Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 4 - 4. Cancer Care > General / systemic anti-cancer treatments / radiotherapy misc > Flashcards

General / systemic anti-cancer treatments / radiotherapy misc Flashcards

1
Q

List the most common types of solid organ cancers

A
  • Lung
  • Breast
  • Bowel
  • Prostate
  • Skin
  • Head and Neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline the cancer target for the UK

A

The time between when cancer is first suspected and started treatment = < 62 days

(includes confirmed diagnosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What % of cancer patients are meeting the 62 day target

A

60% in June 2023

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

State some modifiable and non-modifiable risks factors for developing cancer (general)

A

Modifiable:
- Tobacco use / smoking
- Alcohol
- Diet
- Obesity / sedentary lifestyle
- Acquired infections e.g. Hepatitis B, HPV
- Immunodeficiency

Non-modifiable:
- Increasing age
- Family history / genetic component e.g. BRCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Briefly outline the 5 stages of WHO performance status

A

0 = Normal
- Fully active without restriction

1 = Some restriction in physical activity
- Restricted in physically strenuous activity
- However ambulatory
- Able to carry out light work e.g., light house work, office work

2 = More significant restriction
- Ambulatory
- Capable of all self-care
- Unable to carry out any work activities
- Up and about more than 50% of waking hours

3 = Significant restriction
- Capable of only limited self-care
- Confined to bed or chair more than 50% of waking hours

4 = Completely disabled
- Cannot self care
- Totally confined to bed or chair

5 = Dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

State some common side effects of chemotherapy (think by system, head to toe)

A

Head / brain:
- Hearing loss / tinnitus
- Alopecia
- Fatigue (late)
- Insomnia (late)
- Dizziness (late)

GI tract:
- Mucositis
- Diarrhoea
- N&V
- Dry mouth
- Change to smell / taste

Lungs / heart:
- Pleuritis (late)
- Pericarditis (late)
- Pneumonitis
- Dyspnoea
- Cardiovascular complications (late)
- Risk of VTE

Liver:
- Liver dysfunction

Urinary system:
- Cystitis
- Renal insufficiency
- Tumour lysis syndrome = AKI

Skin / nerves:
- Peripheral neuropathy (late)
- Skin sensitivity
- Rash

Bones:
- Myelosuppression / anaemia / thrombocytopenia / leukopenia = risk of neutropenic sepsis
- Arthralgia (late)
- Myalgia (late)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

State some psychosocial effects of chemotherapy

A
  • PTSD
  • Depression
  • Social isolation
  • Strained relationships with partner / family / friends
  • Employment / schooling difficulties
  • Financial burden (e.g. missing work)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

State some specific long term impacts of chemotherapy (think by system, head to toe)

A

Head:
Loss of higher brain function / memory loss
Cataracts
Peripheral neuropathy / Raynaud’s
Tinnitus / deafness

Lungs:
Pulmonary fibrosis

Heart:
Coronary artery disease
HTN
Ventricular failure

Renal:
CKD
Haemorrhagic cystitis
Renal tract malignancy

Reproductive organs:
Infertility
Primary hypogonadism

Bones:
Femoral head necrosis
Osteoporosis

Other:
Secondary malignancy
Fatigue
Psychosocial impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

State how the following long-term chemotherapy complications are monitored

Head:
Loss of higher brain function / memory loss
Cataracts
Peripheral neuropathy / Raynaud’s
Tinnitus / deafness

Lungs:
Pulmonary fibrosis

Heart:
Coronary artery disease
HTN
Ventricular failure

Renal:
CKD
Haemorrhagic cystitis
Renal tract malignancy

Bones:
Femoral head necrosis
Osteoporosis

A

Head:
Loss of higher brain function / memory loss = baseline MMSE
Cataracts = yearly fundoscopy
Peripheral neuropathy / Raynaud’s = neurological assessment yearly for first 3 years
Tinnitus / deafness = baseline audiometry

Lungs:
Pulmonary fibrosis = baseline tests and yearly respiratory examination

Heart:
Coronary artery disease
HTN
Ventricular failure = echocardiogram

Renal:
CKD = baseline U&Es and yearly BP and urinalysis
Haemorrhagic cystitis
Renal tract malignancy

Bones:
Femoral head necrosis = yearly clinical examination
Osteoporosis = bone density scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

State some general common side effects of radiotherapy (immediate and long term) which are not organ specific

A

Side effects of radiotherapy are usually local - depending on anatomical site

Immediate side effects:
Tend to resolve within a few weeks
- Local skin reaction (erythema, desquamation)
- Hair loss in affected area
- Nausea
- Diarrhoea
- Mucositis
- Fatigue
- Lymphoedema
- Dysuria / radiation cystitis
- Sterility

Long term side effects:
Occurs months to years after a course of radiation (from excessive extracellular matrix, deposition of collagen and fibrinogenesis)
- Radiation-induced fibrosis
- Atrophy
- Neural or vascular damage
- A range of endocrine effects (e.g. diabetes, hypothyroidism)

*Small risk of a secondary malignancy, due to radiation-associated DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

State some common side effects of targeted therapy

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Fatigue
  • Coagulation issues
  • Wound healing issues
  • Hypertension
  • Mouth sores
  • Mail changes
  • Skin problems, rash or dry skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Outline in very basic terms how radiotherapy works

A

Radiotherapy uses high energy, ionising radiation to eliminate cancer cells (ionising means charged particles, which then deposit energy into the cells of the tissues they pass through)

Local technique - aim is to maximise the dose of radiation delivered to cancer cells whilst minimising exposure to healthy cells

Causes cell death in one of two ways:
1) Triggering apoptosis by causing significant DNA damage
2) Preventing proliferation, by causing single and double-stranded breaks in DNA (known as mitotic cell death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

State the unit of radiotherapy dosage

A

‘Grays’ (commonly abbreviated as Gy)
- Quantifies amount of energy absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

State the 2 most common methods of delivering radiotherapy

A

2 primary methods of delivering radiation to tumours:

1) External beam radiation:
- Delivered from outside the body by aiming high-energy rays

2) Internal radiation (brachytherapy):
- Uses radioactive material in catheters or seeds
- Delivers high doses of radiation from inside the body directly into the tumour site

+ systemic treatment, with radioactive substance (injected/swallowed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

State 2 solid cancers for which internal radiotherapy (brachytherapy) are commonly used

A
  • Cervical cancer
  • Prostate cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

State some common side effects of radiotherapy given in the head & neck region

A

Head:
- Hair loss

Mouth:
- Dry mouth
- Mouth and gum sores
- Tooth decay

Neck:
- Dysphagia
- Jaw stiffness
- Lymphoedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

State some common side effects of radiotherapy given in the region of the chest

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Dyspnoea
  • Radiation pneumonitis
  • Radiation fibrosis (permanent lung scarring as a result of untreated radiation pneumonitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State some common side effects of radiotherapy given in the abdominal region

A
  • Abdominal pain / cramping
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Diarrhoea
  • Anorexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

State the 3 main classes of analgesics

A

Opioids
Non-opioids
Adjuvants (drugs whose primary indication is not for pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

State some examples of adjuvant drug categories and some examples

A

Antidepressants e.g. Amitriptyline, Duloxetine

Anticonvulsants e.g. Gabapentin, Pregabalin

Benzodiazepines e.g. Diazepam, Clonazepam

Bisphosphonates e.g. Zoledronic acid, Pamidronate

Steroids e.g. Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give some examples of weak opioids

A
  • Co-codamol
  • Codeine
  • Dihydrocodeine
  • Tramadol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give some examples of strong opioids

A
  • Morphine/ Diamorphine
  • Oxycodone
  • Fentanyl
  • Buprenorphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

State some common initial side effects of opioids, as well as common ongoing side effects

A

Initial side effects:
- Nausea and vomiting
- Drowsiness
- Dizziness / lightheadedness
- Cognitive impairment

Ongoing side effects:
- Dry mouth
- Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

State medications that bone metastasis pain responds well to

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Bisphosphonates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

State the conversion ratio of codeine to morphine

A

Codeine to Morphine ratio is 10:1

e.g. 1g of Morphine is equivalent to 10g of Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

State a form of immediate release morphine and 2 forms of slow release morphine (as well as their methods of administration)

A

Immediate release:
- Oramorph liquid 10mg/5ml

Slow release:
- Zomorph capsule BD (12 hourly)
- MST tablets BD

Also parental (subcut) Morphine sulphate for injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

State the equation for working out regular background dose of morphine as well as working out breakthrough (PRN) dose of morphine

A

1) Calculate total daily dose (total amount of morphine taken in a 24 hour period)

Regular background dose = total daily dose / 2
Breakthrough (PRN) dose = total daily dose / 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long does a Fentanyl patch take to become effective and how regularly does a patch need to be changed?

A

Takes 12-24 hours to reach a steady state release (although will get some benefit initially)

Patch needs to be replaced every 72 hours (3 days)

NOT renally excreted = good for poor renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

State 2 medications that should always be written up with opioids

A

1) Anti-emetic
2) Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the maximum limit for PRN doses given in 24 hours in palliative care

A

Limit PRN doses to 1 hourly
Maximum of 6 doses in 24 hours, at which point they need medical review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

State some signs/symptoms of opioid overdose

A
  • Pintpoint pupils
  • Reduced RR (espiratory depression)
  • Vomiting
  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • Myoclonic jerks
  • Hallucinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

State some possible causes of opioid overdose

A
  • Recreational drug use e.g. Heroin users
  • Error of prescribing
  • AKI
  • Rapid escalation of opioid dosage
  • Additional interventions to reduce pain e.g. nerve block
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

State 7 essential things to be done for a controlled drug prescription

A
  • Name, DOB (age if >12) and address of the patient
  • Form of the preparation (e.g. tablets)
  • Include the strength of the preparation (if appropriate)
  • Include the total quantity in both words and figures (e.g. 20 (TWENTY) tablets, 100 (ONE HUNDRED) millilitres)
  • Include the dose to be taken
  • Diagonal line underneath prescription OR “no more items” under the last prescription
  • Dated, signed, GMC number and include the prescriber’s address
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

State how opioid toxicity should be managed

A

1) Stop opioids
2) Check renal function (U&Es)
3) Speak to senior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

State the 3 most common sites of cancer metastasis and how it may present

A
  • Brain
  • Bone
  • Lung

Brain = headaches, seizures, or neurological deficits
Bones = pain and fractures
Lungs = cough, shortness of breath, or chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

State the 6 hallmark features of cancer

A
  • Resist cell death
  • Angiogenesis
  • Sustain proliferative signalling
  • Evade growth suppressors
  • Activate invasion and metastasis
  • Enable replicative immortality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

State the 3 most common cancers
State the 3 most deadly cancers (in terms of highest number of deaths)

A

Most common:
1. Breast / prostate
2. Lung
3. Bowel

Highest number of deaths:
1. Lung
2. Breast / prostate
3. Bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

State 3 other treatments that radiotherapy can be combined with

A

Radiotherapy alone

  • Surgery
  • SACT
  • Hormonal treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

State rough categories of chemotherapy drugs

A

Alkylating agents (Platinum complexes) - target DNA itself
Antimetabolites
Spindle poisons (Taxanes / Vinka alkaloids)

Anthracyclines
Anti-tumour antibiotics
Topoisomerase inhibitors

40
Q

State some routes of administration of chemotherapy

A
  • PO
  • IM
  • IV
  • Topical
  • Intralesional (directly into a cancerous area)
  • Intrathecal (into the CSF via lumbar puncture)
41
Q

State which WHO performance status you can give chemotherapy to

A

0-2 (0, 1 or 2)
3 - unlikely
4 - definitely not

42
Q

What is extravasation

A

Unintentional leakage of vesicant fluids or medications from the vein into the surrounding tissue

*Emergency - need to call plastics

43
Q

State the 4 stages of a cell cycle and what happens in each stage

A

G1 - cell growth, synthesises mRNA
S - DNA synthesis
G2 - rapid cell growth, DNA checking
M - mitosis (cell division = prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telephase)

44
Q

State the different categories of chemotherapy drugs with 2 example drugs for each

A

Alkylating drugs:
- Platinum compounds e.g. Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaliplatin
- Cyclophosphamide
- Ifosfamide

Antimetabolites:
- Methotrexate
- 5-Fluorouracil

Spindle poisons:
- Taxanes e.g. Paclitaxel, Docetaxel
- Vinca alkaloids e.g. Vincristine, Vinorelbine

Topoisomerase inhibitors:
- Topoisomerase I inhibitors e.g. Irinotecan, Topotecan
- Topoisomerase II inhibitors e.g. Doxorubicin, Epirubicin

45
Q

Alkylating drugs excluding platinums (traditional chemotherapy) - state the following:
- Subtypes
- Specific drug examples
- Mechanism of action
- Cancers they are most useful for

A

Specific drug examples:
- Cyclophosphamide
- Ifosfamide
- Subcategory of platinum compounds also e.g. Cisplatin or Oxalipatin

Mechanism of action:
- Targets DNA itself
- Covalent bond to DNA via alkylating groups
- Prevents DNA unwinding and replicating (cell arrest)

Cancers they are most useful for:
- Breast cancer
- Sarcoma

46
Q

Spindle poison drugs (traditional chemotherapy) - state the following:
- Subtypes
- Specific drug examples
- Mechanism of action
- Cancers they are most useful for
- Side effects / toxicity

A

Subtypes:
- Taxanes
- Vinca alkaloids

Specific drug examples
- Taxanes e.g. Paclitaxel, Docetaxel, Cabazitaxel
- Vinca alkaloids e.g. Vincristine, Vinorelbine

Mechanism of action:
- Taxanes = prevent formation of microtubules
- Vinca alkaloids = polymerisation (promote assembly) and prevent disassembly of microtubules

Cancers they are most useful for:
- Taxanes = Breast, Lung, Prostate
- Vinca alkaloids = Lung, Mesothelioma, Sarcoma

Side effects / toxicity:
- Peripheral neuropathy
- Alopecia

47
Q

Platinum Alkylating drug (traditional chemotherapy) - state the following:
- Specific drug examples
- Mechanism of action
- Cancers they are most useful for
- Side effects / toxicity

A

Specific drug examples:
- Cisplatin
- Oxaliplatin

Mechanism of action:
- Targets DNA itself
- Covalent bond to DNA via alkylating groups
- Prevents DNA unwinding and replicating (cell arrest)

Cancers they are most useful for:
- Breast
- Lung
- Colon
- HPB
- H&N
- Radiosenitiser

Side effects / toxicity:
- HIGHLY emetogenic
- Ototoxic
- Nephrotoxic
- Peripheral neuropathy

48
Q

Antimetabolite drugs (traditional chemotherapy) - state the following:
- Specific drug examples
- Mechanism of action
- Cancers they are most useful for
- Side effects / toxicity

A

Specific drug examples:
- Methotrexate
- 5-Fluorouracil

Mechanism of action:
- Interfere with DNA synthesis (through various mechanisms)
- Methotrexate competitively inhibits

Cancers they are most useful for:
- Breast
- Colon
- HPB
- Lung
- Sarcoma

Side effects / toxicity:
- Palmar plantar erythema
- Mucositis
- Diarrhoea

49
Q

Topoisomerase I inhibitors drugs (traditional chemotherapy) - state the following:
- Specific drug examples
- Mechanism of action
- Cancers they are most useful for
- Side effects / toxicity

A

Specific drug examples:
- Irinotecan
- Topotecan

Mechanism of action:
- Inhibits Topo I (involved in DNA replication)

Cancers they are most useful for
- Colon
- HPB
- Lung

Side effects / toxicity
- Alopecia
- Diarrhoea

50
Q

Topoisomerase II inhibitors drugs (traditional chemotherapy) - state the following:
- Specific drug examples
- Mechanism of action
- Cancers they are most useful for
- Side effects / toxicity

A

Antibiotic derived!

Specific drug examples:
- Doxorubicin
- Epirubicin

Mechanism of action:
- Inhibits Topo I (involved in DNA replication)

Cancers they are most useful for:
- Breast
- Sarcoma

Side effects / toxicity:
- Cardiomyopathy (cumulative dose)
- Alopecia
- Vesicant (burning)

51
Q

State the main side effect of Bleomycin

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

52
Q

State the main side effect of Vincristine (Vinka alkaloid)

A

Peripheral neuropathy

53
Q

State the main side effects of Cisplatin and Carboplatin (platinum compound alkylating agents)

A
  • Ototoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity
54
Q

State the main side effect of Doxorubicin (Topoisomerase II enzyme) and Trastuzumab (monoclonal antibody)

A

Cardiotoxicity

55
Q

State the main side effect of Cyclophosphamide

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis

56
Q

State the main side effect of Methotrexate and 5-Fluorouracil

A

Myelosuppression

57
Q

State what is meant by a central line and which veins they are generally inserted into

A

Central line is any catheter that is inserted into a large vein close to the heart
Generally ends up in either the superior vena cava or inferior vena cava

Commonly inserted into:
- Internal jugular vein (most common)
- Subclavian vein

58
Q

State some benefits and risks of central lines

A

Benefits:
- Long term / less invasive for regular treatments / can be done at home
Reduced risk of extravasation (vesicants)
- Can give continuous infusion (>24 hours), with more than one drugs at one time (multilumen)
- Can give nutrition via central catheters

Risks (mainly relate to insertion):
- Infection
- Bleeding
- Pneumothorax / haemothorax
- Misplacement / insertion in artery
- Embolism (air or thrombus)

59
Q

Name the 4 main types of IV Access that can be used for chemotherapy

A
  1. Peripheral cannula
  2. PICC (peripherally inserted central line)
  3. Hickman / tunneled central line
  4. Implantable port
60
Q

Roughly describe a PICC central line (peripherally inserted central line)

A

Insertion point:
Basilic vein -> towards SVC

+ Less prone to infection

61
Q

Roughly describe a tunnelled central line (Hickman line)

A

Insertion point:
- Inserted under general anaesthetic via ultrasound or x-ray guidance
- Enters through chest wall, however tunnels under skin until it reaches the jugular vein

+ Long term solution e.g. patients returning home
+ Less prone to infection

62
Q

Roughly describe a implantable port central line

A

Insertion point:
- Inserted under general anaesthetic via ultrasound or x-ray guidance
- Enters through chest wall, however tunnels under skin until it reaches the jugular vein
- Unique as it has a ‘hub’ under the surface of the skin

+ Long term solution e.g. patients returning home
+ Less prone to infection

63
Q

State some fertility options for chemotherapy patients prior to treatment

A

Females: egg collection
Men: sperm bank

64
Q

State some (general) preventable risk factors for cancers

A

Tobacco use
Alcohol consumption
Unhealthy diet
Excess body weight
Physical inactivity
Infectious agents e.g. HPV and cervical cancer

65
Q

State some more recent advances in radiotherapy techniques (which help to reduce damage)

A

MRI guided radiotherapy - helps to track tumours that are difficult to track e.g. lung cancer

IRMT radiotherapy - shapes the radiation beam to match the tumour

SABR - uses more intense radiation beams which gives a greater chance of killing the tumour cells (fewer hospital trips)

Proton beam therapy - stops beam when passed through the tumour, good for radiotherapy

Internal radiotherapy (radioactive iodine / brachytherapy) - can more precisely kill tumour cells

66
Q

Describe how lymph nodes generally feel in the following situations:
- Benign lymph nodes
- Reactive lymph nodes
- Lymphadenopathy associated with haematological malignancy
- Lymphadenopathy associated with metastatic cancer

A

Benign lymph nodes:
- Typically small (less than 1cm)
- Smooth
- Round
- Mobile
- Non-tender

Reactive lymph nodes:
- Smooth
- Round
- Mobile
- Tender
- Associated with infective symptoms e.g. fever

Lymphadenopathy associated with haematological malignancy:
- Widespread enlarged
- Rubbery

Lymphadenopathy associated with metastatic cancer:
- Hard
- Firm
- Irregular
- Non-mobile / tethered
Lymphadenopathy in groups draining affected organ

67
Q

What % of lung cancers are caused by smoking

A

Around 70%

68
Q

List some cancers most associated with obesity

A
  • Endometrial
  • Oesophageal (gullet)
  • Bowel
  • Kidney
  • Breast (if post-menopausal)
69
Q

Outline the meaning of radical / curative in terms of cancer treatment

A

Radical therapy aims to reduce the size of the tumour shrink and control the growth of the tumour, with the intent of curing the cancer and prolonging life (intended to induce remission and prevent recurrence)

Vs palliative, which aims to control the cancer and sometimes cancer, but without curative intent

70
Q

Outline the meaning of life-extending treatment in terms of cancer treatment

A

Treatment offered with the aim of extending life for a meaningful period of time (sometimes with intent to be present at a life event e.g. birth of a grandchild), but without being curative

Different to palliative as it’s not aimed at improving palliative symptoms or QOL specifically

71
Q

Outline the meaning of palliative in terms of cancer treatment

A

Intent of treatment is not to cure, expectation is that treatment will improve patient’s symptoms and QOL (sometimes at the expense of other outcomes e.g. survival) or prevent development of cancer-related symptoms

It’s an approach that takes into account the person as a whole

72
Q

Outline the meaning of neo-adjuvant in terms of cancer treatment and some examples

A

Treatment given to shrink the size/burden of a tumour prior to surgery (or other main treatment), to improve the success rate of the main treatment

Examples:
- Chemotherapy
- Radiotherapy
- Hormone therapy

73
Q

Outline the meaning of adjuvant in terms of cancer treatment

A

Treatment given after the main treatment, to kill any residual cancer cells and reduce the risk of the cancer recurring

74
Q

Outline the meaning of maintenance in terms of cancer treatment

A

Ongoing treatment after cancer has responded to initial treatment, with the intention of reducing the cancer coming back after initial therapy

Longer term therapy that can last for years, to help remission last as long as possible

75
Q

List some examples of palliative cancer treatments

A

Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Hormone therapy / targeted cancer drugs
Surgery
Radiofrequency ablation
Cryotherapy

76
Q

List some examples of proto-onocogenes

A

EGFR
VEGF
HER-2
KRAS
HRAS

77
Q

List some examples of tumour-suppressor genes

A

BRCA1
p53
TGF
APC

78
Q

State 4 cancers associated with the BRCA1/2 mutations

A
  • Breast
  • Prostate
  • Ovarian
  • Pancreas
79
Q

Worldwide, what % of cancer cases are linked to exposure to tobacco smoke?

A

33%

80
Q

Worldwide, how many new cases of cancer are there each year?

A

18 million new cases worldwide

81
Q

Worldwide, how many death are caused by cancer each year?

A

10 million deaths from cancer worldwide each year

82
Q

State the purpose of clinical trials in cancer care management

A

Trials test if a new treatment is more effective than the current treatment
Also provides information on safety profile + side effects of new treatment

83
Q

Briefly explain the phases of Cancer clinical trials

A

Pre-clinical: tested microscopically and then on animals

Phase 0 + 1 (small numbers + lots of cancer types):
- What dose of a drug is safe?
- Whether positive effect on cancer?
- Side effects?

Phase 2 (larger numbers + 1 cancer type):
- Which cancers can it be used for?
- More detail about side effects + how to manage side effects

Phase 3 (larger numbers + 1 cancer type):
- It new treatment as good as the standard treatment?
- Fewer side effects?
If a phase 3 trial shows a cancer drug is safe and effective = company can apply for a drug license

Phase 4 (test drugs already licensed):
- Success when used on more people
- Long-term effects
- More about rare side effects + safety

84
Q

State 4 different types of Cancer clinical trials

A

-Placebo and blind
- Controlled
- Randomised controlled
- Multi-arm

85
Q

List some complications of chemotherapy

A

Failure
Secondary malignancy

Tumour lysis syndrome
Infections (immunodeficiency)
Neurotoxicity
Cardiotoxicity
Infertility
Stunted growth

86
Q

List medications that should be used for chemo-induced nausea and vomiting

A

5HT antagonists (should work in 60% of cases):
- Ondansetron
- Granisetron
+ Dexamethasone if needed

Second line:
- Metoclopramide
- Prochlorperazine
- Cyclizine
- Benzodiazepines e.g. Lorazepam
- Domperidone

87
Q

State the 3 main types of sarcoma

A
  1. Osteosarcoma – the most common form of bone cancer
  2. Chondrosarcoma – cancer originating from the cartilage
  3. Ewing sarcoma – a form of bone and soft tissue cancer most often affecting children and young adults
88
Q

List some ways in which sarcomas may present, ways in which they are investigated and how they can be managed

A

Presentation:
- Soft tissue lump (esp. if growing, painful or large)
- Bone swelling
- Persistent bone pain

Investigations:
- X-ray (if bone suspected)
- Ultrasound(if bone soft tissue suspected)
- CT /MRI scans (more detail / metastatic spread)
- Biopsy

Management:
Managed by sarcoma MDTs at specialist sarcoma centres
- Surgery (surgical resection is the preferred treatment)
- Radiotherapy
- Chemotherapy
- Palliative

89
Q

State some risk factors for sarcoma

A
  • Inherited syndromes e.g. familial retinoblastoma, neurofibromatosis type 1
  • Radiotherapy
  • Exposure to chemicals e.g. industrial chemicals
  • Exposure to viruses (human herpesvirus 8 for Kaposi’s sarcoma)
90
Q

State the 4 main mechanisms of cancer spread

A
  1. Direct
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Haematogenous
  4. Transcoelomic
91
Q

Outline some treatment options for brain metastases

A

Palliative approach = symptom control/comfort e.g. Dexamethasone

Treatment:
- Neurosurgery
- Stereotactic radiosurgery (gamma knife)
- Immunotherapy
- Whole brain radiotherapy (WBRT): extensive disease

92
Q

For the following treatment options for brain metastases, outline when they can be used
- Neurosurgery
- Stereotactic radiosurgery (gamma knife)
- Immunotherapy
- Whole brain radiotherapy (WBRT): extensive disease

A

Neurosurgery:
- Single met or <3 accessible lesions
- Disease otherwise well controlled

Stereotactic radiosurgery (gamma knife):
- Small number of mets
- Overall good performance status
- Disease otherwise well controlled

Immunotherapy:
- Multiple small volume metastases
- Overall good performance status

Whole brain radiotherapy (WBRT):
- Extensive disease

93
Q

List some side effects of steroids

A
  • Difficulty sleeping
  • Increased appetite (weight gain)
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperglycaemia or diabetes
  • Osteoporosis
  • Immunosuppression risk e.g. chickenpox, shingles and measles
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • Glaucoma / cataracts
  • Changes in mood e.g. anxiety / irritability
94
Q

Outline the difference between targeted therapy and immunotherapy

A

Targeted therapy:
- Work by targeting the differences in cancer cells that help them to grow and survive

Immunotherapy:
- Help the immune system to attack cancer

95
Q

State some side effects of immunotherapy in cancer

A

General inflammation in the body

  • Allergic reaction / anaphylaxis
  • Diarrhoea / abdominal pain
  • Fatigue
  • Flu-like symptoms e.g. fever, muscle aches, headaches
  • Reaction at site of injection e.g. pain, erythema / skin rash
  • Palpitations
  • Sweating
  • Weight changes / appetite changes
  • Polyuria
  • Organ inflammation (more rare)
96
Q

State some side effects of targeted therapy in cancer

A

Side effects can be more varied than chemotherapy

  • Diarrhoea
  • Liver problems
  • Fatigue
  • Hypertension
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Nail changes
  • Loss of hair color
  • Skin problems, which might include rash or dry skin
  • Clotting disturbances
  • Poor wound healing
97
Q

State 3 cancers that can be treated with hormone manipulation

A
  • Breast cancer
  • Endometrial cancer
  • Prostate cancer

Year 4 - 4. Cancer Care (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions