Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of anaemia

A

Anaemia is defined as a low level of haemoglobin in the blood

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2
Q

What are the sub groups of anaemia

A

Anaemia is initially subdivided into three main categories based on the size of the red blood cell (the MCV). These have different underlying causes:

  • Microcytic anaemia(low MCV indicating small RBCs)
  • Normocytic anaemia(normal MCV indicating normal sized RBCs)
  • Macrocytic anaemia(large MCV indicating large RBCs)
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3
Q

What are the variables for anaemia parameters

A
  • Red blood cell (RBC) count
  • Haemoglobin (Hb) concentration
  • Haematocrit
  • MCV (mean cell volume - a measurement of the size of RBCs)
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4
Q

What are the types of anaemia

A

Microcytic

Normocytic (Haemolysis - increase in reticulocytes and Bone marrow failure - decrease in reticulocytes)

Macrocytic (Megaloblastic and nonmegaloblastic)

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5
Q

What are the mean cell volume of microcytic anaemia

A

<80fL

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6
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anaemia

A
  • T–Thalassaemia
  • A–Anaemia of chronic disease
  • I–Iron deficiency anaemia
  • L–Lead poisoning
  • S–Sideroblastic anaemia
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7
Q

What are iron deficiency anaemia risk factors

A
  • Generally occurs in people with chronic slow bleeding - where the iron in the red blood cells is lost with the blood e.g. women with frequent or heavy menstruation or patients with colon cancer.
  • Pregnancy: due to increased iron requirements for fetal development.
  • Lack of iron in the diet.
  • Can be due to refractory iron deficiency due to H.pylori infection: the bacteria can sequester iron and it can cause gastric bleeding, or inflammatory bowel disease or coeliac disease, both of which can cause malabsorption.
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8
Q

What is the treatment plan for iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • Treat the cause
  • Oral iron supplements
  • If oral iron isn’t effective, or the side effects can’t be tolerated, IV iron can be used instead.
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9
Q

What is anaemia of chronic disease and when does it develop

A
  • Characterised by inflammation. During inflammation the body likes to store away iron.
  • Often develops in people with chronic inflammatory diseases, like infections, autoimmune disorders, and various cancers, and typically resolves once that underlying condition resolves.
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10
Q

What is thalassaemia

A
  • Issue with the production of globin chains in Hb
  • Alpha thalassaemia: issue with the alpha chain
  • Beta thalassaemia: issue with the beta chain
  • Can cause disease of varying severity depending on number of mutations
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11
Q

What is the treatment for thalassaemia

A
  • Mild thalassaemia’s don’t require treatment
  • Severe thalassaemia’s require blood transfusions + iron chelating agents to prevent iron overload
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12
Q

What is sideroblastic anaemia characterised by

A
  • Characterised by sideroblasts: immature red blood cells found in the bone marrow.
  • These erythrocytes cannot utilise iron for the synthesis of heme, so iron accumulates inside the mitochondria.
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13
Q

What are the causes of sideroblastic anaemia

A
  • Congenital e.g. genetic mutations
  • Acquired e.g. myelodysplastic syndrome, excessive alcohol use, copper or vitamin B6 deficiency, or intake of certain antimicrobial drugs.
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14
Q

What is the treatment for sideroblastic anaemia

A
  • Treatment depends on the cause e.g.
    • Stopping the use of alcohol or medication
    • Some congenital cases respond to vitamin and mineral supplements
    • Myelodysplastic syndrome requires a bone marrow transplant.
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15
Q

What is the mean cell volume for normocytic anaemia

A

80-95fL

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16
Q

What are the causes of normocytic anaemia

A

Generally caused by the destruction of RBCs. Sometimes replacement of RBC is not possible, due to bone marrow suppression or chronic kidney disease

Causes: (3 As and 2 Hs)

  • A–Acute blood loss
  • A–Anaemia of Chronic Disease
  • A–Aplastic Anaemia e.g. bone marrow suppression or chronic kidney disease (lack of EPO)
  • H–Haemolytic Anaemia
  • H–Hypothyroidism
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17
Q

What are examples of inherited haemolytic anaemia

A
  • Hereditary spherocytosis
  • Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Thalassaemia
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18
Q

Describe hereditary spherocytosis

A
  • A genetic disorder caused by defects in the structural proteins ankyrin, spectrin, or band 3
  • Without these proteins, the red blood cells can’t keep their shape and become spherical
  • The misshapen cells are less flexible than normal red blood cells and get stuck in the spleen, where they are destroyed by macrophages
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19
Q

What is the treatment for hereditary spherocytosis

A

Splenectomy

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20
Q

What is Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

A
  • An X-linked recessive disorder that results in defects of the enzyme
  • Normally, it protects the red blood cells from oxidative stress, so in affected individuals, there’s haemolysis when there is exposure to oxidative stressors
  • When there’s oxidative stress, haemoglobin gets damaged and forms heinz bodies inside the red blood cell.
  • Macrophages in the spleen detect the abnormal red blood cells and try to remove the heinz bodies by taking out a chunk of the cell.
  • During a haemolytic attack, the deficient cells die
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21
Q

What is the treatment for G6PD deficiency

A
  • Acute phase treatment: blood transfusions
  • Prevention of haemolytic attack: avoid the triggers; splenectomy
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22
Q

Describe sickle cell disease

A
  • An autosomal recessive disorder
  • Caused by a mutated haemoglobin gene that encodes for an abnormal adult hemoglobin called HbS
  • When there’s acidosis, hypoxia, or dehydration, the red blood cells sickle, and that causes either haemolysis or capillary obstruction causing ischemia and pain.
  • These episodes are known as sickle crises
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23
Q

What is the treatment for sickle cell disease

A
  • IV fluids, oxygen, and pain control are used to manage the symptoms
  • Blood transfusion may be needed + iron chelating agents to prevent iron overload
  • Hydroxycarbamide: increase level of HbF, as this is protective
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24
Q

What are examples of acquired haemolytic anaemia

A
  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia: red blood cells are attacked by either IgM or IgG antibodies
    • IgM: cause cold agglutinin - haemolysis happens in the cool extremities, and it’s associated with infections like mycoplasma and mononucleosis.
    • IgG: cause warm agglutinin - haemolysis happens when it’s warm, and it’s associated with lupus and drugs like penicillin and cephalosporin.
  • Non-immune (e.g. mechanical trauma, hypersplenism, infections, drugs)
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25
Q

What are the mean cell volume for macrocytic anaemia

A

> 95fL

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26
Q

What are macrocytic anaemias caused by

A

Caused by problems in producing RBCs

Megaloblastic causes:

  • A result of impaired DNA synthesis preventing the cell from dividing normally, caused by
    • B12 deficiency
    • Folate deficiency

Non-megaloblastic causes:

  • Alcohol
  • Reticulocytosis(usually from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Liver disease
  • Drugs such asazathioprine
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27
Q

Why is B12 deficiency problematic and what causes it

A
  • Found in animal protein so vegans who don’t take supplements may be deficient
  • May also be an issue with malabsorption
    • Normally, meat or dairy are broken down in the stomach and the B12 is released. Intrinsic factor, made by parietal cells binds to the B12. Then, the B12-intrinsic factor complex moves through the intestines to the terminal ileum, where the complex is absorbed
    • In pernicious anaemia: IgA antibodies attack intrinsic factor or the parietal cells
    • In Crohn’s disease: the terminal ileum is damaged which affects absorption
    • In patient’s with a gastric bypass, food moves through too quickly for effective absorption of B12
  • B12 is used throughout the body, so people with B12 deficiency develop a variety of neurologic symptoms.
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28
Q

What is the treatment for B12 deficiency

A
  • Oral B12 supplements
  • If issues with malabsorption, extremely high doses or IV B12 could be given
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29
Q

What may cause folate deficiency

A
  • We have up to six weeks supply of folate in the body, but this can get used up even quicker during pregnancy.
  • Individuals on a restricted diet may also have folate deficiency
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30
Q

What is the treatment for folate deficiency

A

Folate supplements

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31
Q

What are the general clinical manifestations of anaemia

A
  • Generic signs:
    • Pale skin
    • Conjunctival pallor
    • Tachycardia
    • Bounding pulse
    • Raised respiratory rate
    • Postural hypotension
    • Shock
  • Symptoms
    • Tiredness
    • Shortness of breath
    • Headaches
    • Dizziness
    • Palpitations
    • Confusion
    • Syncope
    • Worsening of other conditions such as angina, heart failure or peripheral vascular disease
    • Pica (abnormal cravings) and hair loss may signify iron deficiency anaemia
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32
Q

What are specific clinical manifestations of anaemias and what do they indicate

A
  • Koilonychia: spoon shaped nails and can indicate iron deficiency
  • Angular chelitis (red, swollen patches in the corners of your mouth)can indicate iron deficiency
  • Atrophic glossitis: smooth tongue due to atrophy of the papillae and can indicate iron deficiency
  • Brittle hair and nails: can indicate iron deficiency
  • Jaundice:occurs inhaemolytic anaemia
  • Bone deformities: occur inthalassaemia
  • Oedema, hypertension and excoriations on the skin:can indicatechronic kidney disease
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33
Q

What are the primary investigations for anaemia

A
  • Full blood count forhaemoglobinandMCV
  • Blood film
  • Reticulocyte count
  • Ferritin (an iron store)
  • B12 and folate
  • Bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
  • Direct Coombs test (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia)
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis (haemoglobinopathies)
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34
Q

What are further investigations for anaemia

A
  • Oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy(OGD) andcolonoscopy:to investigate for a gastrointestinal cause of unexplainediron deficiency anaemia. This is done on an urgent cancer referral for suspected gastrointestinal cancer.
  • Bone marrow biopsy:may be required if the cause is unclear
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35
Q

What is the direct Coombs test for

A

To detect antibodies that are stuck to the surface of RBCs

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36
Q

What is the management plan for anaemia

A

Management depends on establishing the underlying cause and directing treatment accordingly. Iron deficiency can be treated with iron supplementation. Severe anaemia may require blood transfusions.

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37
Q

Describe the make up of haemoglobin

A
  • Haemoglobin is made of four haem molecules which contain iron. This iron molecule is what binds to oxygen, so each haemoglobin molecule can bind four molecules of oxygen.
  • In addition, iron is also an important part of proteins like myoglobin, which delivers and stores oxygen in muscles; and mitochondrial enzymes like cytochrome oxidase, which help generate ATP.
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38
Q

What is the total iron content and distribution among different structures

A
  • Each day, around 1-2 mg of iron is absorbed and 1-2 mg is lost from the body. The total iron content withinour body is approximately 3-4 grams, whichis distributed among different structures:
    • Hb:2-3 grams
    • Plasma iron (e.g. bound to transferrin):3-7 mg
    • Iron-containing proteins (e.g. myoglobin):300-400 mg
    • Stored iron (e.g. ferritin, haemosiderin):1 gram
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39
Q

Describe the absorption of iron in the GI tract

A

Absorption of iron from enterocytes in the gastrointestinal tractis highly regulatedto match the loss of iron from the body each day. When the rate of iron absorption cannot keep up with the rate of iron loss, it will lead to depletion of iron stores within the body and eventually IDA.

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40
Q

Describe how we get iron from our diets

A
  • Our diet contains two forms of iron.
  • The first is heme iron, or iron bound to haemoglobin or myoglobin. This is in the ferrous, or Fe2+, state.
  • The other form is non-heme iron, which is free iron molecules in the ferric, or Fe3+, state.
  • When food is broken down in the stomach, iron is released.
  • Heme iron is absorbed directly into the duodenal cells, where it is broken down to release Fe2+ molecules.
  • Non-heme iron, however, needs to be reduced to heme iron first. The stomach’s hydrochloric acid activates a group of enzymes in the duodenal cells, collectively called ferri-reductase.
  • Fe2+ molecules then bind to a protein in the duodenal cells called ferritin, which temporarily stores the iron.
  • When iron is needed in the body, some Fe2+ molecules are released from ferritin and transported into the blood, where the enzyme hephaestin converts them back to the Fe3+ state.
  • Fe3+ molecules then bind to an iron transport protein called transferrin that carries iron to various target tissues and releases them there.
  • Fe3+ enters these various tissue cells, where there’s some more ferritin that can store them for future use.
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41
Q

Define iron deficiency anaemia

A

Anaemia (low levels of Hb in the blood) caused by iron deficiency

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42
Q

What is the epidemiology of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Most common cause of anaemia worldwide

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43
Q

What are the risk factors for iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • Vegetarian/ vegan diet
  • H.pylori infection
  • Pregnancy
  • Young children and adolescents
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Coeliac disease
  • Certain drugs e.g. PPIs
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44
Q

What are the examples of where iron stores can be used up causing the patient to become iron deficient

A
  • Dietary insufficiency
  • Loss of iron e.g. inheavy menstruation, gastric ulcers, and colon cancer
  • Inadequate iron absorption e.g. after gastric surgery resulting in less HCl production, Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease
  • Increased requirements e.g. during pregnancy, growing children and adolescents

Other causes include H.pylori infection, which causes gastric ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding. H.pylori also traps dietary iron for itself, preventing it from reaching the duodenum.

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45
Q

Describe the absorption of iron

A

Iron is mainly absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum. It requires the acid from the stomach to keep the iron in the soluble ferrous (Fe2+) form. When there is less acid in the stomach, it changes to the insoluble ferric (Fe3+) form. Therefore, medications that reduce the stomach acid, such as proton pump inhibitors (lansoprazole and omeprazole) can interfere with iron absorption.

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46
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Regardless of the cause, iron deficiency leads to impaired haemoglobin production.

Since there’s not enough haemoglobin for a normal sized RBC, the bone marrow starts pumping out microcytic RBCs. These cells containing less haemoglobin are called hypochromic, since they appear pale.

These microcytic RBCs can’t carry enough oxygen to the tissues - hypoxia.

Hypoxia signals the bone marrow to increase RBC production.

The bone marrow goes into overdrive and pumps out incompletely formed RBCs.

In addition to anaemia, iron deficiency also results in defective production of mitochondrial enzymes that generate necessary ATP for growth and development and this affects fast growing tissues, like hair and nails the most.

Sometimes iron deficiency anaemia may occur in the context of Plummer-Vinson syndrome, resulting in features such as glossitis and oesophageal webs.

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47
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor
    • Conjunctival pallor
    • Glossitis
    • Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails)
    • Angular stomatitis
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Dyspnoea
    • Dizziness
    • Headache
    • Nausea
    • Bowel disturbance
    • Hairloss
    • Pica (abnormal cravings)
    • Possible exacerbation of cardiovascular co-morbidities causing angina, palpitations, and intermittent claudication.
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48
Q

Describe the primary investigations for iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • FBC: low Hb, low MCV, low MCHC
  • Iron studies:
    • Serum iron
    • Serum ferritin: low in anaemia
    • Total iron binding capacity: can be used as a marker for how much transferrin is in the blood. Increased in anaemia
    • Transferrin saturation: gives a good indication of the total iron in the body. Decreased in anaemia
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49
Q

What is the normal range for the following; serum ferritin, serum iron, total iron binding capacity

A

Serum ferritin - 12-200ug/L
Serum iron - 14-31 micromol/L
Total iron binding capacity - 54-75 micromol/L

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50
Q

What are other investigations for iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • Oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD) and a colonoscopy to look for cancer of the gastrointestinal tract: for new iron deficiency in an adult without a clear underlying cause
  • Bone marrow biopsy:may be required if the cause is unclear
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51
Q

What is the management for iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • Treat the underlying cause
  • Oral iron supplements: ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate
    • Side effects: constipation and black coloured stools, diarrhoea, nausea and dyspepsia/epigastric discomfort.
  • Iron infusion e.g. cosmofer
  • Blood transfusions may be needed in severe cases
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52
Q

Define anaemia of chronic disease

A

Anaemia of chronic disease (ACD) is a complex and multi-factorial condition due to a chronic inflammatory process from underlying infection, malignancy or systemic disease.

