • Check for diagnosis of any chronic diseases e.g. cardiac, renal, hepatic
89
Q

Outline common causes of iron-deficiency anaemia

A
  • Chronic blood loss (menorrhagia, chronic bleeds e.g. malaena)
  • Dietary deficiency
  • Malabsorption
  • Increased requirements during childhood or pregnancy
90
Q

State the findings for iron-deficiency anaemia
MCV
Serum iron
Transferrin saturation
Ferritin
Total iron-binding capacity

A

Low MCV = <80
Serum iron = low
Transferrin saturation = low
Ferritin = low
Total iron-binding capacity = high (inverse relationship between ferritin and TIBC)

91
Q

Explain what the following parameters indicate in terms of anaemia
- Serum iron
- Ferritin
- Total iron binding capacity
- Transferrin saturation

A

Serum iron = amount of iron in the blood during that time
- Varies throughout the day, not a good measure alone

Ferritin = form of iron when deposited in tissue and cells
- If low, highly suggestive of iron deficiency anaemia

Total iron binding capacity = indicates the amount of space available on the iron carrier protein, transferrin
- Actually increases in iron deficiency

Transferrin saturation = indication of total iron in the body
- Fasting sample is needed, as it will go up after eating

92
Q

State some symptoms of B12 deficiency anaemia

A

Neurological symptoms:
- Paraesthesia
- Loss of vibration or proprioception
- Visual changes
- Mood or cognition changes

93
Q

If a patient has folate deficiency and B12 deficiency, state which one you should correct first and why

A

Should correct B12 deficiency first

Treating folate deficiency when a patient still has B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

94
Q

List some causes of haemolytic anaemia (inherited and acquired)

A

Inherited:
- Sickle cell
- Thalassaemia
- Hereditary spherocytosis
- Hereditary elliptocytosis
- G6PD deficiency

Acquired:
- Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
- Alloimmune haemolytic anaemia (transfusion reaction, haemolytic disease newborn)
- Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia / prosthetic valve
- Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

95
Q

For the following tests, state what you would see with a patient with haemolytic anaemia
- FBC
- Blood film
- Direct coombs test
- Reticulocyte count

A

FBC = normocytic anaemia
Blood film = schistocytes
Direct coombs test = positive if autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Reticulocyte count = raised (rapid turnover of cells)

96
Q

Thalassaemia - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Haemoglobinopathy where there is a defect in haemoglobin protein chains
- Autosomal recessive
- Mutation in either alpha or beta chains (2 of each in a normal hb molecule)
- These abnormal cells are more fragile and haemolyse more easily, leading to increased removal and sequestration by the spleen

Presentation
- Generic anaemia symptom e.g. pallor, fatigue
- Splenomegaly
- Jaundice
- Gallstones
- In children, failure to thrive, pronounced forehead and malar eminences
- Microcytic anaemia

Investigations:
- FBC (microcytic anaemia)
- Haemoglobin electrophoreses
- DNA testing
(screened for during pregnancy)

Management:
Alpha thalassaemia
- Monitoring for complications
- Blood transfusions
- May do splenectomy
- Bone marrow transplant can be curative
Beta thalassaemia
Minor = monitor
Intermedia = monitoring and occasional blood transfusions
Major = regular blood transfusions and splenectomy +/- bone marrow transfusion

97
Q

Sickle cell anaemia - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- General management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Haemoglobinopathy where there is a defect in Haemoglobin S
- Autosomal recessive (if carrier, sickle cell trait)
- Repeated polymerisation under low O2 conditions causes sickling of RBCs, making them more fragile

Presentation:
- Generic anaemia symptom e.g. pallor, fatigue
- Splenomegaly
- Jaundice
- Gallstones
- In children, failure to thrive, pronounced forehead and malar eminences
- Microcytic anaemia

Investigations:
- Tested for on newborn heel prick test

General management:
- Avoid triggers e.g. cold, dehydration
- Up to date vaccinations
- Penicillin V (antibiotic prophylaxis)
- Folic acid
- Hydroxycarbamide (encourage HbF production)
- Blood transfusion if severe anaemia
- Bone marrow transplant can be curative
- Pain relief if needed

98
Q

Outline how to manage a sickle cell crisis

A

No specific treatment - supportive care

  • Analgesia (check for pain care plan)
  • Treat / remove underlying triggers e.g. infection and keep warm
  • Ensure hydrated (consider) IV fluids
    = low threshold for admission to hospital
99
Q

List some complications of sickle cell disease

A
  • Sickle cell crises
  • Anaemia
  • Stroke
  • Priapism
  • Acute chest syndrome
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Increased risk of infection
  • Avascular necrosis
  • Pulmonary hypertension
100
Q

Outline acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease, symptoms, how it is diagnosed and how it is managed

A

Severe lung-related complication of sickle cell disease
Potential causes:
- Infection
- Infarction (due to fat emboli from bone infarcts)
Can be a combination of both

Symptoms:
- Chest or back pain
- SOB
- Wheezing
- Tachypnea
- Cough, which may contain blood
- Fever
- Vaso-occlusive pain

Diagnosis:
- Fever or respiratory symptoms with new infiltrates on chest x-ray

Management:
- Analgesia
- Consider IV fluids if dehydrated
- Antibiotics / antivirals for infection
- Blood transfusion
- Incentive spirometry
- May require artificial ventilation

101
Q

Leukaemia - state the following:
- 4 main types of leukaemia
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Diagnosis
- Management

A

4 main types:
- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
- Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
- Chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia (CLL)
- Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

Pathophysiology:
- Cancer of the stem progenitor cells within the bone marrow
- Genetic mutation in either lymphoid or myeloid progenitor cells
- Leading to unregulated production of single type of white blood cell, which then suppresses other types (pancytopenia)
- Either acute or chronic (lymphoid or myeloid)

Presentation:
- Unexplained fever
- Night sweats
- Weight loss
- Persistent fatigue
- Petechiae / unexplained bruising e.g. frequent nose bleeds
- Bone or joint pain
- Hepatosplenomegaly
- Lymphadenopathy
- Pallor
- Pancytopenia (anaemia / thrombocytopenia / leukopenia)

Diagnosis:
- Very urgent FBC
- Peripheral blood smear
- Bone marrow biopsy (aspiration and trephine)
- Lymph node biopsy
- Further staging scans e.g. chest x-ray, CT scan, lumbar puncture, genetic analysis immunophenotyping of abnormal cells

Management:
- Chemotherapy predominantly
- Radiotherapy / bone marrow transplant / surgery

102
Q

State the blood findings for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL):
- FBC (haemoglobin, WCC, platelets and reticulocytes)
- Peripheral blood smear
- Bone marrow aspiration

A

FBC:
- Normochromic normocytic anaemia
- High WCC (in 50%)
- Thrombocytopenia
- Low reticulocyte count

Peripheral blood smear:
- Leukaemic lymphoblasts

Bone marrow aspiration:
>20% of blood film are lymphoblast cells

103
Q

State the blood findings for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML):
- FBC (haemoglobin, WCC, platelets and reticulocytes)
- Peripheral blood smear
- Bone marrow aspiration

A

FBC:
- Anaemia
- High WCC but neutropenia
- Thrombocytopenia
- Low reticulocyte count

Peripheral blood smear:
- Auer rods
- Myeloid blast cells

Bone marrow aspiration:
>20% of blood film are myeloid blast cells

104
Q

State the blood findings for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL):
- FBC (WCC, haemaglobin)
- Peripheral blood smear
- Bone marrow aspiration

A

FBC:
- High WCC persisting for > 3 months
May show anaemia

Peripheral blood smear:
- Smudge cells (cytoskeletal defects in lymphocytes)

Bone marrow aspiration:
< 20% of blood film are lymphoblast cells

105
Q

State the blood findings for chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML):
- FBC (haemoglobin, WCC, platelets and reticulocytes)
- Bone marrow aspiration

A

FBC:
- High WCC persisting for > 3 months
May show anaemia or thrombocytopenia

Bone marrow aspiration:
< 20% of blood film are myeloid blast cells

106
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Indolent haematological cancer, with profileration of B lymphocytes
- Occurs with increasing age

Presentation:
Usually incidental finding on FBC = lymphocytosis or as symptomatic lymphadenopathy
- Splenomegaly
- Lymphadenopathy
- Fatigue
- SOB
- May have B symptoms

Investigations:
- FBC
- Flow cytometry
- Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy showing smudge cells

Management:
If low-medium risk = active surveillance every 3 months (FBC, flow cytometry, physical examination)
If symptomatic or advanced-stage CLL = chemoimmunotherapy / targeted therapies
(Stem cell transplant for relapsed disease)

107
Q

Chronic myeloid leukaemia - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Malignant clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells
- Presence of Philadelphia chromosome
- ‘Chronic’ phase of the disease may transform to an ‘accelerated’ disease in 5-10% of patients (despite treatment with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor)
- Risk of transformation into ALL or AML

Presentation:
Up to 50% of patients asymptomatic
- Splenomegaly (50% patients) / LUQ pain
- B symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats)
- Malaise

Investigations:
- FBC
- Complete metabolic profile
- Peripheral blood smear
- Bone marrow biopsy

Management:
- Tyrosine kinase inhibitor e.g. Imatinib = well tolerated
Overall survival rates with 8-year follow-up are about 85-90%

108
Q

Outline the difference between Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Hodgkin lymphoma:
- Specific type of lymphoma
- Affects younger patients (30s + 70s)
- Local contagious spread from one lymph node to another
- Has Reed Sternberg cells (B cell)
- Systemic symptoms are more common / more likely to affect mediastinum
- Alcohol-induced lymph node pain
- Linked to EBV
- Generally better response to treatment

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma:
- All other types of lymphoma (that aren’t Hodgkin)
- Affects older patients (70s)
- B cell (70%) or T cell (30%) lymphoma
- NO Reed Steinberg cells
- Associated with some other conditions e.g. HIV, chronic H pylori infection
- Systemic symptoms are less common
- Generally less responsive to treatment

109
Q

State some risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Family history / previous history
  • EBV
  • HIV
  • Autoimmune conditions e.g. rheumatoid arthritis
110
Q

State some risk factors for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Family history / previous history
  • EBV
  • HIV
  • Hepatitis B / C infection
  • Exposure to pesticides (Trichloroethylene)
  • H. pylori (MALT lymphoma)
111
Q

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Diagnosis
- Management

A

More common 80% cases

Pathophysiology:
- GROUP of lymphomas (all lymphomas that aren’t Hodgkins)
- Genetic mutation in lymphocyte
- Tends to collect in the lymph nodes
- Most cases occur in people over the age of 50

Presentation:
KEY = non-tender lymphadenopathy
- Unexplained fever
- Night sweats
- Weight loss
- Failure to thrive
- Body itching

Diagnosis:
- Lymph node biopsy (excision)
- Further staging scans e.g. CT scan, MRI
- Bone marrow biopsy
- Ann Arbour used for staging

Management:
Depends on type
- Chemotherapy (high-grade aggressive)
- Monoclonal antibodies e.g. Rituximab
- Radiotherapy
- Bone marrow transplant
Ensure vaccinations are up to date!

112
Q

Give 3 examples of non-Hodgkin lymphomas

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Burkitt’s lymphoma
MALT lymphoma

113
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Presentation
- Diagnosis
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Specific type of lymphoma (around 20% of lymphomas)
- Genetic mutation in lymphocyte
- Tends to collect in the lymph nodes
- Most cases occur in people between ages of 20-40 (young adults)

Presentation:
KEY = non-tender lymphadenopathy (generally cervical or supraclavicular)
- “B” symptoms (unexplained fever, night sweats, weight loss)
- Body itching
Alcohol-induced painful lymphadenopathy is a suggestive symptom

Diagnosis:
- Lymph node biopsy (excision) = Reed Sternberg cells
(LDH is often raised, but non-specific)
- Further staging scans e.g. CT scan, MRI
- Bone marrow biopsy
- Ann Arbour used for staging

Management:
- Chemotherapy (mainstay)
- Radiotherapy
- Bone marrow transplant

114
Q

Describe some features of Reed Sternberg cells

A

Owl face with large eyes :)

  • Abnormally large
  • Multiple nuclei, with nucleoli within them
115
Q

Describe the Ann Arbour staging system

A

System used for staging lymphomas (both Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas)

Stage 1: one lymph node affected
Stage 2: more than one region affected, but on same side of diaphragm
Stage 3: lymph nodes affects above and below the diaphragm
Stage 4: widespread involvement of non-lymphatic tissue e.g. liver, lungs

A type = asymptomatic (no B symptoms)
B type = sympatomatic with constitutional symptoms e.g. night sweats, fever

116
Q

State some differentials for petechiae

A

Leukaemia
Meningococcal sepsis
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
Vasculitis

Non-accidental injury in children and vulnerable adults

117
Q

State the common ages to develop the following leukaemias
- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
- Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
- Chronic myeloid leukaemia
- Acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia = under 5 & over 45

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia = over 55

Chronic myeloid leukaemia = over 65

Acute myeloid leukaemia = over 75

118
Q

Which other cancer is chronic lymphoid leukaemia at risk of transforming into

A

High-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation)

119
Q

Outline the 3 main stages of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  1. Chronic phase
    - Lasts around 5 years
    - Often asymptomatic
  2. Accelerated phase
    - Abnormal blast cells take up a large proportion of the bone marrow and blood (10-20%), leading to symptoms of pancytopenia
  3. Blast phase
    - Even more abnormal blast cells take up an even larger proportion of the bone marrow and blood (>30%)
    - Severe symptoms and pancytopenia
    - Often fatal :(
120
Q

State the initial steps to take for a patient with significant blood loss

A
  • ABCDE approach
  • Immediate senior involvement
  • Attempt to control bleeding e.g. direct pressure
  • Warmed IV fluids
  • Request / transfuse RBCs
  • Reverse any anticoagulation
  • Consider tranexamic acid
121
Q

State how to request major haemorrhage protocol and what details to provide

A

Nominate a blood bank coordinator!

22 22 = state ‘Massive haemorrhage’ in exact location

Details:
- Coordinator’s name
- Name of senior clinician
- Incident location
- Extension number
- TYPE of haemorrhage e.g. obstetric, trauma
- Patient’s details

122
Q

List some conditions for which you might instigate the major haemorrhage protocol

A
  • Clinically obvious severe traumatic bleeding or collapse
  • Major blood loss (>50% volume in < 3 hrs)
  • Haemorrhagic shock e.g. SBP <70 or <90 after fluid bolus
  • Bleeding rate of >150mL/min
123
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Most common age
- Presentation
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Blood cancer caused by dysfunctional myeloid bone marrow
- Specific subtypes of myelodysplastic syndromes
- Leads to pancytopenia (anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia)

Most common age:
- More common > 60
- More common in patients previously had chemotherapy / radiotherapy

Presentation:
May be asymptomatic
- Symptoms of pancytopenia e.g. tiredness, breathlessness, bleeding, recurrent infections

Investigations:
- FBC (abnormal)
- Blood film (blasts)
- Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy

Management:
Depends on levels and symptoms
- Watchful waiting if low risk
- Supportive treatment e.g. blood transfusion
- Chemotherapy
- Bone marrow transplant

124
Q

List some differential diagnoses for lymphadenopathy (aka. causes)
- Malignancy
- Infective
- Rheumatological

A

Malignancy:
- Lymphoma (Hodgkin’s and non Hodgkin’s)
- Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
- Head and neck cancers, thyroid cancer

Infective:
- EBV (infectious mononucleosis)
- TB
- Hep C, CMV, HIV, syphilis
- Bacterial pharyngitis, ear infections, dental abscess

Rheumatological:
- SLE
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Sjogren’s disease

+ post viral vaccines

125
Q

List some examples of the following types of non-Hodgkin lymphomas:
1. B cell lymphoma
2. T cell / natural killer T cell lymphoma

A
  1. B cell lymphoma
    - Diffuse large B-cell (most common)
    - Follicular (2nd most common)
    - Mantle cell
    - Small lymphocytic
  2. T cell / natural killer T cell lymphoma
    - Anaplastic large cell (primary cutaneous type)
    - Anaplastic large cell (systemic type)
    - Peripheral T-cell, not otherwise specified (NOS)
    - Angioimmunoblastic T-cell
126
Q

List some examples of high grade / aggressive B cell lymphomas

A
  • Diffuse large B- cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
  • Mantle cell
  • Burkitts
127
Q

List some examples of low grade / indolent B cell lymphomas

A
  • Follicular lymphoma
  • MALT
128
Q

List some examples of high grade / aggressive T cell lymphomas

A
  • Systemic anaplastic
  • Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
129
Q

List some examples of low grade / indolent T cell lymphomas

A
  • Mycosis fungoides
  • Primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma
130
Q

List 3 markers that haemolysis of RBCs might be occuring

A
  • Raised LDH
  • Raised bilirubin
  • Decreased haptoglobin
131
Q

State what test you can do to determine an immune vs non-immune cause of haemolysis

A

Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test

132
Q

If there is a folate and B12 deficiency, which one should be corrected first and why?

A

B12 should be corrected first
Correcting folate before correcting B12 could cause subacute degeneration of the spinal cord

(remember B comes before F in the alphabet)

133
Q

State what disease smudge cells are pathognomonic for

A

CLL (chronic lymphocytic anaemia)

134
Q

State some reasons for anaemia in patients with cancer

A
  • Infiltration of bone marrow
  • Chemotherapy (suppress bone marrow)
  • Anaemia of chronic disease
  • Warm haemolytic anaemia (complication of CLL)
135
Q

List some causes of splenomegaly (split into mild / moderate and massive)

A

Mild:
- Removal of defective RBCs e.g. haemolytic anaemias, sickle cell, thalassaemias
- Infiltrative conditions e.g. sarcoidosis
- Autoimmune conditions e.g. RA
- Hepatitis (infectious)
- Endocarditis

Moderate:
- Hematologic malignancies e.g. lymphomas, leukemias, myeloproliferative disorders
- Infections e.g. Glandular fever
- Portal hypertension e.g. liver cirrhosis

Massive:
- Malaria
- Schistosomiasis
- Myelofibrosis (bone marrow failure)
- CML

136
Q

List some causes of hyposplenism

A
  • Splenectomy
  • Sickle cell disease
  • GI disease e.g. IBD, coeliac disease
  • Autoimmune conditions e.g. SLE, RA, Hashimotos
137
Q

State how patients with hyposplenism are managed

A

Vaccination against:
- Strep pneumoniae
- Neisseria meningitidis
- Haemophilous influenzae type B

Lifelong prophylaxis:
- Penicillin V or Amoxicillin

138
Q

List some causes of hypersplenism

A

Massive:
- CML
- Myelofibrosis
- Malaria / schistosomiasis

Moderate:
- Lymphoma / leukaemia
- Myeloproliferative disorders
- Liver cirrhosis
- Infections e.g. EBV

139
Q

Outline some functions of the spleen

A
  • Filter blood
  • Hematopoiesis (RBCs +WCC)
  • Immunological function

RBCs:
- Red blood cell and platelet storage
- Recycle iron

WCC:
- Produce antibodies