ACD is classically described as a normocytic, normochromic anaemia, but can also be microcytic anaemia.

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53
Q

Describe the epidemiology of anaemia of chronic disease

A

ACD is the second most common cause of anaemia worldwide, and commonly seen among hospitalised patients.

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54
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of anaemia of chronic disease

A
  • ACD may be associated with many chronic disease states like infections, malignancy, diabetes, or autoimmune disorders.
  • The continuous inflammation generated by chronic disease impairs iron metabolism and, in turn, RBC production.
  • In general, the disease mechanism is a two fold process; decreased RBC lifespan and decreased RBC production.
    • Shortened RBC lifespan is a result of direct cellular destruction via toxins from cancer cells, viruses, or bacterial infections.
    • Decreased RBC production involves several mechanisms:
      • In chronic disease states, cytokines mediate this pathologic process in the kidney, immune system, and the GI tract. Two cytokines called TNF-a and IFN-y inhibit the production of erythropoietin in the kidney, which subsequently prevents RBC production in the bone marrow.

Additionally,

  • TNF-a promotes RBC degradation in macrophages via phagocytosis
  • IF-Y increases the expression of a protein channel called divalent metal transporter one on the surface of macrophages. This channel serves as a pathway for iron to enter the macrophage at increased rates, so less iron is available for the production of haemoglobin.
  • IL-10 mediates the expression of increased ferritin receptors on the surface of macrophages, which then sequesters even more iron.
  • IL-6 also works in the liver by increasing production of a molecule called hepcidin, which blocks further uptake of iron from the small intestine.
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55
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of anaemia of chronic disease

A
  • Fatigue
  • Pallor
  • Shortness of breath
  • Headache
  • Dizziness
  • May worsen palpitations, angina and intermittent claudication
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56
Q

What are the primary investigations for anaemia of chronic disease

A
  • FBC: normocytic normochromic anaemia (approx. 75%) OR microcytic anaemia
  • CRP
  • Blood film
  • Haematinics: check for iron, B12 and folate deficiencies
  • Iron studies:
    • Serum ferritin: normal or raised
    • Serum iron: tends to be low
    • Total iron binding capacity: tends to be low
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57
Q

What are further investigations for anaemia of chronic disease

A

Marrow biopsy: iron stores are normal or increased

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58
Q

What is the management for anaemia of chronic disease

A
  • Treatment of underlying cause e.g.
    • Antibiotics for infection
    • Surgical resection of tumour
    • Treatment of diabetes
  • EPO injections
  • Parenteral iron
  • Transfusions
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59
Q

Define hereditary spherocytosis

A

Hereditary spherocytosis (HS) is an inherited haemolytic anaemia and is autosomal dominant in the majority of cases (75%), but can also be autosomal recessive.

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60
Q

Describe the epidemiology of HS

A
  • HS is the most common genetic haemolytic disease.
  • It is more common in Northern Europe and North America but can affect people of any race.
  • It is diagnosed in 1 in 2000 people, whilst a large proportion of these individuals are asymptomatic
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61
Q

What are the risk factors of HS

A
  • Family history
  • Northern European descent
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62
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of HS

A
  • HS occurs due to a defect in red cell membrane proteins, such as ankyrin and spectrin.
  • This causes red blood cells (RBCs) to lose their biconcave shape and appear spherical.
  • Subsequently, there is accelerated degradation of RBCs in the spleen (extravascular haemolysis), resulting in a normocytic anaemia.
  • Splenomegaly occurs because the spleen has to work harder (hypersplenism) to clear out the abnormal RBCs and their products.
  • As haemolysis occurs, haemoglobin is broken down to bilirubin by macrophages, which increases the risk of gallstones and cholecystitis.
  • Patients can have episodes of haemolytic crisis, often triggered by infections, where the haemolysis, anaemia and jaundice is more significant.
  • Patients with hereditary spherocytosis can develop aplastic crisis. During aplastic crisis there is increased anaemia, haemolysis and jaundice, without the normal response from the bone marrow of creating new red blood cells. This is often triggered by infection with parvovirus.
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63
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of HS

A
  • Signs
    • Splenomegaly
    • Pallor
    • Jaundice
    • Tachycardia
    • Flow murmur
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Dizziness
    • Palpitations
    • RUQ pain: due to gallstones
    • Neonatal jaundice: in 50% of patients
    • Failure to thrive
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64
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for HS

A

No further tests are needed for diagnosis, if:

  • Family history of HSand
  • Typical clinical featuresand
  • Positive laboratory investigations (spherocytes, raised MCHC, increase in reticulocytes)
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65
Q

What are the first line investigations for HS

A
  • FBC:normocytic anaemia with an increased reticulocyte count and raised MCHC
    • MCHC is increased as spherical RBCs lead to water diffusing out of the cell
  • Blood film:spherocytosis
  • LFTs:increased (unconjugated) bilirubin due to haemolysis
  • Coombs test:negativein hereditary spherocytosis. This is an important test to perform as spherocytes are also seen in autoimmune hemolytic anaemia (Coombs positive) and will, therefore, allow for differentiation between the two conditions
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66
Q

What is the management for HS

A
  • Phototherapy or exchange transfusion:conducted in neonatal jaundice to reduce bilirubin levels
  • Blood transfusion:patients should be managed with transfusions for symptomatic anaemia until splenectomy is possible or deemed appropriate
  • Folic acid: all patients require daily folic acid supplementation until splenectomy
  • Splenectomy:removing the spleen reduces haemolysis
    • Splenectomy is delayed until patients are> 6 years oldto reduce the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis
    • Patients must bevaccinatedagainst encapsulated bacteria and be prescribed lifelongphenoxymethylpenicillin
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67
Q

What are the complications for HS patients

A
  • Gallstones: the high level of bilirubin due to haemolysis increases the risk of gallstones
  • Aplastic crisis: parvovirus B12 infection attacks erythroid precursors in the marrow, resulting in anaemia with reduced reticulocyte count. Any patient with a haemolytic condition is at risk due to reduced RBC life span
  • Bone marrow expansion:in conditions where there is a chronic, increased need for RBC production, such as haemolytic anaemias, bone marrow can expand. This particularly affects the face and skull
  • Post-splenectomy sepsis:prevented by lifelong penicillin and vaccination againstS. pneumoniae,H. influenzae, influenza, and meningitis A&C. Vaccination is offered two weeks prior to the procedure
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68
Q

What is the prognosis for HS patients

A

Most patients with HS are asymptomatic with a near-normal Hb post-splenectomy, as this increases RBC lifespan

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69
Q

What is the function of G6PD

A
  • Normally, as a part of the metabolic process, our body produces free radicals like hydrogen peroxide, or H2O2.
  • Free radicals can damage the cells in many ways including destroying the DNA, proteins, and the cell membrane.
  • Glutathione acts as an antioxidant and goes around and neutralises these free radicals.
  • In order to function, glutathione needs to be in the reduced state where they can donate an electron to the H2O2 and convert them into harmless water and oxygen.
  • However this causes the glutathione to become oxidised, so before it can be reused, glutathione reductase will use an NADPH as an electron donor to reduce the oxidised glutathione back into its working state.
  • After giving up its electron, the NADPH will become NADP+.
  • To replenish the supply of NADPH, the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme, or G6PD, reduces NADP+ back to NADPH by oxidising a glucose-6-phosphate.
  • Glucose-6-phosphate is a metabolite of glucose so we usually have a ready supply of this molecule as long as we are not in a starving state.
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70
Q

Define G6PD deficiency

A

G6PD deficiency is a condition where there is a defect in the G6PD enzyme normally found in all cells in the body.

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71
Q

What is the epidemiology of G6PD deficiency

A
  • It is inherited in an X linked recessive pattern, meaning it usually affects males.
  • It is more common in Mediterranean, Middle Eastern and African patients.
  • 6DPD deficiency can be protective against malaria
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72
Q

What are the triggers for G6PD deficiency

A
  • Fava beans
  • Soy products
  • Red wine
  • Infections (viral hepatitis or pneumonia)
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Medications:
    • Primaquine (an antimalarial)
    • Ciprofloxacin
    • Nitrofurantoin
    • Trimethoprim
    • Sulfonylureas (e.g gliclazide)
    • Sulfasalazine and other sulphonamide drugs
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73
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of G6PD deficiency

A

G6PD deficiency is caused by mutations on the G6PD gene which is found on the X chromosome and thus it’s an X-linked recessive genetic condition and it almost exclusively manifests as a disease in men.

The G6PD mutations cause defective G6PD enzymes to be produced that have a shorter half-life. There are two common types of G6PD deficiency: a Mediterranean and an African variant.

Low levels of G6PD causes low levels of NADPH, leading to low levels of reduced glutathione.

G6PD is the only way for red blood cells to get NADPH so they are especially susceptible to damage caused by free radicals.

When these build up, it causes the cell membrane to become unstable, causing haemolysis.

Free radicals can also directly damage haemoglobin molecules which are the oxygen carrying protein in red blood cells. These damaged proteins precipitates inside the cells and are called Heinz bodies.

The spleen macrophages notice these Heinz bodies and try to remove them by taking a chunk out of the cells, leaving these red blood cells partially devoured. These are known as bite cells.

When haemolysis occurs, this leads to conversion to bilirubin, which can result in jaundice and further complications e.g. gallstones. Some of the bilirubin is converted to urobilin, which builds up to give the urine a dark tea-like colour. This could cause damage to the kidneys.

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74
Q

What are triggers for G6PD deficiency

A

Periods of increased stress, with a higher production of ROS, can lead to acute haemolytic anaemia.

e.g. infections (viral hepatitis or pneumonia), metabolic acidosis, fava beans, soy products, red wine, certain medications

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75
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency

A
  • Signs
    • Jaundice
    • Pallor
    • Splenomegaly
    • Dark tea-like coloured urine
  • Symptoms
    • Shortness of breath
    • Fatigue
    • Dizziness
    • Headaches
    • Palpitations
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76
Q

What are the investigations for G6PD deficiency

A
  • FBC: low levels of RBC, high reticulocytes
  • Blood film: heinz bodies and bite cells
  • LDH: elevated
  • Bilirubin: elevated
  • Haptoglobin: low
  • Coomb’s test: negative (used to detect immune mediated anaemias)
  • Diagnosis can be made by doing aG6PD enzyme assay
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77
Q

What is the management for G6PD deficiency

A
  • Avoid trigger of haemolysis e.g. fava beans and certain medications
  • In certain cases, transfusions may be needed
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78
Q

What are the complications with G6PD deficiency

A
  • Gallstones: due to jaundice
  • Kidney damage
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79
Q

Define aplastic anaemia

A

Aplastic anaemia is a stem cell disorder characterised by pancytopenia.

This means there is anaemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.

It is usually an acquired condition but may be inherited

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80
Q

Describe the aetiology of aplastic anaemia

A
  • Idiopathic (most common)
  • Radiation and toxins
  • Drugs e.g. certain chemotherapeutic agents, anti-seizure medication, anti-inflammatory medications, anti-thyroid medications and certain antibiotics
  • Infections e.g. HIV, EBV
  • Clonal or genetic disorders e.g. Fanconi’s anaemia
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81
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of aplastic anaemia

A
  • The most common cause of aplastic anaemia is autoimmune destruction of haematopoietic stem cells.
  • Research shows that there are alterations in the immunologic appearance of haematopoietic stem cells because of genetic disorders, or after exposure to environmental agents, like radiation or toxins.
  • This means that the hematopoietic stem cells start expressing non-self antigens and the immune system subsequently targets them for destruction.
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82
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of aplastic anaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Palpitations
    • Dizziness
    • Headaches
    • Chest pain and shortness of breath: as heart works harder to compensate for low RBC count
    • Increased bleeding and petechiae: due to thrombocytopenia
    • Recurrent infections: due to leukopenia
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83
Q

Describe the investigations for aplastic anaemia

A
  • FBC: anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, low reticulocyte count
  • Erythropoietin: may be raised to try and compensate for low RBC
  • Bleeding time: increased
  • Bone marrow biopsy: shows low counts of haematopoietic stem cells
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84
Q

Describe the management for aplastic anaemia

A
  • Removal/ treatment of causes e.g. drugs or infections
  • Transfusions
  • Stem cell transplant
  • Immunosuppressive treatment
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85
Q

What are the 4 major globin chain types

A

Haemoglobin is made up of four globin chains, each bound to a heme group.

There are four major globin chain types - alpha (α), beta (β), gamma (γ), and delta (δ).

These four globin chains combine in different ways to give rise to different kinds of haemoglobin.

Blood consists of HbA, HbA2 and HbF.

HbS is when Hb contains 2 alpha chains and 2 mutated beta chains.

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86
Q

Define sickle cell anaemia

A

Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive mutation in the beta chain of haemoglobin, resulting in sickling of red blood cells (RBCs) and haemolysis.

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87
Q

Describe the epidemiology of sickle cell anaemia

A

The prevalence of sickle cell trait in sub-Saharan Africa is the highest in the world. This may be because it is protective against malaria.

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88
Q

Describe the risk factors for sickle cell anaemia

A
  • African: 8% of black people carry the sickle cell gene
  • Family history: autosomal recessive pattern
  • Triggers of sickling: dehydration, acidosis, infection, and hypoxia
  • GENETIC
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89
Q

Why are neonates with sickle cell disease often asymptomatic for the first 4-6 months

A

Neonates with sickle cell disease are often asymptomatic for the first 4-6 months of life due to high levels of HbF (foetal haemoglobin), which is protective against sickling due to its high oxygen affinity. Over time, as HbF falls and HbS predominates, patients eventually become symptomatic.

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90
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of sickle cell anaemia

A

Under physiological stress, sickled haemoglobin (HbSS) polymerises and caused erythrocytes to deform into a sickled shape. Stressors are: hypoxia, acidosis, infection, cold temperatures, dehydration. Deformed RBCs may cause vaso-occlusion or slow the blood flow.
Repeated sickling of RBCs damages the cell membrane and promotes premature haemolysis, causing anaemia. Bone marrow and liver compensate for haemolysis by produces more RBCs, causing bone deformities and hepatomegaly

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91
Q

What are chronic symptoms of sickle cell anaemia

A
  • Pain
  • Related to anaemia: fatigue, dizziness, palpitations
  • Related to haemolysis: jaundice, and gallstones
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92
Q

What are the acute symptoms of sickle cell anaemia due sequestration crisis

A
  • RBCs sickle in the spleen, causing pooling of blood and a rapid drop in Hb and platelets
    • Abdominal painsecondary to massive splenomegaly, possibly with hypovolaemic shock
    • Autosplenectomy: repeated episodes lead to splenic infarction, fibrosis, and atrophy.
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93
Q

What are the acute symptoms of sickle cell anaemia due to aplastic crisis

A
  • Infection withparvovirus B19causes bone marrow suppression
    • Sudden onsetpallor, fatigue, and anaemia
    • Differentiated from sequestration as it usually causes anaemia withreducedreticulocyte count andno splenomegaly
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94
Q

What are the acute symptoms of sickle cell anaemia due to haemolytic crisis

A

Increased rate of intravascular and extravascular haemolysis; rare

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95
Q

What are the acute symptoms of sickle cell anaemia due to vaso-occlusive crisis

A

Painful, vaso-occlusive episodes occur as RBCs sickle in various organs

  • Bone
    • Dactylitis: inflammation of digits
    • Avascular necrosis: death of bone tissue due to a lack of blood supply
    • Osteomyelitis: most commonly due to salmonella
  • Lungs
    • Acute chest syndrome:severe and potentially life-threatening
      • Dyspnoea
      • Chest pain
      • Hypoxia
      • Pulmonary infiltrates on chest X-ray
  • Spleen
    • Autosplenectomy
    • Patients are at risk of infection from encapsulated bacteria
  • CNS
    • Stroke
  • Kidney
    • Renal papillary necrosis
  • Genitalia
    • Priapism: painful prolonged erection
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96
Q

What are the primary investigations for sickle cell anaemia

A
  • Newborn screening with Guthrie heel prick:sickle cell anaemia is one of a number of conditions screened for in all neonates in the UK at 5 days of age
  • FBC:normocytic anaemia with reticulocytosis
  • Blood film:sickled RBCs, target cells, Howell-Jolly bodies (RBC nuclear remnants seen later in the disease due to hyposplenism)
  • Hb electrophoresis and solubility: diagnosticinvestigation, demonstratingincreased HbS (2 alpha chains and 2 abnormal beta chains) and reduced/absent HbA (α2β2)
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97
Q

What are the investigations for an acute crisis for sickle cell anaemia

A
  • Bedside
    • Urinary Legionella/Pneumococcal antigen:in chest crisis
    • Sputum culture and sputum/nasopharyngeal aspirate: in chest crisis
  • Bloods
    • ABG: if SpO2 < 94%
    • FBC: normocytic anaemia, generally reticulocytosis; aplastic crisis causes reduced reticulocytes
    • U&Es and LFTs
    • G&S and crossmatch: in case of transfusion
    • Blood cultures: in all febrile patients with chest crisis
    • Serology(atypical respiratory organisms): in chest crisis
  • Imaging
    • CXRpulmonary infiltrates in chest crisis
    • Bone X-ray:if suspecting osteomyelitis or dactylitis
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98
Q

What is the acute management for sickle cell anaemia

A

Acute management depends on which type of complication has occurred.

  • Analgesia:patients often require opiates or patient-controlled analgesia
  • Hydration:dehydration precipitates sickling so it is important that patients are well hydrated
  • Oxygen:used if hypoxic or there is evidence of chest crisis
  • Antibiotics:used in chest crisis or if evidence of infection, e.g. osteomyelitis
  • Blood transfusion:in a severe crisis, a blood transfusion reduces the proportion of HbS and is often required in a chest crisis
  • Exchange transfusion: involves removal of HbS in exchange for normal Hb in a life-threatening crisis, for example, a severe chest crisis or stroke
  • Penile aspiration: in priapism
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99
Q

What is the long term management for sickle cell anaemia

A

Chronic management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing infections and sickle crises, as well as managing anaemia.

  • Pain management:regularly prescribed medications to manage chronic pain
  • Hydroxycarbamide: increases the level of HbF, which is protective against sickling and reduces the frequency of crises and blood transfusions
  • Lifelong phenoxymethylpenicillin: patients are at risk of infection from encapsulated bacteria due to hyposplenism from autosplenectomy. Lifelong penicillin V prophylaxis for patients with sickle cell disease, starting from 3 months old, is required
  • Regular vaccinations: pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years and yearly influenza
  • Blood transfusion
  • Iron chelation: to prevent iron overload from blood transfusions
  • Folic acid supplementation: offered to all patients as it raises haemoglobin levels
  • Bone marrow transplant: could be curative
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100
Q

What are the complications with sickle cell anaemia

A
  • Sickle cell crises
  • Anaemia
  • Increased risk of infection
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101
Q

What is the prognosis for sickle cell anaemia

A

Prognosis is variable. The median age at death is 40-50 for patients with sickle cell disease, with a third of patients dying during an acute crisis

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102
Q

Describe the absorption of vitamin B12

A
  • Vitamin B12, also known as cobalamin, is a complex organometallic compound found in animal and dairy products like meat, eggs or milk
  • Dairy and animal products are broken down in the stomach by pepsin, to release B12
  • Intrinsic factor, made by parietal cells, can bind to B12, and the B12-intrinsic factor complex passes into the intestines
  • When the complex reaches the terminal ileum, the enterocytes recognise intrinsic factor and absorb the whole complex
  • Inside the enterocytes, intrinsic factor gets removed and a protein called transcobalamin-II binds the free B12 and transports it into the blood and from there, to various target tissues
  • Some of the transcobalamin-B12 complex gets to the liver, where B12 can be stored for several years
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103
Q

Define B12 deficiency anaemia

A

Anaemia (low levels of Hb in the blood) caused by B12 deficiency.

This is a macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia.

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104
Q

Describe the epidemiology of B12 deficiency anaemia

A
  • Vitamin B12 is predominantly found in meat and dairy products (due to bacterial synthesis) and is not present in plants. Thus, dietary deficiency is uncommon and typically seen in strict vegans.
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency increases with age.
  • Unlike folate, vitamin B12 stores last for years before deficiency develops.
  • B12 deficiency most commonly due to pernicious anaemia
  • Pernicious anaemia: relatively common amongst Northern Europeans, with a high prevalence in those aged 60-70 years old
  • F>M
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105
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of B12 deficiency anaemia

A
  • Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is found in meats and diary products. It is an essential vitamin for DNA synthesis in cells undergoing rapid proliferation.
  • Deficiency of Vitamin B12 affects rapidly dividing cells, such as those in the bone marrow. This can lead to pancytopenia. As compensation for anaemia, the bone marrow produces abnormal precursors of RBCs - macrocytic, megaloblastic RBCs
  • Other cells that are affected include rapidly dividing mucosal epithelium cells of the tongue, causing glossitis.
  • Vitamin B12 also plays a role in keeping levels of methylmalonic acid low. This is a harmful substance that can cause neurological damage.
    • Neurological features:
      • Peripheral neuropathy
      • Subacute degeneration of the cord
      • Focal demyelination
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106
Q

What are the causes of vitamin B12 deficiency

A
  • Causes of vitamin B12deficiency include:
    • Inadequate intake(e.g. strict vegetarians, vegans)
    • Inadequate secretion of intrinsic factor(e.g. pernicious anaemia, gastrectomy)
    • Malabsorption(e.g. Crohn’s, tropical sprue, patients who have had gastric bypass)
    • Inadequate release of B12from food(e.g. gastritis, alcohol abuse)
    Pernicious anaemia (PA) refers to vitamin B12 deficiency as a result of autoimmune destruction of the gastric epithelium. This may be due to anti-parietal cell antibodies or anti-IF antibodies.Patients with PA typically develop chronic gastric inflammation, which may lead to gastric atrophy. Over time, the basal secretion of IF is severely decreased leading to the development of vitamin B12 deficiency.
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107
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of B12 deficiency anaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor
    • Signs of neurological deficit e.g. confusion, ataxia etc
  • Symptoms
    • Shortness of breath
    • Fatigue
    • Palpitations
    • Headaches
    • Glossitis
    • CNS involvement
      • Personality change
      • Depression
      • Memory loss
      • Visual disturbances
      • Numbness, weakness and paraesthesia affecting the lower extremities
      • Ataxia
      • Loss of vibration sense or proprioception
      • Autonomic dysfunction (e.g. bladder/bowel dysfunction)
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108
Q

Describe the first line investigations for B12 deficiency anaemia

A
  • Full blood count (FBC): raised MCV
  • Blood film: megaloblastic anaemia +/- hypersegmented neutrophils
  • Haematinics: look for iron, B12, folate deficiency
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): may be elevated
  • Liver function tests (LFTs)
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109
Q

What further investigations may be done for B12 deficiency anaemia

A
  • Bone marrow aspirate: megaloblastic erythropoiesis, marked erythroid hyperplasia with ineffective erythropoiesis with the development of giant metamyelocytes
  • Investigations to identify the underlying cause e.g.
    • Schilling’s test: to test for pernicious anaemia; radiolabelled B12 given and absorption measured. Later repeated with IF administration to see if B12 absorption increases
    • Serological assessment e.g. autoantibodies seen in pernicious anaemia
    • Gastroscopy
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110
Q

What is the management for B12 deficiency anaemia

A
  • Treatment of the underlying cause
  • B12 supplementation e.g. oral cyanocobalamin; intramuscular hydroxocobalamin
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111
Q

Define folate deficiency anaemia

A

Anaemia (low levels of Hb in the blood) caused by folate (vitamin B9) deficiency. This is a type of macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia.

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112
Q

Describe the epidemiology of folate deficiency anaemia

A
  • In general, megaloblastic anaemia and folate deficiency are seen most commonly in countries where malnutrition is problematic.
  • High-risk patient groups include: children, pregnant women and the elderly.
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113
Q

What are the risk factors for folate deficiency anaemia

A
  • Elderly
  • Poverty
  • Alcoholic
  • Pregnant
  • Crohn’s or coeliac disease
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114
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of folate deficiency

A
  • Folate (vitamin B9) is another important molecule which acts as a cofactor in amino acid metabolism and DNA/RNA synthesis.
  • This DNA impairment will affect all cells, but bone marrow is most affected since its the most active in terms of cell division. This means that folate deficiency can eventually lead to pancytopenia. In response to the anaemia, the bone marrow compensates by releasing megaloblasts into the blood - and the final result is macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia.
  • Other rapidly dividing cells, include mucosal epithelial cells of the tongue. These are affected, preventing healing. This leads to glossitis.
  • Folate is also essential for foetal development - deficiency can result in neural tube defects e.g. spina bifida. So supplementation is essential during pregnancy!
  • Folate is commonly found in a variety of food sources.
  • Absorption of folate occurs within the proximal part of the small intestines (e.g. duodenum & jejunum).
  • There are plenty of hepatic stores of folate (approx. 8-20 mg), but this reserve is lost rapidly from cellular metabolism and the shedding of epithelial cells. There is an estimated loss of 1-2% of stores per day. Therefore, folate deficiency can develop after months, compared to vitamin B12 deficiency, which tends to develop over years.
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115
Q

What are causes of folate deficiency

A
  • Inadequate intake
  • Malabsorption(e.g. coeliac disease, resection)
  • Increased requirements(e.g. pregnancy, malignancy disease)
  • Increased loss(e.g. Chronic liver disease)
  • Other(e.g. anti-convulsants, alcohol abuse)
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116
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of folate deficiency anaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Dyspnoea
    • Palpitations
    • Headache
    • Glossitis
    • Features of pancytopenia e.g. excessive bleeding and bruising due to thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections due to leukopenia
    • Symptoms of underlying cause e.g.
      • Coeliac disease: diarrhoea, bloating, dyspepsia and abdominal discomfort.
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117
Q

What are the primary investigations for folate deficiency anaemia

A
  • Primary investigations
    • FBC: high MCV
    • Blood film: macrocytic, megaloblastic RBC
    • Haematinics: search for iron, B12 and folate deficiencies
    • Serum and red cell folate: low
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118
Q

What other investigations might be done for folate deficiency anaemia

A

GI investigation e.g. small bowel biopsy to exclude occult GI disease

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119
Q

What is the management for folate deficiency anaemia

A
  • Treat underlying cause e.g. stopping drugs or alcohol consumption
  • Folic acid supplements: always give alongside B12, because replacement of folic acid in the presence of vitamin B12 deficiency may cause significant neurological disease.
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120
Q

Where does all of the blood end up

A

In the superior or inferior vena cava and then dumps into the right atrium. From there, the blood goes into RV is pumped into the PA and eventually oxygenated in the lungs.

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121
Q

Describe the platelet plug formation/ primary haemostasis

A

The process starts with damage to the endothelium or inner lining of blood vessel walls, after which there’s an immediate vasoconstriction or narrowing of the blood vessel, limiting the amount of blood flow.

After that, some platelets adhere to the damaged vessel wall, and become activated by collagen and tissue factor.

These platelets then recruit additional platelets forming a plug. This is called primary haemostasis.

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122
Q

Describe the coagulation cascade/ secondary haemostasis

A

After that, the coagulation cascade is activated. A set of clotting factors that are made by the liver and are inactive, get proteolytically cleaved.

This active protein begins a chain reaction, proteolytically cleaving and activates the next clotting factor and so on.

The final step is activation of the protein fibrinogen to fibrin, which deposits and polymerises to form a mesh around the platelet plug. This process is known as secondary haemostasis.

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123
Q

What clotting factors do antithrombin and protein S inactivate

A

The activation of the cascade is carefully controlled by anticoagulation proteins that target and inactivate key clotting factors. For example, antithrombin inactivates Factors IXa, Xa, XIa, XIIa, VIIa and thrombin, while protein S inactivates Factors Va and VIIIa.

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124
Q

What are D-dimers

A

As the clot grows in size, it limits the amount of blood able to pass through, increasing the pressure in that vein.

In most cases, the clot starts naturally breaking down: for example, enzymes like plasmin break down fibrin into fragments called D-dimers.

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125
Q

Define deep vein thrombosis

A

A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the leg or pelvis (as opposed to the superficial veins).

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126
Q

Describe the epidemiology of a DVT

A
  • DVT is a very common medical condition, with the incidence increasing with age.
  • 65% of below-knee DVTs are asymptomatic and these rarely embolise to the lung
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127
Q

What are the risk factors for a DVT

A
  • Age: the risk of DVT is greater after 40 years old
  • Smoking
  • Drugs: combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, tamoxifen
  • Immobility: surgery, hospitalisation, long-haul travel and bed-bound
  • Pregnancy
  • Trauma
  • Malignancy
  • Polycythaemia
  • SLE
  • Thrombophilia e.g. antiphospholipid syndrome, antithrombin deficiency, protein C or S deficiency, Factor V Leiden
  • Virchow’s triad: hypercoagulability, venous stasis, endothelial damage
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128
Q

Describe normal blood flow

A

Blood flow is normally laminar and ensures platelets and clotting factors are dispersed and not activated. Stasis disrupts this and promotes thrombus formation; immobility and polycythaemia

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129
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a DVT

A
  • Signs
    • Unilateral swelling
    • Oedema
    • Tender and erythematous
    • Distention of superficial veins
    • Phlegmasia cerulea dolens: occurs in a massive DVT, resulting in obstruction of venous and arterial outflow (rare). This leads to ischaemia and a blue and painful leg
  • Symptoms
    • Unilateral calf pain, redness and swelling
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130
Q

What is the Wells score and what are the criteria of it

A

The Wells score calculates the risk of DVT and determines how the patient is investigated and managed. Those with a score ≥ 2 are deemed high risk.

Active cancer +1
Bedridden or recent major surgery +1
Calf swelling > 3cm compared to other leg +1
Superficial veins (non-varicose) present +1
Entire leg swollen +1
Tenderness along veins +1
Pitting oedema of the affected leg +1
Immobility of affected leg e.g. plaster +1
Previous DVT +1
Alternative diagnosis likely -2

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131
Q

What examinations may be done for possible DVT

A

Examination: measure the circumference of the calf 10cm below the tibial tuberosity. More than 3cm difference between calves is significant.

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132
Q

What tests may be done if Wells score is >=2

A

Duplex ultrasound of leg within 4 hours: this is diagnostic (offer a D-dimer if the scan is negative); if an ultrasound is not possible to arrange within 4 hours:

  • Perform a D-dimerAND
  • Offer interim anticoagulation for 24 hours (ideally in a form that can be easily continued)AND
  • Arrange the ultrasound for the following day
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133
Q

What tests might be done if Wells score <=1

A

D-Dimer with a result available within 4 hours: if D-Dimer results cannot be obtained within 4 hours, offer interim anticoagulation until the result is available

  • If D-Dimer is raised: perform a duplex ultrasound within 4 hours
  • If D-Dimer is normal: a DVT is unlikely and alternative diagnoses should be considered
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134
Q

What blood tests need to be done when starting interim anticoagulation for DVT

A
  • Baseline bloods tests: FBC, U&Es, LFTs, PT and APTT
  • Donotwait for the results of baseline bloods before starting anticoagulation
  • Review and, if necessary act on, baseline blood results within 24 hours of starting interim anticoagulation
135
Q

What investigations are done for cancer for an unprovoked DVT

A
  • All patients:all patients with an unprovoked DVT should have a full history, be examined and have blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, PT and APTT)
  • Patientsdo not need further investigationunless they have signs or symptoms of cancer
136
Q

What investigations are done for thrombophilia for DVT

A

Donottest if the patient is on lifelong anticoagulation

  • Antiphospholipid antibodies:considered in people who have an unprovoked DVTandwhere there is a plan to stop anticoagulation
  • Thrombophilia screen:considered in people who have an unprovoked DVTanda first-degree relative who has had DVTandwhere there is a plan to stop anticoagulation
137
Q

What management is needed for DVT

A

Anticoagulation needed!

  • No renal impairment
    • Offer apixaban or rivaroxaban
    • If neither suitable, offerone of:
      • LMWH for at least 5 days followed by dabigatranoredoxaban
      • LMWH and warfarin for at least 5 days (or INR stable at 2.0), then warfarin alone
  • Renal impairment (estimated creatinine clearance <15 ml/min)
    • Offerone of:
      • LMWH
      • Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
      • LMWHorUFH and warfarin for at least 5 days (or INR stable at 2.0), then warfarin alone
  • Active cancer
    • Consider a DOAC (e.g. rivaroxaban)
    • Offer anticoagulation for 3 to 6 months, taking into account tumour site, drugs and bleeding risk
    • If a DOAC is not suitable, considerone of:
      • LMWH
      • LMWH and warfarin for at least 5 days (or INR stable at 2.0), then warfarin alone
  • Other
    • Inferior vena cava filters: devices inserted into the inferior vena cava designed to filter the blood and catch any blood clots traveling from the venous system towards the heart and lungs.
138
Q

What is the prevention for DVT

A
  • Compression stockings
  • Frequent calf exercises during long periods of immobilisation
  • Prophylactic anticoagulation with LMWH e.g. in patients who have had surgery and will be immobilised for a long period of time
139
Q

What are the complications for DVT

A
  • Pulmonary embolism:increased pressure in the vein can cause a part of the main clot to break free. Therefore, there is a risk of an embolism to the lungs. Pulmonary embolism can be diagnosed with a CT pulmonary angiogram or ventilation–perfusion (VQ) scan.
  • Embolic stroke: in patients with an atrial septal defect, the clot may travel to the left atria and then the left ventricle. The clot can then embolise to any part of the body, including the brain causing an embolic stroke
  • Post-thrombotic syndrome:this is a long term complication caused by chronic obstruction of venous blood, leading to venous hypertension, with pain, swelling, and ulceration
  • Increased risk of bleeding:patients on anticoagulation are at risk of bleeding
  • Phlegmasia cerulea dolens: occurs in a massive DVT, resulting in obstruction of venousandarterial outflow (rare). This leads toperipheral limb ischaemiaand a blue and painful leg
140
Q

What is the prognosis for DVT

A

Patients are at an increased risk of future venous thromboemboli, with a 30% risk of recurrence in the subsequent 5 years.

Fatality in these patients is usually either related to a subsequent pulmonary embolism or major haemorrhage as a result of anticoagulation.

141
Q

What are examples of DOACs and traditional anticoagulants

A

Traditional anticoagulants: warfarin, coumarin and heparin

Newer anticoagulants, novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) aka directly acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs): direct thrombin inhibitor (dabigatran) and factor Xa inhibitor (rivaroxaban and apixaban)

142
Q

Define acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) involves the proliferation of myeloblasts (partially developed white blood cells).

143
Q

What are the FAB subtypes

A

M0 - undifferentiated (5%)
M1 - AML with minimal maturation (15%)
M2 - AML with maturation (25%)
M3 - Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (10%)
M4 - Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia (20%)
M4 eos - Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia with eosinophilia (5%)
M5 - Acute monocytic leukaemia (5%)
M6 - Acute erythroid leukaemia (10%)
M7 - Acute megokaryoblastic leukaemia (5%)

144
Q

Describe acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3)

A
  • t(15;17)translocation involves the fusion of retinoic acid receptor (RAR) with promyelocytic protein (PML), blocking maturation of myeloblasts causing promyelocyte accumulation
  • Presents in younger patients than other subtypes; average age is 44 years old
  • Demonstrates Auer rods
  • Abnormal promyelocytes release granules which can causethrombocytopaeniaanddisseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC)
  • Good prognosis (80% cure rate)
145
Q

Describe acute monocytic leukaemia (M5)

A
  • Characterised by monoblast accumulation and usually lack Auer rods
  • Results in gum infiltration
146
Q

Describe the epidemiology of acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • It is the most common acute leukaemia in adults
  • AML is a rare malignancy, with about 3000 new cases every year in the UK
  • AML is generally a disease of older people and is uncommon before the age of 45. The average age of diagnosis is approximately 68 years old and most common in over 75s.
147
Q

Describe the risk factors of acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Increasing age: AML is generally a disease of older people and is uncommon before the age of 45. The average age of diagnosis is approximately 68 years old
  • Myelodysplastic syndromes: myelodysplasia evolves to AML in 30% of cases
  • Myeloproliferative neoplasms: e.g. polycythaemia vera or myelofibrosis
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Previous chemotherapy or radiation exposure
  • Benzene: painters, petroleum and rubber manufacturers
148
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Uncontrolled growth of the myeloid cell line in bone marrow causing proliferation of immature, non-functional white blood cells called “Blasts”. Blasts disrupt normal haematopoiesis which causes pancytopenia, a reduction in red blood cells (anaemia), white blood cells (infection) and platelets (bleeding).
Immature blast cells can enter the bloodstream and infiltrate the CNS, liver, and skin.

149
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor
    • Lymphadenopathy
    • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Loss of appetite
    • Weight loss
    • Fever
    • Bruising and mucosal bleeding: due to thrombocytopaenia
    • Recurrent infections: due to leukopaenia
    • Pain and tenderness in the bones can occur when there’s increased cell production which causes the bone marrow to expand.
    • Abdominal fullness: due to hepatosplenomegaly
    • Localised pain in lymph nodes: due to lymphadenopathy
    • Gingival swelling: swollen gums seen in acute monocytic leukaemia
150
Q

What are the primary investigations for acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • FBC:leukocytosis, thrombocytopaenia and anaemia with a low reticulocyte count. Neutropaenia may be present due to failure of myeloblasts to differentiate into functional neutrophils
  • Blood film:high proportion of blast cells seen. Myeloblasts are usually seen as large cells with nuclei containing fine chromatin and prominent nucleoli, with Auer rods (crystallised aggregates of the myeloperoxidase enzyme.)
  • Clotting screen:DIC is particularly associated with acute promyelocytic leukaemia
  • Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy:≥20% myeloblasts isdiagnostic
  • Cytogenetic and molecular studies:identify specific translocations, e.g. t(15;17) RAR-PML. These studies are also useful to identify myeloid lineage markers such as CD33
151
Q

What other investigations are done for acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): often raised in leukaemia but is not specific to leukaemia.
  • Lumbar puncturemay be used if there is central nervous system involvement.
  • Lymph node biopsycan be used to assess lymph node involvement or investigate for lymphoma.
152
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Differentials for bleeding and bruising:

  • Meningococcal septicaemia
  • Vasculitis
  • Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
  • Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
  • Non-accidental injury
153
Q

What is the management for acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Induction:

  • The aim of treatment is to induce clinical and haematological remission (< 5% blast cells)
  • Chemotherapy: combination ofcytarabineand ananthracycline, such as daunorubicin
  • All-trans retinoic acid(ATRA; tretinoin) is added in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML). ATRA binds RAR on promyelocytic cells and causes the blasts to mature into neutrophils, which eventually go on to die.

Consolidation:

  • Furtherchemotherapyis offered
  • Patients who are high risk may receivestem cell transplantation
154
Q

What are potential complications from acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:bone marrow function is disrupted as myeloblasts accumulate, whilst abnormal myeloblasts also fail to differentiate into functional neutrophils. May present with pancytopaenia requiring RBC and platelet transfusion.
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC):blood clots form throughout the body, blocking small blood vessels. Particularly associated with APML and presents with prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer
  • Extramedullary involvement:central nervous system involvement is seen in < 5% of patients
155
Q

What are complications secondary to chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:must be considered in any patient on chemotherapy presenting with a fever. Management will require broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tazocin, and isolation
  • Tumour lysis syndrome: treatment with chemotherapy causes rapid cell destruction leading to hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcaemia. This can cause seizures, arrhythmias, and renal failure.Allopurinol can be given to control uric acid levels. Other chemicals must also be monitored and treated.
  • Infections due to immunodeficiency
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Infertility
  • Secondary malignancy
  • Cardiotoxicity
156
Q

What is the prognosis for acute myeloid leukaemia

A

In general, the 5-year survival for patients with AML is 25%.

However, APML has a favourable prognosis with an 80% cure rate since the introduction of all-trans retinoic acid.

Poor prognostic factorsinclude:

  • > 60 years old
  • WCC> 100 000 at diagnosis
  • Secondary haematological pathologywhich caused AML, such as myelodysplasia
  • Specific cytogenetic abnormalities, such as deletion of chromosome 5 or 7
157
Q

Mnemonic for remembering ages for different leukaemias

A

You can use the mnemonic “ALL CeLLmates have CoMmon AMbitions” to remember the progressive ages of the different leukaemia from 45-75 in steps of 10 years.

  • Under 5 and over 45 –acutelymphoblasticleukaemia (ALL)
  • Over 55 –chroniclymphocyticleukaemia (CeLLmates)
  • Over 65 –chronicmyeloid leukaemia (CoMmon)
  • Over 75 –acutemyeloid leukaemia (AMbitions)
158
Q

Define acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) involves the proliferation of lymphoblasts, most commonly of the B cell lineage.

159
Q

What are acute lymphoblastic leukaemias classed on

A

B-cell and T-cell ALL can be classified based on the origin (B cell or T cell) and maturity of the malignant cells:

160
Q

Describe the epidemiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • ALL is the most common childhood malignancy, with 75% of cases occurring in children younger than 6 years old.
  • Bimodal age distribution: there is one peak at 4-5 years and a second peak after the age of 50
  • The most commonly affected demographic is white males.
161
Q

Describe the aetiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • t(12;21) is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in children.
  • In adults, the Philadelphia chromosome is the most common cytogenetic abnormality and describes the translocation t(9;22)
162
Q

What are the risk factors for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • Previous chemotherapy
  • Radiation exposure
  • Down syndrome: 20-fold increased risk
  • Benzene exposure: painters, petroleum, rubber manufacturers
  • Family history: there is some evidence of genetic predisposition
163
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocyte precursor cells (B or T). accumulation of lymphoblasts in bone marrow and peripheral blood. Excessive proliferation causes lymphoblasts to replace the other cell type being created in bone marrow leading to pancytopenia.
- Common chromosomal translocations include translocation of chromosome 12 and 21 and translocation of chromosome 9 and 22, also called the Philadelphia chromosome.

164
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Lymphadenopathy
    • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • Pallor
    • Flow murmur: due to anaemia
    • Parotid infilitration
    • Thymus enlargement in T-ALL: mass or growth in the mediastinum
    • Testicular swelling: due to testicular involvement
    • CNS involvement: e.g. meningism and cranial nerve palsies
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Loss of appetite
    • Weight loss
    • Easy bruising, prolonged bleeding and mucosal bleeding: due to thrombocytopaenia
    • Recurrent infections: due to neutropaenia
    • Bone pain: due to bone marrow infiltration
    • Fever
    • Failure to thrive (children)
    • Abdominal fullness: due to hepatoslenomegaly
    • Localised pain in lymph nodes: due to lymphadenopathy
165
Q

What are the primary investigations for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • FBC:lymphocytosis, thrombocytopenia and normocytic anaemia with a low reticulocyte count
  • Blood film:lymphoblasts - relatively small cells with coarse chromatin, which are clumped together and have small nucleoli. They have very little cytoplasm, which has glycogen granules.
  • Bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy:≥ 20% lymphoblasts isdiagnostic
  • Immunophenotyping:toidentify specific cell surface markers, e.g. TdT, a DNA polymerase that’s present only in the nucleus of the lymphoblast, or CD10 is indicative of B-cell ALL
  • Cytogenetic and molecular studies:can identify specific translocations, e.g. t(12;21) or t(9;22)
166
Q

What other investigations may be considered for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) often raised in leukaemia but is not specific to leukaemia.
  • Chest X-ray:may be used to identify a mediastinal mass, e.g. thymus mass
  • Lumbar puncture:may be indicated to identify CNS involvement
  • Lymph node biopsycan be used to assess lymph node involvement or investigate for lymphoma.
  • CT,MRIandPETscans can be used for staging and assessing for lymphoma and other tumours.
167
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Differential diagnosis for bleeding and bruising:

  • Meningococcal septicaemia
  • Vasculitis
  • Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
  • Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
  • Non-accidental injury
168
Q

What is the 1st line management for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Pre-phase:

  • 5 - 7 daysof treatment shortly after diagnosis
  • Treat withcorticosteroids, with or without an additionalchemotherapyagent

Induction:

  • 4 - 8 weektherapy, e.g.corticosteroids,vincristineordoxorubicin(chemotherapy)
  • Imatinibcan be used in addition if Philadelphia chromosome-positive
  • Intrathecal therapy (administration into CSF) can be used if there is CNS involvement
  • The aim of treatment is to induce remission, defined as < 5% blast cells in bone marrow

Consolidation:

  • Up to1 yearof high-dosechemotherapy, which is startedaftercomplete remission
  • The aim of treatment is to eliminate clinically undetectable residual leukaemia, hence preventing relapse

Maintenance:

  • 2 yearsofmercaptopurineandmethotrexatetherapy
  • The aim of treatment is to eliminate minimal residual disease (leukemic cells not present on microscopy but cell surface markers still present)
169
Q

What is the 2nd line management for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Bone marrow transplantation: may be used as consolidation therapy in people at high risk of relapse, or for treating relapse when it occurs

170
Q

What are complications secondary to chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:must be considered in any patient on chemotherapy presenting with a fever. Management will require broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tazocin, and isolation
  • Tumour lysis syndrome: treatment with chemotherapy causes rapid cell destruction leading to hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcaemia. This can cause seizures, arrhythmias, and renal failureAllopurinol can be given to control uric acid levels. Other chemicals must also be monitored and treated.
  • Stunted growth and development in children
  • Infections due to immunodeficiency
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Infertility
  • Secondary malignancy
  • Cardiotoxicity
171
Q

What is the prognosis for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Prognosis is dependent on age. 5-year survival in children is generally >90%.

Poor prognostic factorsinclude:

  • Age< 1 year or >10 years
  • WBC> 30x10^9 at diagnosis
  • t(9;22)
  • Presence ofextramedullarydisease, such as CNS involvement
172
Q

Define chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) involves the proliferation of partially mature myeloid cells, in particular granulocytes, within the bone marrow and blood.

173
Q

What are the classifications of the different phases for chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Chronic phase - lasts many years and may be asymptomatic or with non-specific symptoms, such as fever, weight loss and splenomegaly. Has a cell count of less than 10% blast cells.

Accelerated phase - further progression of the disease with 10-19% blast cells and >20% basophils

Blast crisis - terminal phase and mimics acute leukaemia. Subtypes: myeloid blast crisis (2/3) or lymphoid blast crisis (1/3) with >20% blast cells

174
Q

Describe the epidemiology of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  • CML is generally considered a condition of the elderly, with a peak age of diagnosis between 65 and 74 years
  • Slight male predominance
175
Q

What are risk factors for chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Male gender
  • Radiation exposure
176
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Uncontrolled growth of myeloid cells interferes with production of normal blood cells in the bone marrow. Abnormal myeloid cells spill out of bone marrow into peripheral blood, causing abnormally high levels of granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils)
Translocation 9:22 – Philadelphia chromosome. BCR-ABL gene fusion acts as a tyrosine kinase and speeds up cell division. It also inhibits DNA repair.

177
Q

Describe the progression of chronic myeloid leukaemia to a blast crisis

A
  • As the CML cells divide quicker than they should, there’s a high chance that further genetic mutations can happen!
  • If this occurs, CML might progress and accelerate into a more serious acute leukaemia which is called a blast crisis.
  • A lot of cases of these blast crises include the formation of a trisomy on chromosome number 8, or the doubling of the Philadelphia chromosome.
178
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • Abdominal tenderness
    • Pallor
    • Pyrexia
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Weight loss
    • Fever
    • Night sweats
    • Shortness of breath
    • Easy bruising and bleeding, e.g. epistaxis: due to thrombocytopenia
    • Recurrent infections: due to leukopenia
    • Bone pain: due to marrow expansion
    • Abdominal fullness: due to hepatosplenomegaly
179
Q

Describe the investigations for chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  • FBC:leukocytosis, granulocytosis, anaemia with a reduced reticulocyte count, and reduced leukocyte ALP may be seen. Thrombocytosis is found in 30% of patients.
  • Blood film:anincrease in all stages of maturing granulocytes. Precise findings depend on the disease phase (e.g. blast transformation)
  • Bone marrow biopsy:myeloblast infiltration in the bone marrow
  • Cytogenetic and molecular studies:Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)(q34;q11)
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) often raised in leukaemia but is not specific to leukaemia.
180
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Differential diagnosis of bleeding and bruising:

  • Meningococcal septicaemia- Vasculitis
  • Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
  • Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
  • Non-accidental injury
181
Q

Describe the management for the phases of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Chronic or accelerated phase:

  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitor:imatinib is generally considered first-line
    • Hydroxyurea may be used prior to confirmation of the BCR–ABL1 fusion, following which patients are then switched to a tyrosine kinase inhibitor!
  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitormay be combined withinterferon-alphaif required
  • High dose inductionchemotherapyandallogeneicstem cell transplantationif the above fails

Blast phase:

  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitorplushigh dose inductionchemotherapy, followed bystem cell transplantation
  • Patients may have pancytopaenia requiring blood and platelet transfusion
  • If remission is not achieved through the above measures, death is imminent
182
Q

What are the complications secondary to chemotherapy for chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:must be considered in any patient on chemotherapy presenting with a fever. Management will require broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tazocin, and isolation
  • Gout:an increased turnover of cells results in the release of uric acid which can deposit in joints as urate crystals
  • Tumour lysis syndrome: treatment with chemotherapy causes rapid cell destruction leading to hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcaemia. This can cause seizures, arrhythmias, and renal failureAllopurinol can be given to control uric acid levels. Other chemicals must also be monitored and treated.
  • Infections due to immunodeficiency
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Infertility
  • Secondary malignancy
  • Cardiotoxicity
183
Q

What are complications secondary to chronic myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:lymphoblasts invade the bone marrow, disrupting function.
  • Predisposition to infection
  • Blast crisis:conversion to acute leukaemia and seen in the terminal phase of CML. May result in pancytopaenia
184
Q

What is the prognosis for chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

CML has a good prognosis due to the introduction of targeted tyrosine kinase inhibitors, with a 75% 5-year survival rate.

Patients respond particularly well to imatinib during the chronic phase. Prognosis is poorer with accelerated and blast phases.

185
Q

Define chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) describes the neoplastic proliferation of mature B lymphocytes.

186
Q

Describe the epidemiology of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • CLL is the most common adult leukaemia
  • In the UK, there are approximately 3800 diagnoses each year
  • Median age at diagnosis is 70
  • M>F
187
Q

What are risk factors for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • Age:median age at diagnosis is 70
  • Family History
  • Male sex:twice as common in men
  • White
  • Imunnocompromised
  • Pneumonia
188
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

Pathophysiology Uncontrolled proliferation and accumulation of mature B lymphocytes which have escaped apoptosis. Lymphocytes accumulate in bone marrow and then spread to lymphoid tissues causing hepatosplenomegaly. Abnormal haemolysis can occur causing anaemia

189
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • Signs
    • Lymphadenopathy
    • Hepatosplenomegaly: neoplastic cells invade the liver and spleen
    • Pallor
  • Symptoms
    • Fatigue
    • Loss of appetite
    • Weight loss
    • Fever
    • Easy bruising and bleeding: due to thrombocytopaenia
    • Recurrent infections: due to hypogammaglobulinaemia
    • Abdominal fullness: due to hepatosplenomegaly
    • Localised pain at lymph nodes: due to lymphadenopathy
190
Q

What are the primary investigations for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • FBC:lymphocytosis
    • Thrombocytopaenia and anaemia may also be seen as leukaemic cells infiltrate the bone marrow
  • Blood film:increased number of premature lymphocytes and smudge cells (immature B cells that have broken during the smear).
  • Immunophenotype:CD5, CD19, CD20, CD23
    -Immunoglobulins:hypogammaglobulinemia
  • Genetic analysis:identify chromosomal deletions, e.g. del 17p, which helps guide treatment
191
Q

What are other investigations to consider for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • Bone marrow biopsy:increased number of mature lymphocytes and few immature cells. Not necessary for a diagnosis
  • Lymph node biopsy:conduct if lymphadenopathy is present
  • Chest x-ray may show infection or mediastinal lymphadenopathy
  • CT, MRI and PET scans can be used for staging and assessing for lymphoma and other tumours
  • Coombs’ test:also known as the direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Conducted if an autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is suspected
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) often raised in leukaemia but is not specific to leukaemia
192
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

Differential diagnosis of bleeding and bruising:

  • Meningococcal septicaemia
  • Vasculitis
  • Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
  • Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
  • Non-accidental injury
193
Q

What is the management for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • Early-stage disease
    • Monitor:blood counts and clinical examinations carried out every 3-12 months
      • Evidence shows chemotherapy in early-stage disease does not confer a survival advantage
  • Active and/or advanced diseaseThe management is dependent on chemotherapeutic agents and some regimes are listed below:
    • FCR:fludarabine, cyclophosphamide and rituximab are used in patients with good performance status
    • Chlorambucil and rituximab:used in patients with poor performance status
    • Other chemotherapeutic agents:tyrosine kinase inhibitors, such as ibrutinib, are considered in those with del(17p)
    • Allogenic stem cell transplant:considered in a specific subset of patients with a good performance status
194
Q

What are complications secondary to chemotherapy for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

Complications secondary to chemotherapy:

  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:lower risk compared to acute leukaemias
  • Gout:an increased turnover of cells results in the release of uric acid which can deposit in joints as urate crystals. Lower risk compared to acute leukaemias
  • Tumour lysis syndrome: lower risk compared to acute leukaemias
  • Infections due to immunodeficiency
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Infertility
  • Secondary malignancy
  • Cardiotoxicity
195
Q

What are complications secondary to chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A
  • Hypogammaglobulinaemia:dysfunctional neoplastic B cells exhibit impaired immunoglobulin production
  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia:occurs in up to 25% of patientsand most typically is of the warm subtype
    • The mechanism is thought to involve neoplastic cells inducing normal B cells to release autoantibodies
  • Richter transformation:transformation into a non-Hodgkin lymphoma, most commonly a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Presents with rapidly progressing lymphadenopathy, B-symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss), and a raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
196
Q

What is the prognosis for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

5-year survival is 70-75% and early-stage disease is associated with a median survival of over 10 years.

However, Richter transformation occurs in 2-8% of cases and is associated with a poor prognosis.

197
Q

Describe the development and activation of B cells

A

B- cell development begins in the bone marrow, which is a primary lymphoid organ.

Here, young precursor B-cells mature into naive B-cells

The naive B-cells then leave the bone marrow and circulate in the blood and eventually settle down in lymph nodes (secondary lymphoid organs).

Each lymph node has B-cells which group together in follicles in the cortex or outer part of the lymph node, along with T-cells in the paracortex just below the cortex.

B-cells differentiate into plasma cells, which are found in the medulla or centre of the lymph nodes. Plasma cells release antibodies or immunoglobulins.

Antibodies bind to pathogens to help destroy or remove them.

Various immune cells, including B-cells have surface proteinse.g. CD19 or CD21.

A B-cellis activated when it encounters an antigen that binds to its surface immunoglobulin.

Some of these activated B-cells mature directly into plasma cells and produce IgM antibodies.

Other activated B-cells go to the centre of a primary follicle in the lymph node and they differentiate into B-cells called centroblasts and start to quickly proliferate or divide.

These proliferating centroblasts form a germinal center, located in the center of the follicle of the lymph node.

These centroblasts have a rearrangement of their immunoglobulin genes, and some of them undergo a class switch where they change from producing IgM antibodies to producing IgG or IgA antibodies.

Within the germinal center, centroblasts mature into centrocytes; and the centrocytes that make antibody with high affinity for the antigen, differentiate into either plasma cells which go to the medulla of the lymph node, or memory B-cellswhich circulate in the blood and reside in lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, also called MALT.

198
Q

Define hodgkin lymphoma

A

Lymphoma is a lymphoproliferative disorder (specifically B-cells) which can be divided into Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma. The differentiating factor between the two is the presence of pathognomonic Reed-Sternberg cells in Hodgkin lymphoma

199
Q

Describe the epidemiology of hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • HL is a rare malignancy.
  • In the UK, there were 2107 new cases of HL between 2015 and 2017, accounting for < 1% of total cancer cases.
  • Bimodal age distribution: 15-35 years and > 60 years
  • M>F
200
Q

What are the risk factors for hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • Bimodal age distribution: 15-35 years and > 60 years
  • EBV infection: mixed cellularity subtype
  • HIV infection:lymphocyte-deplete subtype
  • Autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and sarcoidosis
  • Family history
201
Q

What is the difference between hodgkin and non-hodgkin lymphomas

A

The difference between Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is the presence of pathognomonic Reed-Sternberg cells in Hodgkin lymphoma. These are large B cells with prominent ‘owl’s eye nuclei’ which secrete inflammatory cytokines and attract reactive inflammatory cells, resulting in ‘B symptoms’.

202
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Hodgkin lymphomas

A

Mutation of B lymphocytes leading to the presence of large, multi-nucleated giant cells called Reed-Sternberg cells and large mono-nucleated cells called malignant Hodgkin cells.

203
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • Lymphadenopathy (may be cervical, axillary, or inguinal)
    • Painless
    • Hard
    • Rubbery
    • Fixed
    • Contiguous spread (to nearby nodes) unlike in NHL
  • Splenomegaly: rarer compared to NHL
  • Symptoms
    • B symptoms: occur in around 30% of cases
      • Fever
      • Weight loss
      • Night sweats
    • Pel-Ebstein fever: an intermittent fever every few weeks
    • Alcohol-induced lymph node pain
    • Pruritus
    • Dyspnoea: due to mediastinal lymphadenopathy
204
Q

What are the investigations for Hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • FBC:may demonstrate leukocytosis but can also present with pancytopaenia if the bone marrow is involved
  • LDH: often elevated and may be used to monitor treatment response and recurrence
  • Ultrasound of lymph nodes:aninitial ultrasound of the lymph node region will indicate whether there are any concerning features of malignancy
  • Excisional lymph node biopsy:this isdiagnosticand will show the presence of multinucleated Reed-Sternberg cells (Owl’s eye nuclei), indicating HL. The exact histological pattern depends on the subtype.
  • Staging imaging:chest X-ray, CT neck, chest and abdomen, and PET scan are all conducted to evaluate the extent of the disease
  • Immunophenotyping:Reed-Sternberg cell is CD15 and CD30 positive, in classical HL.
205
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for Hodkin’s lymphoma

A

Lymph node biopsy (Reed-Sternberg cells – multi-nucleated giant cells with an owl face appearance)

206
Q

What is the Ann Arbor staging for Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Stage 1 - involvement of a single lymph node region

Stage 2 - involvement of 2 or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm

Stage 3 - involvement of lymph node regions or structures on both sides of the diaphragm

Stage 4 - diffuse involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs

207
Q

What is the management for Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Depends on stage, severity, age etc

  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiotherapy: usually administered after completing a number of cycles of chemotherapy
  • Rituximab: monoclonal antibody targets CD20 on lymphocytes and is used in CD20+ lymphoma, i.e. nodular lymphocyte-predominant HL (atypical). It is often used alongside chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy
208
Q

What are the complications associated with Hodgkin lymphoma and the chemotherapy treatment

A

Complications secondary to chemotherapy:

  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:must be considered in any patient on chemotherapy presenting with a fever. Management will require broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tazocin, and isolation
  • Tumour lysis syndrome: treatment with chemotherapy causes rapid cell destruction leading to hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcaemia. This can cause seizures, arrhythmias, and renal failure

Complications secondary to HL:

  • Impaired immunity:impaired cell-mediated immunity due to dysfunctional lymphoid tissue means that patients are prone to recurrent infections
209
Q

What is the prognosis for Hodgkin lymphoma

A

The prognosis is dependent on the stage and histological subtype. Early-stage disease has a 5-year survival of 90%. However, in advanced disease, this reduces to 75%.

Lymphocyte-rich HLhas the best prognosis, whilstlymphocyte-depleted HLis associated with the poorest prognosis.

Other poor prognostic factorsinclude age over 45 years, male gender, stage IV disease, Hb <10.5 g/dL, WCC >15,000/µl, lymphocyte count < 600/µl or < 8%, and albumin <40 g/L

210
Q

Describe the development of T cells

A

T-cell development starts in the thymus from precursors that arise in the bone marrow.

In the thymus, these precursor T-cells mature and express either CD4 on helper T-cells or CD8 on cytotoxic T-cells.

Mature T-cells circulate in the blood and are found in the paracortex of the lymph nodes.

211
Q

Define Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Lymphoma is a lymphoproliferative disorder (B and T-cells) which can be divided into Hodgkin (HL) and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). The differentiating factor between the two is the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells found in Hodgkins Lymphoma.

Lymphoma differs from leukaemia in that neoplastic cells predominantly involve the lymph nodes and extranodal sites, unlike leukaemia which predominantly involves the bone marrow and blood.

212
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Non-Hodgkin lymphomas

A
  • NHL is far more common than HL
  • Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is the most common haematological malignancy overall
  • B-cell lymphomas are more common than T-cell lymphomas
213
Q

What are risk factors for Non-Hodgkin lymphomas

A
  • Age:>50 years
  • Male
  • Family history
  • Infection: HIV, HTLV-1, EBV, H.pylori, Hep B and C
  • Autoimmunity:Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Sjogren’s syndrome are implicated in marginal zone lymphoma
  • Immunodeficiency:HIV as well as hereditary immunodeficiency syndromes, e.g. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
  • Exposure to pesticides and a specific chemical called trichloroethylene used in several industrial processes
214
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • In non-Hodgkin lymphoma, there is usually a genetic mutation in a lymphocyte - either a B- or a T-cell. Instead of undergoing apoptosis, they divide uncontrollably becoming a neoplastic cell.
  • Lymphomas are cancers of lymphocytes in the lymphatic system, causing proliferation of lymphocytes in lymph nodes. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a specific disease. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is all the other lymphomas (no Reed-Sternberg cells).
215
Q

How can Non-Hodgkin lymphomas be subdivided

A

By cell types (proliferation of B cells, T cells or NK cells) and grade (high or low)

216
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of NHL

A
  • Signs
    • Lymphadenopathy
      • Painless
      • Hard
      • Rubbery
      • Fixed
      • Non-contiguous spread unlike in HL
    • Splenomegaly: more common in NHL compared to HL
    • Extranodal disease: bone marrow, thyroid, salivary gland, GI tract, CNS
  • Symptoms
    • B symptoms:
      • Fever
      • Weight loss
      • Night sweats
    • Related to extranodal involvement:
      • GI tract: bowel obstruction
      • Bone marrow: fatigue, easy bruising, or recurrent infections
      • Spinal cord: weakness and a loss of sensation - usually in the legs
217
Q

What are the primary investigations for NHL

A
  • FBC:may demonstrate leukocytosis but can also present with pancytopenia if the bone marrow is involved
  • Blood film:certain lymphomas, such as hairy cell leukaemia, are associated with a characteristic blood film finding
  • LDH and uric acid: often elevated and used as prognostic markers
  • Ultrasound of lymph nodes:aninitial ultrasound of the affected lymph nodes will indicate whether there are any concerning features of malignancy e.g. disruption of normal morphology
  • Excisional lymph node biopsy:this isdiagnosticand will show distorted lymph node architecture
  • Skin biopsy:useful if a T-cell lymphoma is suspected
  • Bone marrow biopsy:useful in staging disease
218
Q

What other investigations may be considered in NHL

A
  • Staging imaging:CT neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis and/or PET-CT are usually the methods of choice
  • Genetic testing:assess for chromosomal translocations
  • Immunophenotype:determine if the neoplasm is from the B cell or T cell lineage through assessing cell surface markers
219
Q

Describe the management for NHL

A

Dependent on staging, severity, age etc

  • Chemotherapy e.g. RCHOP, R-CVP, RCODOX-M
  • Radiotherapy
  • Rituximab: monoclonal antibody targets CD20 on lymphocytes and is used in CD20+ lymphoma
  • Stem cell transplant
  • Antibiotics, if any infection e.g. H.pylori eradication in gastric MALToma
220
Q

What complications are associated with NHL and the chemotherapy to treat it

A

Complications secondary to chemotherapy:

  • Myelosuppression and neutropenic sepsis:must be considered in any patient on chemotherapy presenting with a fever. Management will require broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tazocin, and isolation
  • Tumour lysis syndrome: treatment with chemotherapy causes rapid cell destruction leading to hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcaemia. This can cause seizures, arrhythmias, and renal failure

Complications secondary to NHL:

  • Impaired immunity:impaired cell-mediated immunity due to dysfunctional lymphoid tissue means that patients are prone to recurrent infections
221
Q

What is the prognosis for NHL

A

The prognosis depends on the subtype of NHL.

Overall 5-year survival is approximately 70%.

In general, high-grade lymphomas are curable, unlike low-grade lymphomas. However, high-grade lymphomas are more aggressive as cells divide quickly.

Poor prognostic factors include:

  • Age >60 years
  • Stage III or IV
  • Extranodal disease
  • Poor performance status
  • High LDH
222
Q

Define multiple myeloma

A

Myeloma describes the malignant monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, resulting in the production of various types of monoclonal proteins, most commonly immunoglobulins (usually IgG and IgA) and free light chains.

Multiple myeloma is where the myeloma affects multiple areas of the body.

223
Q

Describe the epidemiology of multiple myeloma

A
  • The median age of diagnosis is 72 years in Europe
  • More common in Afro-Caribbeans than caucasians
224
Q

What are risk factors for multiple myelomas

A
  • Increasing age: the incidence rises steeply from around age 65 to 69
  • Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS): a pre-malignant, asymptomatic, plasma cell disorder characterised by an excess of monoclonal protein. The risk of progressing to myeloma is 1% per year.
  • Smouldering myeloma: progression of MGUS with higher levels of antibodies or antibody components. More likely to progress to myeloma than MGUS
  • Family history
  • Male
  • Black African ethnicity
  • Radiation exposure
225
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma

A

There is an excess of plasma cell formation during haematopoiesis. This also leads to the formation of abnormal antibodies (only consisting of light chains rather than a light and heavy chain). These are known as paraproteins.

Myeloma differs from leukaemias and lymphomas as the malignant cell in myeloma is the plasma cell, rather than the lymphoblast. Furthermore, in myeloma, light chains can form amyloid proteins, resulting inamyloidosis.

The pathogenesis underlying the symptoms can be remembered with the mnemonic,CRAB:

  • Calcium:hypercalcaemia is caused by neoplastic cells releasing cytokines (e.g. IL-1), causing activation of osteoclasts via the RANK receptor. There is also osteoblastic suppression from stromal cells. This leads to bone resorption, resulting in bone pain and lytic lesions on imaging
  • Renal insufficiency:this is caused by the deposition of light chains (Bence Jones proteins) in the kidney tubules disrupting renal function. Additionally, nephrocalcinosis (calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma) also causes renal failure
  • Anaemia:bone marrow infiltration by plasma cells results in reduced haematopoiesis and subsequent anaemia, as well as thrombocytopaenia and leukopaenia
  • Bone lesions:bone lesions, fractures and pain are caused by osteoclast activation and osteoblastic suppression which leads to bone breakdown. Common places for myeloma bone disease to happen are the skull, spine, long bones and ribs.
226
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of multiple myeloma

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor: due to anaemia
    • Signs due toamyloidosis:
      • Macroglossia
      • Carpal tunnel syndrome: Tinel’s and Phalen’s sign positive
      • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Symptoms
    • Related tohypercalcaemia:
      • Bones: bony pain with back pain being common
      • Stones: renal stones and renal colic
      • Abdominal groans: abdominal pain and constipation
      • Thrones: urinary frequency
      • Psychiatric overtones: confusion, depression, psychosis
    • Related to anaemia:
      • Fatigue
    • Related tothrombocytopaenia:
      • Bleeding and bruising
    • Related to areduction in normal immunoglobulins:
      • Recurrent infections
227
Q

What are the investigations for multiple myeloma

A
  • Urine electrophoresis:Bence-Jones proteins, which are immunoglobulin (monoclonal) light chains
  • Serum electrophoresis:paraprotein band, or ‘M’ spike (usually IgG or IgA)
  • Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy:≥ 10% plasma cell infiltration.
  • FBC and blood film:anaemia due to disrupted erythropoiesis.
  • U&Es:renal failure
  • Bone profile:hypercalcaemia and raised ALP
  • Beta-2-microglobulin:a higher concentration is associated with poorer prognosis
  • Imaging: conducted to ascertain bone marrow infiltrative lesions
    • Whole-body MRI:first-line imaging; CT is second-line
    • Skeletal survey (whole-body X-ray): used historically, but less frequently now
    • X-rays: ‘raindrop skull’ due to lytic lesions is a characteristic finding; it differs subtly from ‘pepperpot’ skull seen in hyperparathyroidism
228
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeoloma

A

Bone marrow plasma cells ≥ 10% (or biopsy-proven bony / extramedullary plasmacytoma) AND a myeloma-defining event

Myeloma defining event:
one or more biomarkers
- bone marrow plasma cells >=60%
- >1 focal lesion on MRI
- Involved:uninvolved serum free light chain ratio >=100

OR

evidence of end-organ damage: CRAB
- hypercalcaemia
- renal insufficiency
- anaemia
- bone lesions

229
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for multiple myeloma

A
  • MGUS
  • Smouldering myeloma
  • Solitary plasmacytoma
  • Amyloidosis
230
Q

What is the management for multiple myeloma

A

1st line – chemotherapy with thalidomide and dexamethasone bortezomib. Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis while on chemo.
Stem cell transplant. Myeloma bone disease – bisphosphonates to suppress osteoclast activity, analgesics, radiotherapy

231
Q

What are potential complications with multiple myelomas

A
  • Myelosuppression and neutropaenic sepsis:must be considered in any patient on chemotherapy presenting with a fever. Management will require broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tazocin, and isolation
  • Recurrent infections:due to dysfunctional plasma cells; offer annual influenza vaccination and consider offering pneumococcal vaccination to under 65s. IVIg may be required
  • Pancytopenia:due to bone marrow infiltration
  • Fatigue: may require erythropoietin analogues in symptomatic anaemia
  • AL amyloidosis:can have a multitude of effects including renal failure, carpal tunnel syndrome, peripheral neuropathy, or cardiomyopathy (dilated or restrictive)
  • Plasmacytoma: individual tumours made up of the cancerous plasma cells
  • Pathological fracture:a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, particularly vertebral fractures due to osteolytic lesions; prevented with zoledronate
  • Renal failure
  • Hyperviscosity:headaches, neurological symptoms, VTE, easy bruising and bleeding, loss of sight due to vascular disease in the eye, heart failure
  • Chronic pain: requires analgesia as per WHO analgesic ladder and NICE guidance
232
Q

Describe the prognosis of multiple myeloma

A

Myeloma is an incurable disease and patients inevitably relapse a few years post-treatment.

Poor prognostic factors:

  • Raised LDH
  • Raised beta-2-microglobulin
  • Reduced albumin
  • Specific chromosomal abnormalities, e.g. del(17p)
233
Q

Describe how a person may get malaria

A
  • Malaria begins when a plasmodium-infected female Anopheles mosquito hunts for a blood meal.
  • At this point, the Plasmodium is in a stage of development called a sporozoite, in the mosquito’s salivary gland.
  • When the mosquito pierces a person’s skin with its proboscis, the sporozoites spill out of the mosquito’s saliva and make it into the bloodstream.
234
Q

Define malaria

A

Malaria is a parasitic infection caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium.

235
Q

Describe the epidemiology of malaria

A
  • Malaria is a serious global health problem that affects millions of people, particularly:
    • Young children under the age of 5
    • Pregnant women
    • Patients with other health conditions like HIV and AIDS
    • Travellers who have had no prior exposure to malaria
  • Prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions e.g. latin america, sub-saharan africa, south asia, and southeast asia.
  • Certain conditions e.g. sickle cell anaemia, thalassaemia and G6PD deficiency are thought to be protective against malaria
  • The most severe and dangerous member of the family is Plasmodium falciparum. This accounts for about 75% of the cases of malaria in the UK.
236
Q

Describe the aetiology of malaria

A
  • Protozoa of the plasmodium genus:
    • Plasmodium falciparum
    • Plasmodium vivax
    • Plasmodium malariae
    • Plasmodium ovale
    • Plasmodium knowlesi
237
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of malaria

A

Malaria is spread through bites from the female Anopheles mosquitoes that carry the disease.

Once the plasmodium gets into the bloodstream, it starts to infect and destroy mainly liver cells and red blood cells, which causes a variety of symptoms and sometimes even death.

Malaria takes a blood meal, infected blood is taken up by mosquito and transformed to sporozoites in the gut. Mosquito bites another human and injects sporozoites. Sporozoites travel to the liver of the newly infected person. They can lie dormant for several years as hypnozoites in p. vivax and p. ovale.
The mature in the liver to merozoites which enter the blood and infect RBCs. Merozoites > trophozoites >schizont. RBCs rupture causing haemolytic anaemia and systemic infection.

238
Q

Describe how plasmodium falciparum differs from other forms of malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparumis known for causing the worst infections.

Most plasmodium-infected red blood cells get screened and destroyed by the spleen.

Plasmodium falciparum avoids this fate by generating a sticky protein that coats the surface of the infected red blood cells.

The protein causes the red blood cells to clump together and occlude tiny blood vessels - a process called cytoadherence.

This blocks the flow of blood so that infected cells aren’t able to flow into the spleen, and it also blocks blood flow from reaching other vital organs which can cause ischaemia. This can eventually lead to organ failure (refer to complications).

This is known as complicated malaria.

239
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of malaria

A
  • Signs
    • Pallor: due to anaemia
    • Jaundice: due to unconjugated bilirubin from destruction of RBCs
    • Hepatosplenomegaly: due to compensation for anaemia
  • Symptoms
    • Fever, sweats and rigors (occurs in spikes)
    • Fatigue: due to anaemia
    • Headaches
    • Myalgia
    • Vomiting
240
Q

Describe the investigations for malaria

A
  • FBC, U&E, LFT: thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate dehydrogenase levels due to haemolysis, and normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  • Malaria blood film: will show the parasites, the concentration and also what type they are.
241
Q

Describe the management for both uncomplicated and complicated malaria

A

Non-falciparum = chloroquine
Falciparum: non-complicated = chloroquine/hydroxychloroquine. Complicated = artesunate, quinine sulfate

242
Q

Describe the prevention methods for malaria

A
  • Full body clothing
  • Mosquito repellent
  • Sleeping in insecticide covered mosquito nets
  • Indoor insecticide sprays
  • Clean water
  • Use antimalarials e.g. malarone, mefloquine, doxycycline
243
Q

Describe the complications with malaria

A
  • Complicated malaria due to plasmodium falciparum:
    • Cerebral malaria: altered mental status, seizures and coma
    • Bilious malaria: diarrhoea, vomiting, jaundice and liver failure
    • Acute kidney injury
    • Pulmonary oedema
    • Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
    • Severe haemolytic anaemia
    • Multi-organ failure and death
244
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for malaria

A

Zika virus, yellow fever, COVID-19

245
Q

Describe the aetiology for polycythaemia

A

Primary polycythaemia – polycythaemia vera caused by JAK2 mutation.
Secondary – caused by hypoxia, increased erythropoietin, dehydration (alcohol)

246
Q

Define polycythaemia vera

A

Proliferation of the erythrocyte cell line. Increase in RBC count and haematocrit

247
Q

Describe the epidemiology of polycythaemia vera

A
  • The peak incidence of PCV is 50-70 years old
  • It is slightly more common in men
248
Q

What is the criteria for JAK2 +ve polycythaemia vera

A

Requires both criteria:

A1: raised haematocrit (>0.52 in men or >0.48 in women) OR raised red cell mass (>25% above predicted).

A2: Mutation in JAK2

249
Q

What is JAK2

A

A non-receptor tyrosine kinase that is involved in the control of cellular growth and proliferation.

250
Q

What are risk factors for polycythaemia vera

A
  • Age > 40 years
  • Family history
  • JAK2 mutation
251
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of polycythaemia vera

A

Normally, kidneys produce erythropoietin which activates JAK2 gene on haematopoietic stem cells, causing cell to divide and produce more RBCs. mutation in JAK2 gene means it is always activated so it produces more RBCs without erythropoietin.

252
Q

Describe the key presentations for polycythaemia

A

Conjunctival plethora (excessive redness of conjunctiva), splenomegaly, “ruddy” complexion (like sunburn), itching skin especially after warm water, erythromelalgia (burning sensation in fingers and toes)

253
Q

What are the clinical manifestations for polycythaemia vera

A

Signs: Prone to clotting (stroke, MI, DVT), blurred visions
Symptoms: Fatigue, dizziness, sweating, headache

254
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for polycythaemia

A

Genetic testing (JAK2 mutation)

255
Q

Describe the first line investigations to consider for polycythaemia vera

A

FBC (raised Hb, haematocrit, WCC, platelets), low erythropoietin

256
Q

What is the management for polycythaemia vera

A

1st line – venesection/phlebotomy (removes blood to keep Hb in a normal range)
Myelosuppressive medication – hydroxycarbamide/hydroxyurea or JAK2 inhibitor. Aspirin to prevent clotting.

257
Q

What are complications of polycythaemia vera

A

Risk of clotting (stroke, MI, PE, Budd Chiara – liver clot), progression to acute myeloid leukaemia

258
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for polycythaemia

A

Secondary polycythaemia to hypoxia, alcohol, erythropoietin

259
Q

Describe what happens following endothelium damage

A
  • After damage to the endothelium, there’s an immediate vasoconstriction which limits the amount of blood flow.
  • After that some platelets adhere to the damaged vessel wall, and become activated and then recruit additional plateletsto form a plug. This is known as primary haemostasis.
  • After that, the coagulation cascadeis activated. There are a set of clotting factors, most of which are proteins synthesised by the liver, and usually these are inactive. The coagulation cascade starts when one of these proteins gets proteolytically cleaved.
  • This active protein then proteolytically cleaves and activates the next clotting factor, and so on.
  • The final step is activation of the protein fibrinogen to fibrin, which deposits and polymerises to form a mesh around the platelets. This is known as secondary haemostasis.
  • The coagulation cascade is started in one of two ways:
    • The extrinsic pathway: starts when tissue factor gets exposed by the injury of the endothelium.
    • The intrinsic pathway: starts when platelets near the blood vessel injury activate factor XII into factor XIIa
260
Q

Define haemophilia

A

Haemophilia A and haemophilia B are inherited severe bleeding disorders.

261
Q

Describe the epidemiology of haemophilia

A

Almost exclusively affects males (X-linked recessive)

262
Q

Describe the aetiology of haemophilia

A
  • Inherited
  • Acquired:
    • Liver failure
    • Vitamin K deficiency
    • Autoimmunity against a clotting factor
    • Disseminated intravascular coagulation
263
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of haemophilia

A

In most cases of haemophilia there is a decrease in the amount or function of one or more of the clotting factors which makes secondary haemostasis less effective and allows more bleeding to happen.

Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in factor VIII.

Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is caused by a deficiency in factor IX.

Haemophilia usually refers to inherited deficiencies of coagulation factors, which could be either quantitative or qualitative.

The mutated genes in haemophilia A are called F8, and in haemophilia B they’re called F9. These are both on the X chromosome.

There are also many acquired causes:

  • Liver failure: as the liver is responsible for many of the clotting factors
  • Vitamin K deficiency: as vitamin K is needed by many enzymes to synthesise a lot of the clotting factors
  • Autoimmunity against a clotting factor
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation
264
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of haemophilia

A
  • Abnormal bleeding:
    • Gums
    • Gastrointestinal tract
    • Urinary tract causing haematuria
    • Retroperitoneal space
    • Intracranial
    • Following procedures
  • Excessive bleeding
  • Ecchymosis: easy bruising
  • Spontaneous haemorrhage
  • Haematomas: collections of blood outside the blood vessels
  • Haemoarthrosis: bleeding into joint
265
Q

Describe the investigations involved in the diagnosis of haemophilia

A
  • Diagnosis is based on bleeding scores, coagulation factor assays and genetic testing.
    • Platelets count: usually normal
    • Prothrombin time: tests the extrinsic and common pathway and so is normal
    • Activated partial thromboplastin time: tests the intrinsic and common pathways, usually prolonged
266
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for haemophilia

A
  • Von Willebrand Disease: can present similarly to haemophilia
  • Platelets dysfunction
267
Q

What is the management for haemophilia

A
  • Avoid contact sports and medicines that promote bleeding e.g. aspirin
  • IV infusion of deficient clotting factor (either prophylactic or in response to bleeding)
    • Complication: if patients initially had very low levels of the clotting factor, the immune system might mount an attack against the IV clotting factors, potentially leading to anaphylaxis
  • Desmopressin: to stimulate the release of von Willebrand Factor
  • Antifibrinolytics e.g. tranexamic acid
268
Q

What are the complications of haemophilia

A
  • Bleeds into the brain are a dangerous complication: can cause a stroke or increased intracranial pressure
  • Haemarthrosis: can cause problems with joints
269
Q

What is the role of vWF

A
  • vWf plays a key role in forming clots.
  • It is synthesised and stored in the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes.
  • Synthesis is regulated by von Willebrand gene on chromosome 12.
  • When there is injury, histamine and thrombin stimulate the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes to produce vWF.
  • vWf then attaches to the exposed collagen fibres, which allows platelets to adhere.
  • In addition to this, vWF is also needed as a carrier for factor VIII and protects it from degradation.
270
Q

Define Von Willebrand disease

A

Von Willebrand disease (VWD) is the most common inherited cause of abnormal bleeding. It is usually due to a reduced quantity or reduced quality of von Willebrand factor.

271
Q

What are the risk factors for VWD

A

Family history

272
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of VWD

A

There are many different underlying genetic causes, most of which are autosomal dominant. The causes involve a deficiency, absence or malfunctioning of von Willebrand factor (VWF).

There are three types based on the underlying cause and ranging from type 1 to type 3. Type 3 is the most severe.

  • Type I: most common, autosomal dominant condition and can lead to reduced or defective production of vWF
  • Type II: quantity of vWF is fine but quality is affected. 4 sybtypes
    • A: vWF can attach to collagen and factor VIII, but unable to bind platelets
    • B: vWF binds to platelets in the bloodstream, without injury. These platelets are cleared by the liver and spleen causing thrombocytopenia
    • M: vWF can attach to collagen and factor VIII, but unable to bind platelets
    • N: vWF binds to collagen and platelets, but not to factor VIII
  • Type III: rarest and most severe, autosomal recessive, individuals may have no vWF factor!

von Willebrand disease may also be acquired:

  • Autoimmune conditions e.g. SLE
  • Certain drugs e.g. valproic acid, cirpofloxacin
273
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of VWD

A
  • Easy, prolonged or heavy bleeding e.g.
    • Bleeding gums with brushing
    • Nose bleeds (epistaxis)
    • Heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)
    • Heavy bleeding during surgical operations
  • Easy bruising
  • Severe cases:
    • Joint bleeding
    • Muscle bleeding
    • GI bleeding
274
Q

What are the investigations for a diagnosis of VWD

A

Diagnosis is based on a history of abnormal bleeding, family history, bleeding assessment tools and laboratory investigations.

  • Platelets count: usually normal except in type IIB
  • Prothrombin time: tests the extrinsic and common pathway and so is normal
  • Activated partial thromboplastin time: tests the intrinsic and common pathways, usually prolonged
  • Measurement of vWF antigen
275
Q

What is the management for VWD

A

Management is required either in response to major bleeding or trauma (to stop bleeding) or in preparation for operations (to prevent bleeding):

  • Desmopressin:can be used to stimulates the release of VWF
  • VWFcan be infused
  • Factor VIIIis often infused along with plasma-derived VWF
  • Management of women with heavy periods
    Managed by a combination of:
    • Tranexamic acid (antifibrinolytic agent)
    • Mefanamic acid
    • Norethisterone
    • Combined oral contraceptive pill
    • Mirena coil
      Hysterectomy may be required in severe cases.
276
Q

Define disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is an acquired syndrome characterised by activation of coagulation pathways, resulting in formation of intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors.

277
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation describes a situation in which the process of haemostasis starts to run out of control.
  • Normally, the formation of new clots and the process of fibrinolysis are in a steady balance. In serious medical conditions e.g. sepsis, malignancy, serious trauma, obstetric complications, or intravascular haemolysis, there can be a release of a procoagulant e.g. tissue factor, that tips the scales in favour of clot formation.
  • When this occurs, lots of blood clots start to form in blood vessels serving various organs, leading to ischaemia, necrosis, and eventually organ damage.
  • DIC is also known as consumption coagulopathy, because the excess clotting consumes platelets and clotting factors.
  • Without enough platelets circulating in the blood, other parts of the body begin to bleed with even the slightest damage to the blood vessel walls.
  • To make things worse, as the clots are broken down through fibrinolysis, fibrin degradation products are released into the circulation and these interfere with platelet aggregation and clot formation, making haemostasis even more difficult.
  • So paradoxically, patients have too much and too little clotting.
  • In some cases, disseminated intravascular coagulation can be a more chronic process e.g. in individuals with certain solid tumours and large aortic aneurysms. In these situations, there may be physiologic compensation making the lab results look relatively normal.
278
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A
  • Patient is often acutely ill and shocked
  • Bleeding may occur from the mouth, nose and venepuncture sites and there
    may be widespread ecchymoses
  • Confusion
  • Bruising
  • Thrombotic events occur as a result of vessel occlusion by fibrin and platelets - any organ may be involved but the skin, brain and kidneys are most affected
279
Q

What are the investigations for a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Diagnosis can be suggested from history e.g severe sepsis, trauma or malignancy, clinical presentation and thrombocytopenia

  • Platelet count: low
  • Fibrinogen: low
  • D-dimer: breakdown product of fibrin, raised
  • Prothrombin time: prolonged
  • Partial thromboplastin time: prolonged
280
Q

What is the management for disseminated intravascular coagulation

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Supportive measures for complications
    • Replacement of platelets with transfusion
    • Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) to replace the coagulation factors
    • Cryoprecipitate to replace fibrinogen and some coagulation factors
    • Red cell transfusion in patients who are bleeding
    • Other e.g. ventilator support
281
Q

Define thrombocytopenia

A

Thrombocytopenia describes a low platelet count. The normal platelet count is between 150 to 450 x 109/L.

282
Q

Describe the aetiology and pathophysiology of thrombocytopenia

A

Causes of thrombocytopenia can be split into

  • Problems with production
    • Sepsis
    • B12 or folic acid deficiency
    • Liver failure causing reducedthrombopoietinproduction in the liver
    • Bone marrow suppression
    • Leukaemia
    • Myelodysplastic syndrome
  • Splenic sequestration
    • In liver cirrhosis, portal hypertension causes blood to back up into the spleen, causing congestive splenomegaly.
    • The spleen physically enlarges and also starts to hyperfunction - hypersplenism.
    • Here, the spleen generously allows up to 90 percent of the total plateletsin, which means that nearly none are left in the blood.
  • Problems with destruction
    • Non-immune
      • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
      • Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
      • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy (DIC)
    • Immune
      • Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
      • Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
    • Other causes include:
      • Medications (sodium valproate, methotrexate, isotretinoin, antihistamines, proton pump inhibitors)
      • Alcohol
283
Q

How might thrombocytopenia present

A
  • A mild thrombocytopenia may be asymptomatic and found incidentally on a full blood count.
  • Platelet counts below 50 x 109/L will result in easy or spontaneous bruising and prolonged bleeding times. They may present with nosebleeds, bleeding gums, heavy periods, easy bruising or blood in the urine or stools.
  • Platelet counts below 10 x 109/L are high risk for spontaneous bleeding. Spontaneous intracranial haemorrhage or GI bleeds are particularly concerning.
284
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for thrombocytopenia

A
  • Platelet concentration can fall as a result of large volume transfusions of platelet-free products
  • Pseudothrombocytopenia: clotting of platelet factors can falsely make platelet count appear low
  • Haemophilia Aandhaemophilia B
  • Von Willebrand Disease
285
Q

Define immune thrombocytpenic purpura (ITP)

A

ITP is a condition where antibodies are created against platelets. This causes an immune response against platelets, resulting in the destruction of platelets and a low platelet count.

Also known as autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and primary thrombocytopenic purpura.

286
Q

Describe the aetiology of immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A
  • Primary ITP: when ITP occurs by itself
  • Secondary ITP: triggered by another condition e.g. hepatitis C, HIV, or lupus
287
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

ITP is caused by autoantibodies that bind to the platelet receptor Gp2B3A, and target platelets for destruction in the spleen.

ITP is like the platelet equivalent of autoimmune haemolytic anemia. Some patients develop both conditions together - Evan’s syndrome.

288
Q

What is the clinical manifestations of ITP

A
  • Most of the time, ITP is asymptomatic, but in severe cases it can cause:
    • Petechiae
    • Purpura (red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding underneath skin)
    • Easy bruising
    • Epistaxis (nose bleed)
    • Menorrhagia (heavy menstruation)
    • Gum bleeding
    • Major haemorrhage is rare
    • Splenomegaly is rare
289
Q

Describe the investigations for ITP

A
  • FBC: isolated thrombocytopenia, with a normal haematocrit and leukocyte count
  • Blood film:
    • Megakaryocytes start releasing large platelets, which makes the mean platelet volume increase
    • Minority of patients who have concurrent autoimmune haemolytic anemia, there can be spherocytes present
  • Platelet autoantibodies (present in 60-70%) - not needed for diagnosis
  • Abdominal ultrasound can be done to rule out splenomegaly, and hepatitis C virus and HIV, since ITP is being triggered by those infections.
290
Q

Describe the management for ITP

A
  • Secondary ITP: treat underlying cause
  • Prednisolone(steroids)
  • IVimmunoglobulins
  • Rituximab(a monoclonal antibody against B cells)
  • Splenectomy
  • Vaccinations should be arranged for patients undergoing a splenectomy
  • Additional measures such as carefully controlling blood pressure and suppressing menstrual periods are also important.
291
Q

What monitoring and patient advice should be given with regards to ITP

A

The platelet count needs to be monitored and the patient needs education about concerning signs of bleeding such as persistent headaches and melaena and when to seek help.

292
Q

Define thrombotic thrombocytopenic pupura (TTP)

A

TTP is a condition where tiny blood clots develop throughout the small vessels of the body using up platelets and causing thrombocytopenia, bleeding under the skin and other systemic issues. It affect the small vessels so it is described as a microangiopathy.

293
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of TTP

A

The blood clots develop due to a problem with a specific protein calledADAMTS13 (there can be a genetic deficiency of ADAMTS-13, or an autoantibody against ADAMTS-13).

This protein normallyinactivates von Willebrand factorand reducesplatelet adhesionto vessel walls andclot formation. A shortage in this protein leads to von Willebrand factor overactivity and the formation of blood clots in small vessels. This causes platelets to be used up leading to thrombocytopenia. The blood clots in the small vessels break up red blood cells, leading tohaemolytic anaemia.

Deficiency in theADAMTS13protein can be due to an inheritedgenetic mutationor due toautoimmune diseasewhereantibodiesare created against the protein.

294
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of TTP

A

Patients classically develop five symptoms:

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia
  • Fatigue
  • Fever
  • Renal insufficiency: which can cause haematuria and decreased urine output; and neurologic symptoms like headache and confusion.
295
Q

Describe the investigations for TTP

A
  • FBC: thrombocytopenia and normocytic normochromic anaemia
  • Blood film: schistocytes (fragmented red blood cells)
  • Unconjugated bilirubin: raised
  • Lactate dehydrogenase: raised
  • Haptoglobin levels: decreased, because haptoglobin binds to free haemoglobin in the circulation
  • Creatinine levels: may be elevated if there is kidney damage
  • Coombs test: checks for immune mediated causes, negative
  • Prothrombin time: normal
  • Partial thromboplastin time: normal
296
Q

Describe the management for TTP

A
  • Plasma exchange: gets rid of the patient’s plasma along with all of the large von willebrand factor multimers, and replaces it with new plasma
  • Steroids
  • Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against B cells).
297
Q

Define heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) involves the development of antibodies against platelets in response to exposure to heparin.

298
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of HIT

A

Heparin induced antibodies specifically target a protein on the platelets called platelet factor 4 (PF4). These are anti-PF4/heparin antibodies.

The HIT antibodies bind to platelets and activate clotting mechanisms. This causes a hypercoagulable state and leads to thrombosis. They also break down platelets and cause thrombocytopenia.

Therefore there is an unintuitive situation where a patient on heparin with low platelets forms unexpected blood clots.

Patients are more at risk when taking unfractionated heparin as opposed to LMWH heparin.

299
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of HIT

A
  • Some patients develop life-threatening thrombotic events, which are most often venous - causing deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or cerebral venous sinus thrombosis or less often arterial - causing limb gangrene, stroke, or myocardial infarction.
  • Other patients simply have thrombocytopenia on a FBC.
300
Q

Describe the investigations for HIT

A
  • FBC: thrombocytopenia
  • Check for HIT antibodies
301
Q

Describe the management for HIT

A

Stopping use of heparin and using an alternative anticoagulant

302
Q

Describe the constitution of haemoglobin

A

Haemoglobin is made up of four globin chains, each bound to a heme group.

There are four major globin chain types - alpha (α), beta (β), gamma (γ), and delta (δ).

These four globin chains combine in different ways to give rise to different kinds of haemoglobin.

303
Q

Define thalassaemia

A

Thalassaemia is an autosomal recessive haemoglobinopathy which causes a microcytic anaemia.

In adults, blood primarily consists of the following isoforms:

  • HbA (2alpha2beta): >95%, reduced alpha thalassaemia and reduced beta thalassaemia
  • HbA2 (2alpha2beta): 2%, reduced alpha thalassaemia and increased beta thalassaemia
  • HbF (2alpha2gamma): <2%, reduced alpha thalassaemia and increased beta thalassaemia
304
Q

Describe the epidemiology of thalassaemia

A
  • Thalassaemia is prevalent in areas with malaria as there is evidence to suggest that thalassaemic red cells provide immunity against the parasite.
  • Alpha thalassaemia: Asian and African descent
  • Beta thalassaemia: South-East Asian, Mediterranean, and Middle Eastern descent
305
Q

What are the risk factors for thalassaemia

A

Family history

306
Q

What is the prognosis for thalassaemia

A

Patients with alpha or beta thalassaemiatraithave anormal life expectancy.

Beta thalassaemiamajoris fatal in the first few years of lifeif untreated, and the leading cause of death is heart failure. If treated appropriately withtransfusionandchelation, patients can havenear-normal life expectancy.

In alpha thalassaemia,Hb Bartsis fatalin utero, whilstHbHpatients havenear-normal life expectancy

307
Q

Define alpha thalassaemia

A

Alpha-thalassemia is a genetic disorder where there’s a deficiency in production of the alpha globin chains of haemoglobin.

This is an autosomal recessive conditions

308
Q

Describe the epidemiology of alpha thalassaemia

A

Common in individuals of Asian and African descent

309
Q

Describe the risk factors of alpha thalassaemia

A

Family history

310
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of alpha thalassaemia

A

Alpha thalassaemia occurs due to impaired synthesis of α-globin due to geneticdeletions.

4 alleles (on chromosome 16) are responsible for alpha chain synthesis:
- Silent carrier:one gene deletion does not cause symptoms and patients have normal electrophoresis
- Alpha thalassaemia trait: people with 2 gene deletions are mildly anaemic with near-normal haemoglobin electrophoresis. This can either be caused by a ‘cis’ deletion, where mutated genes are on the same chromosome; or a ‘trans’ deletion when the mutated genes are on two different chromosomes.
- HbH:people with 3 gene deletions are unable to form alpha chains. The beta chains form tetramers (HbH), which damage erythrocytes causing moderate to severe disease
    - HbH cause damage by causing haemolysis as well as having a high affinity for O2 and not releasing O2 to tissues.
- Hb Barts(alpha thalassaemia major):people with 4 gene deletions diein utero because the gamma chains form tetramers (Hb Barts), which cannot carry oxygen efficiently
    - Severe hypoxia leads to high-output cardiac failure and massive hepatosplenomegaly, resulting in oedema all over the body, called hydrops fetalis.

A consequence of hypoxia is that it signals thebone marrow, as well as extramedullary tissues like the liver andspleen, to increase production of RBCs.

This may causebones containing bone marrow, as well as the liver andspleen, to enlarge.
311
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of alpha thalassaemia

A

Patients with alpha thalassaemia trait are usually asymptomatic. Clinical features of HbH disease are highly variable and generally develop in the first years of life

  • Signs
    • Pallor: due to anaemia
    • Jaundice: due to unconjugated bilirubin
    • Chipmunk faces: compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis in the skull causes marrow expansion
    • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • Failure to thrive
  • Symptoms
    • Shortness of breath: due to anaemia
    • Palpitations: due to anaemia
    • Fatigue: due to anaemia
    • Swollen abdomen: due to hepatosplenomegaly
312
Q

Describe the investigations for alpha thalassaemia

A
  • FBC: microcytic anaemia with reticulocytosis as the marrow compensates to produce more erythrocytes
  • Bloodfilm: microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes, as well as target cells (look like bullseyes due to scrunching up of the cell membrane) and nucleated RBCs (Howell-Jolly bodies). With moderate alpha thalassaemia, there may begolf-ball like RBCs, due toprecipitatedHbH molecules.
  • Hbelectrophoresis: this isdiagnostic. The pattern depends on the type of thalassaemia. HbH (beta chain tetramers) would be present inalpha thalassaemia
313
Q

What is the management for alpha thalassaemia

A
  • Patients with alpha thalassaemia trait don’t require treatment
  • Regular blood transfusions: may be required and will be guided by the Hb level.
  • Iron chelation:desferrioxamine acts as an iron chelator and can be given to treat or prevent iron overload in patients with regular transfusions
  • Folate supplementation:haemolysis leads to increased cell turnover and a state of folate deficiency
  • Splenectomy:patients with thalassaemia develop splenomegaly due to extramedullary erythropoiesis. This leads to hypersplenism which, in turn, causes haemolysis and pancytopenia. Splenectomy is recommended if there is massive splenomegaly or hypersplenism
  • Stem cell transplantation:the onlycurativeoption recommended in those with severe disease
314
Q

What are complications with alpha thalassaemia

A
  • Heart failure: severe anaemia can lead to high output cardiac failure
  • Hypersplenism:compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis takes place in the spleen leading to splenomegaly and hypersplenism. This, in turn, can cause pancytopaenia
  • Aplastic crisis: associated with parvovirus B19 infection and can result in pancytopaenia with reduced reticulocytes
  • Iron overload due to regular transfusions:excess iron leads to secondary haemochromatosis which can affect the liver, heart, pancreas, skin, and joints
    • Complications due to haemochromatosis: arrhythmias, pericarditis, cirrhosis, hypothyroidism and diabetes mellitus
  • Gallstones:haemolysis results in haemoglobin being broken down to bilirubin and forming pigmented gallstones
315
Q

Define beta thalassaemia

A

Beta thalassaemia is a genetic disorder where there’s a deficiency in the production of the β-globin chains of haemoglobin.

It is an autosomal recessive condition.

316
Q

Describe the epidemiology of beta thalassaemia

A

Most commonly seen in Mediterranean, African and South East Asian populations.

317
Q

Describe the risk factors of beta thalassaemia

A

Family history

318
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of beta thalassaemia

A
  • 2 alleles (on chromosome 11) are responsible for chain synthesis.
  • In beta thalassaemia, there’s either a partial or complete β-globin chain deficiency, due to a point mutation in the beta globin gene present on chromosome 11. Most often, these mutations occur in two regions of the gene - the promoter sequences and splice sites - which affects the way the mRNA is read.
  • The result is either a reduced, or completely absent beta globin chain synthesis.
  • When there’s a β-globin chain deficiency, free α-chains accumulate within red blood cells, and they clump together to form intracellular inclusions, which damage the red blood cell’s cell membrane, causing haemolysis
  • This causes haemoglobin to spill out of RBCs. Haemoglobin can then be recycled into iron and unconjugated bilirubin.
  • The excess unconjugated bilirubin leads to jaundice, and excess iron deposits leads to secondary hemochromatosis.
  • The haemolysis can also lead to hypoxia.
  • A consequence of hypoxia is that it signals the bone marrow, and extramedullary tissues like the liver and spleen, to increase red blood cell production, which may cause bone marrow containing bones, like those in the skull and face, as well as the liver and spleen, to enlarge.
319
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of beta thalassaemia

A

Beta thalassaemia minor is usually asymptomatic. Patients with beta thalassaemia major almost always present < 2 years old.

  • Signs
    • Jaundice: due to unconjugated bilirubin
    • Pallor: due to anaemia
    • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • Chipmunk facies: enlarged forehead and cheekbones
    • Failure to thrive
  • Symptoms
    • Shortness of breath: due to anaemia
    • Palpitations: due to anaemia
    • Fatigue: due to anaemia
    • Swollen abdomen: due to hepatosplenomegaly
    • Growth retardation
320
Q

What are the investigations for beta thalassaemia

A
  • 1st line
    • FBC: microcytic anaemia with reticulocytosis as the marrow compensates to produce more erythrocytes; inbeta thalassaemia trait, microcytosis isdisproportionateto anaemia (characteristic)
    • Lab work may also show high serum iron, high ferritin, and a high transferrin saturation level.
    • Bloodfilm: microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes, as well as target cells (look like bullseyes due to scrunching up of cell membrane) and nucleated RBCs (Howell-Jolly bodies)
    • Hbelectrophoresis: this isdiagnostic. Reduced HbA and elevated HbA2would be expected inbeta thalassaemia
  • Other
    • Skull X-ray: a ‘hair-on-end’ appearance is seen in beta thalassaemia intermedia and major due to marrow hyperplasia
    • DNA testing can be used to look for the genetic abnormality
321
Q

What is the treatment for beta thalassaemia

A
  • Beta thalassemia minor usually doesn’t require any treatment.
  • Regular blood transfusions: may be required and will be guided by the Hb level.
  • Iron chelation:desferrioxamine acts as an iron chelator and can be given to treat or prevent iron overload in patients with regular transfusions
  • Folate supplementation:haemolysis leads to increased cell turnover and a state of folate deficiency
  • Splenectomy:patients with thalassaemia develop splenomegaly due to extramedullary erythropoiesis. This leads to hypersplenism which, in turn, causes haemolysis and pancytopenia. Splenectomy is recommended if there is massive splenomegaly or hypersplenism
  • Stem cell transplantation:the onlycurativeoption recommended in those with severe disease
322
Q

What are complications with beta thalassaemia

A
  • Heart failure: severe anaemia can lead to high output cardiac failure
  • Hypersplenism:compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis takes place in the spleen leading to splenomegaly and hypersplenism. This, in turn, can cause pancytopaenia
  • Aplastic crisis: associated with parvovirus B19 infection and can result in pancytopaenia with reduced reticulocytes
  • Iron overload due to regular transfusions:excess iron leads to secondary haemochroatosis which can affect the liver, heart, pancreas, skin, and joints
    • Complications due to haemochromatosis: arrhythmias, pericarditis, cirrhosis, hypothyroidism and diabetes mellitus
  • Gallstones:haemolysis results in haemoglobin being broken down to bilirubin and forming pigmented gallstones
323
Q

Describe the types of anticoagulation

A
  • Can be therapeutic e.g. DVT and PE
  • OR prophylactic e.g. prevention of DVT/PE, stroke etc
324
Q

Describe LMW heparin

A
  • Inactivates factor Xa but not thrombin
  • Has a longer half-life than standard heparin
  • Monitoring not usually required
325
Q

Describe unfractionated heparin

A
  • Works on antithrombin and increases its affinity for its target.Antithrombin binds excess factor X as well as excess thrombin to make it unavailable. This ultimately prevents fibrin formation. Antithrombin also plays a role in inhibiting factors VII, IX, XI and XII.Thrombin also has additional roles apart from the cleaving of fibrinogen to fibrin. It is involved in activating platelets, activating factor V, VIII and IX and XIII (stabilising factor that reinforces the fibrin mesh). When heparin inactivates thrombin via antithrombin, it will also have an effect on the thrombin-induced activation of these other factors.
  • Has a rapid onset and short half-life
  • Monitoring needed; dose adjusted based on APTT
326
Q

What are side effects of heparin

A

Increased bleeding, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), osteoporosis with long term use, hyperkalaemia

327
Q

What are contraindications for heparin

A

bleeding disorders, low platelets, previous HIT, peptic ulcer, cerebral haemorrhage, severe hypertension, neurosurgery

328
Q

Describe wafarin

A
  • Warfarin inhibits the activation of vitamin K (by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase complex I), this depletes vitamin K as vitamin K is no longer recycled. This results in the reduced synthesis of active clotting factors.Vitamin K is involved in the conversion of coagulation factors (II, VII, IX and X) into their mature forms, as the conversion uses an enzyme that requires vit K. This inactivation affects the extrinsic, intrinsic and common pathways.
329
Q

Side effects of warfarin

A

haemorrhage, mild rash, hair loss

330
Q

Contraindications of warfarin

A

peptic ulcer, bleeding disorders, severe hypertension, pregnancy

331
Q

Describe direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)

A
  • e.g. rivaroxaban and apixaban (factor Xa inhibitors); dabigattran (direct thrombin inhibitor)
  • Do not require monitoring or dose adjustment
332
Q

Contraindications of DOACs

A

severe renal impairment, active bleeding, lesion at risk of bleeding, reduced clotting factors

333
Q

Describe fondaparinux

A
  • Pentasaccharide Xa inhibitor
  • Used in acute coronary syndrome or in place of LMWH for prophylaxis
334
Q

What to do regarding anticoagulation overdose

A
  • Raising the INR puts patient at risk of haemorrhage
  • Stop anticoagulant
  • If heparin overdose: can use protamine sulphate to counteract this
  • If warfarin: vitamin K1 can be used as antidote
  • Prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma