Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

Define Crohn’s disease

A

Crohn’s disease is a form of inflammatory bowel disease characterised by transmural (causes bowel wall to thicken) inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract (anywhere from mouth to anus), with the terminal ileum and colon most commonly affected.

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2
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Crohn’s disease

A

Epidemiology Jewish people, less common than UC, smoking increases risk 2-4x, more females than males, age 20-40

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3
Q

Describe the aetiology of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Environmental factors e.g. smoking
  • Genetic factors e.g. CARD15/NOD2 mutation
  • Pathogens e.g. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis, Pseudomona and Listeria species
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4
Q

Describe the risk factors for Crohn’s disease

A
  • Family history
  • Smoking
  • NSAIDs may exacerbate
  • Stress and depression
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5
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Crohn’s disease

A

Dysfunctional unregulated inflammatory response which causes tissue damage. Inflammation starts in the mucosa and progresses to involve deeper layers and forms granulomas (large masses of immune cells) and ulcers. The granulomas extend to involve all layers of the GI wall (transmural).

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6
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of Crohn’s disease

A

Follows a relapsing and remitting course

  • Signs
    • Abdominal tenderness
    • Fever
    • Rectal examination: blood, skin tags, erythema, fissures, fistulas, ulceration
    • Aphthous mouth ulcers
  • Symptoms
    • Diarrhoea
    • Abdominal pain (most commonly in RLQ where the ileum is)
    • Bloody stools: more common in ulcerative colitis
    • Delayed puberty and failure to thrive: in children
    • Weight loss
    • Systemic symptoms:
      • Anorexia
      • Fever
      • Malaise
      • Lethargy
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7
Q

Describe some extra-intestinal manifestations of Crohn’s disease

A

More common in patients with colitis and peri-anal disease

  • Cutaenous
    • Erythema nodosum - inflammatory disorder affecting subcutaneous fat.
    • Pyoderma gangrenosum - rapidly enlarging, very painful ulcer.
  • Musculoskeletal
    • Pauci-articular arthritis: asymmetrical
    • Osteoporosis
    • Axial arthritis
    • Polyarticular arthritis: symmetrical
    • Clubbing
    • Sacroiliitis
    • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Eyes
    • Episcleritis - inflammation of your episclera
    • Uveitis - eye inflammation
    • Conjunctivitis
  • Hepatobiliary
    • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
    • Autoimmune hepatitis
    • Gallstones
  • Other
    • Calcium oxalaterenal stones
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8
Q

Describe the primary investigations for Crohn’s disease

A

1st line FBC: raised WCC, platelets, CRP&ESR, anaemia. Faecal calprotectin raised (indicates IBD). pANCA negative. Stool samples (rule out infection). LFTs: hypoalbuminemia. Low iron, vitamin B12 and folate (B9) levels.

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9
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for Crohn’s disease

A

Colonoscopy and biopsy (granulomatous transmural inflammation. Skip lesions, cobblestone appearance. Strictures “string sign”)

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10
Q

What are other investigations to consider for Crohn’s disease

A

Imaging: abdominal USS/x-ray/MRI (strictures and fistulae)

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11
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease

A

Ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, diverticulitis, indeterminate/infectious/radiation colitis

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12
Q

Describe the general advice for Crohn’s disease

A
  • General advice
    • Advice regarding smoking cessation is extremely important
    • There is some evidence to suggest that use of NSAIDs or the combined oral contraceptive pillmayincrease the risk of relapse. May consider ceasing use.
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13
Q

Describe the management for Crohn’s disease

A

For remission:
Mild to moderate disease: 1. oral corticosteroids (prednisolone).
Severe disease: IV hydrocortisone. If steroids don’t work add TNF-a inhibitor (infliximab) or immunosuppressants (azathioprine, methotrexate)
Maintaining remission: azathioprine, mercaptopurine
Surgery if no response to treatment: resection or worst affected bowel, temporary ileostomy (allows time for affected areas to rest). Surgery is not curative for Crohn’s as entire bowel is affected.
Also: stop smoking, replace iron/B12/folate deficiencies, antibiotics for perianal disease

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14
Q

Describe the management for maintaining remission for Crohn’s disease

A

Patients can either have no treatment, or pharmacological therapy depending on their risk of relapse. Glucocorticoids should not be offered

1st line:Azathioprine or Mercaptopurine

2nd line:Methotrexate, Infliximab, Adalimumab

Post-surgery: consider azathioprine, with or without methotrexate

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15
Q

Describe the complications for Crohn’s disease

A

Bowel: obstruction, malabsorption, toxic megacolon, perforation, fistula, colorectal cancer. Perianal disease. Extraintestinal: Oral aphthous ulcers, uveitis, episcleritis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis

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16
Q

Describe the prognosis for Crohn’s disease

A

This is a life-long condition, and most people will require medical management indefinitely.

There are multiple genetic and environmental factors that will determine the frequency of flare-ups and subsequent remission length.

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17
Q

Crohn’s NESTS

A

No blood or mucus
Entire GI tract
Skip lesions on endoscopy
Terminal ileum most affected and transmural inflammation
Smoking is a risk factor

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18
Q

Define ulcerative colitis

A

Type of inflammatory bowel disease. Inflammation of the walls of the colon and rectum, and ulcers, with periods of exacerbation and remission. CLOSE UP: Continuous inflammation (no skip lesions), Limited to colon and rectum, Only superficial mucosa affected, Smoking is protective, Excrete blood and mucus, Use aminosalicylates, Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

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19
Q

Describe the epidemiology of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Ulcerative colitis has a bimodal age distribution at approximately 15-25 and 55-70 years of age.
  • Prevalence = 100-200/100,000
  • Highest incidence and prevalence in Northern Europe, UK and North America
  • Affects caucasians and eastern European Jews most
  • Is 3 times more common in NON-SMOKERS
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20
Q

Describe the risk factors of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Family history
  • HLA-B27
  • Caucasian
  • Non-smoker
  • NSAIDs- associated with flares
  • Chronic stress and depression - associated with flares
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21
Q

Describe where ulcers tend to form in ulcerative colitis

A

UC is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that tends to form ulcers along the inner-surface or lumen of the large intestine, including both the colon and the rectum.

These ulcers are spots in the mucosa and submucosa where the tissue has eroded away and left behind open sores or breaks in the membrane.

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22
Q

Describe the origin of ulcerative colitis

A

Environmental factors like diet and stresswere once thought to be the culprit but now it’s thought that these are more secondary. UC is now thought to be autoimmune in origin.

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23
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis

A

Inappropriate autoimmune response against colonic flora in genetically susceptible individuals. T cells destroy cells lining the colon which leaves behind eroded areas called ulcers.

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24
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Signs
    • Abdominal tenderness
    • Fever - in acute UC
    • Tachycardia - in acute severe UC
    • Fresh blood on rectal examination
  • Symptoms
    • Diarrhoea
    • Blood and mucus in stool
    • Urgency and tenesmus (cramping rectal pain)
    • Abdominal pain: particularly in left lower quadrant
    • Weight loss and malnutrition
    • Fever and malaise during attacks
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25
Q

Describe what extra-intestinal manifestations may occur with ulcerative collitis

A
  • Cutaenous
    • Erythema nodosum - inflammatory disorder affecting subcutaneous fat.
    • Pyoderma gangrenosum - rapidly enlarging, very painful ulcer.
  • Musculoskeletal
    • Pauci-articular arthritis: asymmetrical
    • Osteoporosis
    • Axial arthritis
    • Polyarticular arthritis: symmetrical
    • Clubbing
    • Sacroiliitis
    • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Eyes
    • Episcleritis - inflammation of your episclera
    • Uveitis - eye inflammation
    • Conjunctivitis
  • Hepatobiliary
    • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
    • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • Other
    • Cholangiocarcinoma
    • Aphthous oral ulcer
    • Nutritional deficits
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26
Q

Define fulminant disease in relation to ulcerative colitis

A
  • Fulminant refers to an abrupt and severe onset of a UC flare
  • Suggested byoneof the following:
    • > 10 bowel movements per day
    • Continuous bleeding
    • Abdominal tenderness and distention
    • Toxicity
    • Colonic dilation
    • The need for blood transfusion
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27
Q

Describe the primary investigations for ulcerative colitis

A
  • Faecal calprotectin: will be raised; a marker of inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract and helps differentiate from irritable bowel syndrome
  • FBC:leukocytosis during a flare; may demonstrate anaemiafrom PR bleeding
  • LFTs:should be checked every 6-12 months to screen for PSC; low albumin may suggest protein-losing enteropathy
  • CRP/ESR: raised during acute inflammation of the bowel (flare)
  • Colonoscopy and biopsy: GOLD STANDARD and allows for biopsy
    • Red and raw mucosa with widespreadshallow ulceration
    • No inflammation beyond the submucosa, unless fulminant disease
    • Lamina propria inflammatory cell infiltrates
    • Pseudopolyps: mucosa adjacent to ulcers is preserved, which has the appearance of polyps
    • Crypt abscessesdue to neutrophil migration through gland walls
    • Goblet cell depletion, withinfrequentgranulomas
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28
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis of ulcerative colitis

A

Alternative causes of diarrhoea should be excluded e.g. Salmonella spp,
Giardia intestinalis and rotavirus

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29
Q

What is the management for ulcerative colitis dependent upon

A

Depends on the location and severity of disease.

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30
Q

Describe the general management for ulcerative colitis

A
  • Mild = 1st line aminosalicylate and 2nd line corticosteroids
  • Severe = 1st line IV corticosteroid and 2nd line IV ciclosporin
  • Colectomy may be required: leaves patient with J-pouch (can be reversed) or ileostomy.
    • J- pouch: ileoanal anastomosis, colon removed and rectum fused to ileum
    • Ileostomy: colon and rectum are removed and the ileum brought out on
      to the abdominal wall as a stoma
  • Maintenance = aminosalicylate, azathioprine, mercaptopurine
  • Biologics = may be considered in patients who are intolerant/ not responding to immunomodulation e.g. infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab
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31
Q

Describe the complications of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Toxic megacolon: this is an acute form of colonic distension and patients can become septic and perforate. Requires supportive care, bowel rest, NG decompression and antibiotics. Requires a colectomy if no improvement within 24-48 hours
  • Perforation: associated with high mortality
  • Colonic adenocarcinoma
  • Strictures and obstruction:bowel loops can develop strictures following chronic inflammation and this can lead to bowel obstruction
  • Extraintestinal manifestation (refer to signs^)
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32
Q

Describe the prognosis of ulcerative colitis

A

There does not appear to be an increased rate of mortality in patients with ulcerative colitis. However, the most common cause of death is toxic megacolon. Furthermore, colonic adenocarcinomas develop in 3-5% of patients

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33
Q

Describe the UC CLOSEUP pneumonic for UC

A

CContinuous inflammation

LLimited to colon and rectum

OOnly superficial mucosa affected

SSmoking is protective

EExcrete blood and mucus

UUseaminosalicylates

PPrimary Sclerosing Cholangitis

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34
Q

Describe the symptomatic differences and similarities between UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC and Crohn’s both have abdominal pain.

UC has bloody diarrhoea whereas Crohn’s disease is usually non-bloody diarrhoea

UC involves mucus and weight loss

Crohn’s disease involves significant weight loss and aphthous ulcers

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35
Q

Describe the impact smoking has on UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC smoking reduces risk

Crohn’s disease smoking increases risk

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36
Q

Describe the differences in pathology between UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC starts in the rectum and spreads proximally towards the ileocaecal valve. Never spreads into the small bowel or anus.

Crohn’s disease is any part of the GI tract and skip lesions may be seen. Tends not to involve the rectum

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37
Q

Where is the most common location for both UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC rectal involvement is almost universal

Crohn’s disease is terminal ileum

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38
Q

Describe the differences in endoscopic findings between UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC - shallow ulcers with pseudopolyps

Crohn’s disease - mucosal inflammation, deep ulcers, skip lesions and cobblestone mucosa

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39
Q

Describe the difference in histology between UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC - mucosal and submucosal ulceration only. Crypt abscess with neutrophil infiltration

Crohn’s disease - transmural inflammation, granulomas and goblet cells

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40
Q

Describe the difference in specific extra-intestinal features between Crohn’s and UC

A

UC - primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma (can occur in Crohn’s disease but is much rarer)

Crohn’s disease - gallstones due to reduced bile reabsorption. Calcium oxalate renal stones

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41
Q

What are the shared extra-intestinal features between UC and Crohn’s disease

A

Arthritis, uveitis, episcleritis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum

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42
Q

Describe the different complications of UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC - toxic megacolon and strictures

Crohn’s disease - fissures, fistulas and strictures

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43
Q

What are the risks of colorectal cancer for UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC - marked increase

Crohn’s disease - slight increase

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44
Q

Describe the impact surgery has on UC and Crohn’s disease

A

UC- curative

Crohn’s disease - for complications such as strictures

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45
Q

Define irritable bowel syndrome

A

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic condition characterised by abdominal pain associated with bowel dysfunction. It is a functional bowel disorder (there is no identifiable organic disease underlying the symptoms).

  • IBS-C - with constipation
  • IBS-D - with diarrhoea
  • IBS-M - with constipation and diarrhoea
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46
Q

Describe the epidemiology of IBS

A
  • It is very common and occurs in up to 20% of the population.
  • Common, in western world around 1 in 5 report symptoms consistent with IBS
  • It affects women more than men
  • More common in younger adults <40 years
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47
Q

Describe the exacerbating factors for IBS

A
  • Acute gastroenteritis
  • Stress
  • Menstruation
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48
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of IBS

A

Abdominal pain:

Patients have “visceral hypersensitivity,” which means that the sensory nerve endings in the intestinal wall have an abnormally strong response to stimuli like stretching during and after after a meal.

Abnormal bowel motility:

Eating FODMAPs (fermentable oligo-, di-, mono-saccharides and polyols) often trigger the symptoms. These unabsorbed short-chain carbohydrates act as solutes that draw water across the gastrointestinal wall and into the lumen.

In addition to triggering visceral hypersensitivity which causes pain, that excess water can also cause smooth muscle lining in the intestines to spasm, and create diarrhoea if the excess water is not reabsorbed back into the body.

In addition, the unabsorbed short-chain carbohydrates are often metabolised by gastrointestinal bacterial flora which produce gas that could trigger more bloating, spasm, or pain.

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49
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of IBS

A

Symptoms are chronic: >6 months

  • Signs
    • General abdominal tenderness may be felt.
  • Symptoms
    • Fluctuating bowel habit
    • Diarrhoea
    • Constipation
    • Incomplete evacuation
    • Urgency
    • Mucus PR
    • Abdominal pain
      • Pain worse after eating
      • Improved by opening bowels
    • Bloating
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50
Q

Describe the diagnostic criteria for IBS

A
  • Diagnostic criteriaAbdominal pain / discomfort:
    • Relieved on opening bowels, or
    • Associated with a change in bowel habit
    AND 2 of:
    • Abnormal stool passage
    • Bloating
    • Worse symptoms after eating
    • PR mucus
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51
Q

What investigations may be done for IBS

A
  • Exclude other pathology
    • Normal FBC, ESR and CRP blood tests
    • Faecal calprotectinnegative, excludes inflammatory bowel disease
    • Negative coeliac disease serology (anti-TTG antibodies)
    • Cancer is not suspected or excluded if suspected: colonoscopy
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52
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for IBS

A
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Coeliac disease
  • Malignancies
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53
Q

What is the lifestyle advice for IBS

A
  • Adequate fluid intake
  • Regular small meals
  • Reduced processed foods
  • Limit caffeine and alcohol
  • Low “FODMAP” diet (ideally with dietician guidance)
  • Increase fibre if constipation, reduce fibre if diarrhoea
  • Avoid sorbitol sweeteners, if diarrhoea
  • Eat oats and linseeds if there is a problem with wind
  • Trial ofprobioticsupplements for 4 weeks
  • Reduce stress
  • Increase activity
  • Weight loss if obese or overweight
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54
Q

What is the pharmacological management for IBS

A
  • First line
    • Loperamidefor diarrhoea
    • Laxatives for constipation.
      • Avoidlactuloseas it can cause bloating.
      • Linaclotideis a specialist laxative for patients with IBS not responding to first-line laxatives
    • Antispasmodics for cramps e.g.hyoscine butylbromide(Buscopan)
  • Second line
    • Tricyclic antidepressants (i.e. amitriptyline 5-10mg at night)
  • Third line
    • SSRIs antidepressants
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55
Q

What other options for management of IBS are there

A
  • Peppermint oil can also be used as an antispasmodic
  • Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT) is also an option to help patients psychologically manage the condition and reduce distress associated with symptoms.
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56
Q

Describe the prognosis for IBS

A

Patients with IBS have a normal life expectancy, and there are no long-term complications of their disease.

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57
Q

When should other diagnoses be considered for IBS

A
  • Age >60 years
  • History <6 months
  • Family history of cancer
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Waking at night with pain/ diarrhoea
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Abnormal CRP and ESR
  • Malaena
  • Rectal or abdominal mass
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58
Q

Define coeliac disease

A

Coeliac disease is a systemic autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine and is triggered by the ingestion of gluten peptides found in wheat, barley, rye and other related grains. Malabsorption is the hallmark of coeliac disease.

Previously known as coeliac sprue.

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59
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Coeliac disease

A
  • The estimated prevalence of coeliac disease in European populations is 1-2%, with a prevalence of 1% in the UK.
  • Commoner if Irish
  • Usually develops in early childhood but can start at any age. Another peak at 50-60 years.
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60
Q

What are triggers for coeliac disease

A

Prolamin’s: gliadin in wheat, hordeins in barley and secalins in rye

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61
Q

What are risk factors for coeliac disease

A
  • Family historyof coeliac disease
  • HLA-DQ2andHLA-DQ8:95% of patients have HLA-DQ2, and 80% have HLA-DQ8
  • Autoimmunity:type 1 diabetes, autoimmune thyroid disease and autoimmune hepatitis
  • IgA deficiency:allows increased gluten peptides to circulate in the submucosa
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Turner’s syndrome
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62
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Coeliac disease

A

Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells.
Gluten breaks down to gliadin which triggers the immune system to produce IgA autoantibodies such as anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-tTG), and anti-endomysial (anti-EMA) which target the epithelial cells of the small bowel causing villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytes.

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63
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations for coeliac disease

A
  • Persistent abdominal symptoms:
    • Indigestion
    • Diarrhoea (watery) or steatorrhoea (pale, floating stools)
    • Abdominal bloating or discomfort
    • Constipation
  • Prolonged fatigue
  • Unexpected weight loss
  • Failure to thrive in children
  • Severe or persistent mouth ulcers
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis: itchy vesicular skin eruption caused by IgA antibodies attacking tTG in the epidermis.
  • Anaemia secondary to iron, B12 or folate deficiency
  • Rarely coeliac disease can present withneurological symptoms:
    • Peripheral neuropathy
    • Cerebellar ataxia
    • Epilepsy
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64
Q

Describe the gold standard investigations for coeliac disease

A
  • Small bowel histology: endoscopy and duodenal biopsy is thegold-standarddiagnostic test
    • All patients with positive serology should be referred for biopsy
    • Classic findings include 1) villous atrophy; 2) crypt hyperplasia; 3) an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes; 4) lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes
    • The Marsh histological classification is used
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65
Q

Describe the first line investigations for coeliac disease

A

If possible, patients should beona gluten-containing diet for 6 weeks prior to investigations.

ALL new cases of type 1 diabetes are investigated, even if they don’t have symptoms as the conditions are often linked.

- **Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTG; IgA) and total IgA:**
    - **First-line**serological test is for IgA antibodies against tTG
    - Total IgA must also be measured as a small proportion of patients are IgA deficient, which would give a false negative anti-tTG measurement
- **Endomysial antibodies (IgA):**
    - **Second-line**serological test and performed if anti-tTG is weakly positive
    - **Anti-tTG, endomysial, or gliadin (IgG) antibodies:**
    - If patients are**IgA deficient**, then IgG antibodies against tTG, gliadin or endomysium can be measured
- **Anti-casein antibodies**:
    - Also found in some patients
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66
Q

What are other investigations to consider with coeliac disease

A
  • FBC: typically a microcytic anaemia. Alternatively, folate or vitamin B12 deficiency can result in macrocytic anaemia
  • Nutritional status:25-hydroxy vitamin D, calcium, iron studies, Vitamin B12, folate
  • Skin biopsy:if there is evidence of possible dermatitis herpetiformis
  • HLA testing:DQ2 or DQ8**testing is only performed in a specialist setting
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67
Q

Describe the management for coeliac disease

A

Gluten-free diet: this involves the avoidance of the following

  • Wheat: bread, pastry and pasta
  • Rye
  • Barley: beer (whisky is made using malted barley but issafeto drink as gluten is removed in the distillation process)
  • Oats: this remains controversial but may be required in some patients

Dietary supplements:

  • Patients should receive calcium, vitamin D and iron supplementationifthe patient’s diet is insufficient

Dietician input:

  • Patients may be offered input regarding their diet and risks associated with non-compliance with dietary measures

Refer to a specialist:

  • If symptoms persist despite a gluten-free diet or significant extra-intestinal manifestations, the patient may require referral to a gastroenterologist
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68
Q

What other management steps may be taken for coeliac patients

A

Vaccinations:

  • Due to functional hyposplenism, coeliac patients are at risk of pneumococcal infection so should all be offered vaccination, with a booster every 5 years;influenza vaccinationis offered on an individual basis
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69
Q

Describe the management for coeliac disease

A
  • Check-ups to instruct and monitor their gluten-free diet adherence.
  • DEXA scan to monitor osteoporotic risk
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70
Q

Describe the complications with coeliac disease

A

Osteopenia, anaemia, malignancy (T cell lymphoma, NHL), vitamin deficiency

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71
Q

Describe the prognosis for coeliac disease

A

Coeliac disease generally has a very good prognosis, with theresolution of symptoms in up to 90% of patients on a gluten-free diet. Rates of adherence have improved with the increased availability of gluten-free products.

The 10-30% of patients that remain symptomatic often have other intolerances such as lactose, fructose, sucrose, or sorbitol intolerance.

1-2% have refractory coeliac disease.

The importance of a gluten-free diet must be emphasised to patients, as the risk ofmalignancynormalises after a few years of gluten restriction. Villous atrophy and immunology usually reverse on a gluten-free diet.

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72
Q

Describe the layers of the GI tract

A

Normally, the wall of the entire gastrointestinal tract is made of 4 layers: the inner mucosa (innermost epithelial layer, a middle lamina propria, and outermost muscularis mucosa), the submucosa, a muscular layer, and an outer layer called the adventitia.

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73
Q

Describe the composition of the stomach mucosa

A
  • The epithelial layer is made up of cylindrical cells, which dive into the lamina propria, forming pits (gastric glands).
  • Among the cylindrical gland cells, there are different types of secretory cells:
    • G cells: secrete gastrin
    • Parietal cells: secrete HCl
    • Chief cells: secrete pepsinogen
  • There are also defence mechanisms:
    • Foveolar cells: secrete mucus containing bicarbonate
    • Rich in vessels: to get access to O2 and bicarbonate from the blood supply
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74
Q

Describe the composition of oesophageal mucosa

A
  • Made up of stratified squamous epithelium, which is better equipped to resist abrasion from food going down.
  • Epithelium doesn’t have defence mechanisms, like the stomach - so it’s more susceptible to acid damage.
  • Defence mechanism of the oesophagus:
    • Lower oesophageal sphincter: opens to pass food to stomach and closes to prevent acid reflux.
    • Saliva also helps to neutralise the acidity
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75
Q

Define gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

A

Reflux of stomach contents into the oesophagus.

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76
Q

Describe the epidemiology of GORD

A

In Western European and Northern American populations, the estimated prevalence is as high as 10-20%.

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77
Q

Describe the aetiology of GORD

A
  • Lower oesophageal hypotension
  • Oesophageal dysmotility
  • Gastric acid hypersecretion
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78
Q

Describe the risk factors of GORD

A
  • High BMI
  • Genetic association
  • Pregnancy
  • Smoking
  • NSAIDs, caffeine & alcohol
  • Other medication (may lower LOS pressure) e.g. antihistamines, calcium channel blockers, antidepressants, benzodiazepines, and glucocorticoids.
  • Hiatus hernia: part of the upper stomach pushes up through the diaphragm (lowering pressure of LOS)
  • Scleroderma: muscle of the lower oesophageal sphincter is replaced by connective tissue, so it can’t contract properly.
  • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: increased gastrin causes increased HCl secretion
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79
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of GORD

A

Physiology:

Normally the oesophagus propels food into the stomach by peristalsis. At the gastro-oesophageal junction, a sphincter relaxes to allow food to enter the stomach. This is known as thelower oesophageal sphincter(LOS). After entry, the sphincter contracts to prevent reflux of stomach contents.

If the LOS relaxes inappropriately (becomes loose due to drop in pressure), stomach content willwash back into the oesophagus. This is a normal physiological response in most people. The episodes are brief and do not causes symptoms.

Pathology:

When the pressure of the LOS gets lower, reflux persists for longer, becoming pathological. Persistentacid reflux damages the oesophageal mucosa, causing local inflammation, or oesophagitis. This in turn, causes oedema and erosion of the mucosa, which leads to more complications.

As the epithelium is damaged, it is replaced by scar, making the walls thicker and the lumen narrower (oesophageal stenosis).

As it’s damaged, there may also be a change in the cells of the epithelium (Barret’s oesophagus), and may even eventually lead to adenocarcinoma.

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80
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of GORD

A
  • Heartburn
    • Usually worse when lying down and after meals
  • Regurgitation
  • Dyspepsia
  • Chest pain/ retrosternal or epigastric pain
  • Bloating
  • Dysphagia(difficulty swallowing)
  • Odynophagia(painful swallowing)
  • Nausea and/or vomiting
  • Water brash: mouth fills with saliva
  • Cough: reflux goes into the respiratory tract
  • Hoarse voice: reflux goes into the respiratory tract
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81
Q

Describe the investigations for GORD

A
  • Can be diagnosed based on clinical presentation and based on whether PPI trial would resolve the symptoms
  • pH monitoring
    • 24-hour pH monitoring: small tube inserted through the nose and positioned in lower oesophagus. Can be combined with high resolution manometry (assesses motor abnormalities of the oesophagus).
    • Wireless pH capsules testing: insertion of pH capsule at gastro-oesophageal junction during endoscopy. Carry recording device to capture episodes. Will naturally fall off wall of oesophagus and pass through GI tract.
  • Endoscopy
    • Able to diagnose the presence of oesophagitis, Barrett’s oesophagus or an alternative diagnosis (i.e. oesophageal/gastric malignancy).
    • Usually reserved for patients with red flags symptoms, suspected complications, symptoms refractory to treatment or those being considered for surgery.
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82
Q

Describe the red flags for GORD

A
  • New onset dyspepsia(>55 years)
  • Weight loss
  • Dysphagia
  • Upper abdominal pain
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Symptoms refractory to treatment
  • Anaemia
  • Raised platelet count
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83
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis of GORD

A
  • Functional heartburn
  • Achalasia(failed relaxation of LOS)
  • Eosinophilic oesophagitis
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Non-ulcer dyspepsia
  • Malignancy
  • Pericarditis
  • Ischaemic heart disease
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84
Q

Describe the lifestyle changes patients need to make with GORD

A
  • Weight loss
  • Smoking cessation
  • Dietary modification: Smaller meals. Reduce tea, coffee, alcohol, spicy foods, fizzy drinks, chocolate
  • Patients should avoid eating within two hours of sleep
  • Patients should elevate the head of the bed
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85
Q

Describe the medical and surgical management for GORD patients

A
  • Medical
    • PPI: prevent acid production within the stomach through inhibition of H+/K+ ATPases in parietal cells.
    • H2 receptor antagonist e.g. ranitidine: reduces stomach acid
    • Antacids e.g. gaviscon: neutralise stomach acid
  • Surgical
    • Nissen fundoplication: wrapping the fundus of the stomach around the lower oesophagus to tighten the sphincter
      • SE: dysphagia, gas-bloat syndrome (inability to belch/vomit), new-onset diarrhoea
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86
Q

Describe the complications for GORD

A

Oesophageal:

  • Typical reflux syndrome
  • Reflux chest-pain syndrome
  • Reflux oesophagitis(inflammation and damage of oesophageal mucosa, which can lead to ulcers, bleeding and peptic stricture formation.)
  • Reflux stricture(narrowing of oesophagus, can cause dysphagia. May require dilatation or stenting.)
  • Barrett’s oesophagus(premalignant condition in the oesophagus due to columnar metaplasia)
  • Oesophageal adenocarcinoma

Extra-oesophageal:

  • Reflux cough syndrome
  • Reflux laryngitis syndrome: reflux goes all the way up to throat and down the larynx
  • Reflux asthma syndrome
  • Reflux dental erosion syndrome: acid refluxes far enough to erode the teeth enamel
  • Proposed associations: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, sinusitis, etc
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87
Q

Describe the prognosis for GORD

A

Most patients respond to treatment with proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs). Maintenance PPI therapy is recommended for those who have symptoms when the PPI is discontinued, as well as for those with erosive oesophagitis and Barrett’s oesophagus.

Most patients relapse off PPI therapy but this has to be balanced with the risk of long-term drug use.

Oesophageal adenocarcinoma may be a serious though rare complication of GORD.

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88
Q

Define Barret’s oesophagus

A

Barrett’s oesophagus describes metaplasia (transformation of one differentiated cell type to another differentiated cell type) of the lower oesophageal lining from stratified squamous epithelium to mucous secreting columnar epithelium with goblet cells.

Barrett’s is classified as short segment (< 3 cm) and long segment (> 3 cm).

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89
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Barret’s oesophagus

A
  • Around 1 in 10 patients who experience GORD have Barrett’s oesophagus on endoscopy
  • Estimated to affect 0.9-10% of the general population
  • M>F
  • More common in Caucasians
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90
Q

Describe the risk factors for Barret’s oesophagus

A
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease:the single greatest risk factor for developing Barrett’s oesophagus
  • Age
  • Male sex
  • Caucasian
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Family history
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91
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Barret’s oesophagus

A

The lower oesophagus marks the junction between oesophagus and stomach. Tonic contractions of the lower oesophageal sphincter, coupled with extrinsic compression of the right crus of the diaphragm, are important toprevent acidic stomach content from entering the oesophageal lumen.

These mechanisms are not perfect and a small amount of reflux of stomach content (i.e. the refluxate) is common, but usually not associated with symptoms. Prolonged exposure to the refluxate can lead to symptomaticgastro-oesophageal reflux disease, oesophagitis and erosions.

In addition, chronic damagecan lead to transformation of normal squamous epithelium into metaplasticcolumnar epithelial cells (Barret’s oesophagus)

Metaplasia is an adaptive response to acid in order to protect the oesophageal wall, however, it also predisposes to subsequent dysplasia and oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

Adenocarcinoma may occur through further reflux-associated DNAdamage, genetic alterations and uncontrolled cellular proliferation.

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92
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of Barret’s oesophagus

A

No specific symptoms or signs associated with Barrett’s oesophagus. It is typically diagnosed on endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.

  • Symptoms of GORD
    • Heartburn:
      • ‘Burning’ epigastric and retrosternal chest pain
      • Worse with spicy meals and lying flat
      • Wakes the patient up from sleep
    • Indigestion (dyspepsia)
    • Regurgitation: sour taste in mouth
    • Chest discomfort
    • Hoarseness of voice
    • Cough: reflux-induced
    • Dysphagia: suggestive of stricture or malignancy in context of BO
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93
Q

Describe the investigations for Barret’s oesophagus

A

Upper GI endoscopy (OGD) and biopsy:

  • Typically performed in patients with chronic GORDandadditional risk factors such as age and obesity
  • On endoscopy,normalstratified squamous epithelium is smooth and pale but, in Barrett’s, the squamocolumnar junction ispink-red
  • Biopsy isdiagnosticand reveals metaplasia fromsquamous to glandular columnar epitheliumin the distal oesophagus, which resembles the cardia of the stomach or small intestine, withgoblet cellsand abrush border
  • Biopsies should be quadrantic and at 2cm intervals (Seattle protocol): increases chance of detection
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94
Q

Describe the prague criteria classification for Barret’s oesophagus

A

The Prague criteria refers to the endoscopic description of BO, which is divided into two components:

  • Circumferential (C) extent: maximal circumferential height of BO
  • Maximal (M) length: refers to the longest segment of BO

and length:

  • Short segment Barrett’s(< 3cm)
  • Long segmentBarrett’s(> 3cm)
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95
Q

Describe the management for underlying reflux

A
  • Management of underlying reflux
    • Lifestyle changes:weight loss, smoking cessation, alcohol abstinence
    • Proton pump inhibitor:omeprazole or lansoprazole; usually high dose
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96
Q

Describe the management for non-dysplastic Barrett’s oesophagus

A

Repeat surveillance endoscopy: at least every 5 years or sooner depending on the length of oesophagus affected (usually every 3-5 years)

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97
Q

Describe management for low-grade dysplasia

A
  • Repeat endoscopy: every 6 months
  • Endoscopic therapy:radiofrequency ablation (to destroy epithelium and replace with new cells) or mucosal resection may be considered if high-grade dysplasia develops. If there is no longer any dysplasia over 2 consistent endoscopies, the patient can be followed-up under the non-dysplastic pathway.
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98
Q

Describe the management for high-grade dysplasia

A
  • Radiofrequency ablation:typically for flat lesions
  • Endoscopic mucosal resection:typically for raised lesions
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99
Q

Describe the management for adenocarcinoma

A

Oesophagectomy: surgical intervention is indicated in non-metastatic disease

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100
Q

Describe the complications with Barrett’s oesophagus

A
  • Associated with a50-100 foldincreased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.
  • Endoscopic complications: oesophageal rupture, or stricture development
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101
Q

Describe the prognosis for Barrett’s oesophagus

A

Oesophageal adenocarcinoma is unfortunately associated with a poor prognosis as it is often detected at an advanced stage. This explains the rationale behind surveillance of patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.

It is estimated that up to 13% of patients with Barrett’s oesophagus will develop oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

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102
Q

Describe the anatomy of the oesophagus

A

The oesophagus is a long tube going from the pharynx to the stomach, and it’s connected to the pharynx through the upper oesophageal sphincter, and to the stomach through the lower oesophageal sphincter.

Both relax during swallowing to allow the passage of food or liquids.

Additionally, the lower oesophageal sphincter is tightly closed between meals to prevent acid reflux.

The oesophageal wall has four layers - the adventitia; the muscular layer; the submucosa and the mucosa.

The mucosa comes into direct contact with food, and it protects the oesophageal wall from friction.

The mucosa also has three layers of its own: stratified squamous epithelium; the lamina propria; and the muscularis mucosae.

Finally, at the lower esophageal sphincter, the squamous epithelium joins the columnar gastric epithelium to form the gastroesophageal junction.

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103
Q

Define malignant oesophageal tumours

A

Oesophageal cancer is when malignant or cancerous cells arise in the oesophagus. It is divided into adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma.

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104
Q

Describe the epidemiology of malignant oesophageal tumours

A
  • M>F
  • Occurs mainly in those aged 60-70 years. Peak incidence around 80 years of age
  • Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type in the Western world, whilst SCC is more common in countries such as Japan.
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105
Q

Describe the general risk factors for malignant oesophageal tumours

A
  • Age > 60
  • Smoking
  • Achalasia
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106
Q

Describe the risk factors for adenocarcinoma

A
  • Barret’s oesophagus:metaplasia from squamous epithelium to mucus-secreting columnar epithelium secondary toGORD
  • Obesity
  • Male sex
  • Smoking
  • Rare causes:coeliac disease and scleroderma
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107
Q

Describe the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Smoking:more associated with SCC
  • Alcohol
  • Achalasia
  • Plummer-Vinson syndrome: rare disease characterised by difficulty swallowing, iron-deficiency anaemia, glossitis, cheilosis and oesophageal webs.
  • Palmoplantar keratoderma: thick patches of skin develop on the hands and feet.
  • Hot beverages
  • Nitrosamines(dietary)
  • Caustic strictures: strictures caused by caustic ingestions e.g. household bleach
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108
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of squamous cell carcinoma

A

Arises from squamous epithelium.

Most often in the upper two thirds.

When this epithelium is repeatedly exposed to risk factors like alcohol, cigarette smoke, or hot fluids, it gets damaged, so the squamous cells divide to replace the old damaged cells.

With each division, there is a risk that a mutation can occur. Mutations can occur in tumour suppressor genes or proto-oncogenes.

When this happens, squamous cells start dividing uncontrollably, and more mutations accumulate with each division.

Eventually, these mutations might make the cells malignant.

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109
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of oseophageal adenocarcinomas

A

Adenocarcinoma arises from columnar glandular epithelium.

Most often in the lower third of the oesophagus.

Most frequently, adenocarcinoma develops as a consequence of GORD

With GORD, the lower oesophageal sphincter is weaker than normal, and it allows acid from the stomach to go back up into the oesophagus after meals.

The presence of acid in the oesophagus can lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which is when the squamous epithelium lining the oesophagus undergo metaplasia.

Over time, mutations might accumulate in either tumour suppressor genes or proto-oncogenesthat control the division of thesemetaplastic cells, ultimately resulting in a malignant tumour.

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110
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of malignant oesophageal tumours

A

Patients often present late and have unresectable disease on presentation.

  • Signs
    • Lymphadenopathy
    • Vocal cord paralysis
    • Melaena on digital rectal examination: due to bleeding oesophageal cancer
  • Symptoms
    • Progressive dysphagia (solids then liquids): most common feature
    • Regurgitation
    • Pyrosis (heartburn)
    • Pain in chest or back
    • Odynophagia
    • Weight loss and anorexia
    • Hoarseness: with recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement
    • Vomiting
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111
Q

Describe the investigations for malignant oesophageal tumours

A
  • 1st line
    • Upper GI endoscopy (OGD) and biopsy: first-line investigation and allows for visualisation of masses and biopsy
  • Staging investigations
    • Barium swallow: to see strictures
    • CT chest, abdomen and pelvis (CAP): first-linestaginginvestigation in order to detect metastatic disease
    • Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS):NICE suggests considering staging ultrasound to guide further management. It can aid detection of local invasion and lymphatic spread
    • Staging laparoscopy: NICE suggests considering staging laparoscopy to guide further management. It may aid in detecting occult peritoneal disease
    • PET CT: offered to all patients with oesophageal cancer who are suitable for curative surgery to rule out metastasis
    • HER2 testing: patients with HER2-positive metastatic oesophageal cancer may be responsive to trastuzumab(Herceptin)
  • StagingStaged using TNM
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112
Q

Describe the management for localised adenocarcinomas

A
  • Endoscopic mucosal resection:only for very early lesions or for Barrett’s oesophagus
  • Ivor Lewis oesophagectomy:the most common procedure and performed forlower thirdlesions. The stomach is mobilised into the thorax with the formation of an intrathoracic oesophagogastric anastomosis. Involves a lateral thoracotomy (incision to chest), and laparotomy (incision to abdomen)
  • McKeown oesophagectomy:performed forproximaltumours. The stomach is mobilised into the thorax with the formation of a cervical oesophagogastric anastomosis. Involves an incision in the neck, lateral thoracotomy, and laparotomy
  • Transhiatal oesophagectomy:carried out fordistaltumours. The stomach is mobilised into the thorax with the formation of a cervical oesophagogastric anastomosis. Involves an incision in the neck and laparotomy
  • Chemotherapy:offered toallsurgical patients preoperatively (neoadjuvant) and may be given post-operatively (adjuvant)
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113
Q

Describe the management for squamous cell carcinoma

A

Radical chemoradiotherapy: localised SCC can be treated with curative chemoradiotherapy, although surgical resection may be offered

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114
Q

Describe the management for advanced or metastatic disease

A
  • Palliation: stenting for dysphagia
  • Chemotherapy or chemoradiotherapy: platinum-based agents
  • Trastuzumab (Herceptin): for HER2 positive metastatic oesophageal cancer, in combination with chemotherapy
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115
Q

Describe the complications with malignant oesophageal tumours

A

Cancer-related:

  • Tracheo-oesophageal or broncho-oesophageal fistula: when the cancer invades and perforates the entire oesophageal wall, it can invade the trachea in front of it, forming a fistula. This can cause pulmonary aspiration of oesophageal contents, which may cause symptoms like coughing and dyspnea.
  • Aspiration pneumonia:oesophageal obstruction may result in aspiration
  • Metastasis:lymph nodes, liver, lung, bones. If the cancer spreads to the diaphragm, it can cause hiccups.

Oesophagectomy-related:

  • Anastomotic leak: A leak may result in mediastinitis, which is associated with considerable morbidity and mortality and can result in profound sepsis
    • Ivor-lewis oesophagectomy: potentially catastrophic if an anastomotic leak occurs, due to leakage of contents into the thorax (mediastinitis)
    • McKeown oesophagectomy: the complications of a leak are less severe as the anastomosis is in the neck so it does not result in mediastinitis
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury: proximity of this nerve to the oesophagus places it at risk, either due to invasion of the tumour or iatrogenic injury
  • Delayed gastric emptying:thought to be caused by bilateral vagotomy (one or more branches of the vagus nerve are cut) during the procedure which impairs gastric motility
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116
Q

Describe the prognosis of malignant oesophageal tumours

A

Unfortunately, the majority of oesophageal cancers are diagnosed at an advanced stage.

5-year survival is 15% but those who are diagnosed with early-stage disease have a survival rate of 55%

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117
Q

Describe the epidemiology of benign oesophageal tumours

A
  • Account for 1% of all oesophageal tumours
  • Leiomyomas are most common
  • Papillomas
  • Fibrovascular polyps
  • Haemangiomas
  • Lipomas
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118
Q

Describe the epidemiology of leiomyomas

A

Leiomyomas:

  • Smooth muscle tumours arising from the oesophageal wall
  • They are intact, well encapsulated and are within the overlying mucosa
  • Slow growing
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119
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of benign oesophageal tumours

A
  • Usually asymptomatic, found incidentally on barium swallow
  • Dysphagia
  • Retrosternal pain
  • Food regurgitation
  • Recurrent chest infections
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120
Q

Describe the investigations for benign oesophageal tumours

A
  • Endoscopy and biopsy: to rule out malignancy
  • Barium swallow
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121
Q

Describe the management for oesophageal tumours

A
  • Endoscopic removal
  • Surgical removal of larger tumours
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122
Q

What is a barium swallow

A

Also called an esophagogram and is an imaging test that checks for problems in your upper GI tract

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123
Q

What are the 4 regions of the stomach

A

The stomach has four regions: the cardia, the fundus, the body, and the pyloric antrum.

There’s also a pyloric sphincter at the end of the stomach, which closes while eating, keeping food inside for the stomach to digest.

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124
Q

What are the 4 layers of the gastric wall

A

The gastric wall is made up of four layers:

The adventitia; the muscular layer; the submucosa; and the mucosa.

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125
Q

Describe the layers of the mucosa

A

The mucosa has three layers of its own.

  • The innermost layer is the epithelial layer and it absorbs and secretes mucus and digestive enzymes.
  • The middle layer is the lamina propria and it has blood, lymph vessels, and mucosa associated lymphoid tissue, which are nodules of immune cells called lymphocytes, in charge of eliminating pathogens that could pass through the epithelial layer.
  • The outermost layer of the mucosa is the muscularis mucosa, and it’s a layer of smooth muscle that contracts and helps with the break down food.
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126
Q

Describe the epithelial layer of the stomach and the cells within it

A

The epithelial layer dips down below the surface of the stomach lining to form gastric pits. And these pits are contiguous with gastric glands below which contain various epithelial cell types, each secreting a variety of substances.

  • Foveolar cells secrete mucus
  • Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid
  • Chief cells secrete pepsinogen
  • G cells secrete gastrin
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127
Q

Describe the types of gastric cancer

A

Gastric cancer is when malignant or cancerous cells arise in the stomach.

This cancer can appear in any part of the stomach and it’s classified into adenocarcinoma (most common), lymphoma, carcinoid tumour, and leiomyosarcoma; depending on the type of cells it originates from.

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128
Q

Define gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Gastric adenocarcinomas arise from columnar glandular epithelium (adeno = gland)

Adenocarcinomas are divided into intestinal, or well-differentiated adenocarcinoma; and diffuse, or undifferentiated adenocarcinoma. Intestinal is the most common!

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129
Q

Describe the epidemiology of gastric adenocarcinoma

A
  • Gastric cancer is most common in Japan and is the 5th most common cancer worldwide.
  • Other countries with a high incidence include China, Finland and Colombia.
  • Whilst the overall incidence is decreasing, the incidence of tumours affecting the cardia is increasing.
  • Currently, cancers of the antrum remain the commonest.
  • M>F
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130
Q

Describe the risk factors of gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Modifiable risk factors:

  • H. pylori infection: commonest cause, accounting for 60% of cases
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Diet: smoked and preserved foods (N-nitroso compounds), nitrosamines; salty and spicy foods
  • Obesity

Non-modifiable risk factors:

  • Male gender: gastric cancer is twice as common in males
  • Increasing age: peak age of diagnosis is 70-80 years old
  • Family history
  • Pernicious anaemia: associated with a 2- to 3-fold increased risk of gastric cancer
  • Blood type A
  • Gastric adenomatous polyps: most common neoplastic polyp
  • Lynch syndrome II: hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
  • Autoimmune gastritis: immune system attacks the parietal cells, causing inflammation
  • Achlorhydria: decreased or lack of gastric acid production
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131
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of intestinal type gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Most commonly caused by H.pylori

H.pylori releases virulence factors, such as cagA, that go inside the epithelial cells and cause extensive damage.

The immune system detects this damage and cause an inflammatory response within the gastric lining, causinggastritis. The infection persists, leading to chronic gastritis.

The normal epithelium of the stomach gets continuously damaged and repaired. Over time, the stomach cells in the epithelium undergo metaplasia. These metaplastic cells might accumulate mutations in the genes that are in charge of thecell cycle and cell division.

Tumor suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes can experience mutations and the metaplastic cells divide uncontrollably and may become malignant.

Intestinal types are well differentiated - meaning they resemble normal intestinal cells.

This type typically appears on the lesser curvature of the antrum as a large, irregular ulcer, with heaped up edges.

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132
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Appear in any part of the stomach

Mostly related to genetic mutations in the CDH1 gene, a tumor suppressor gene that codes for a membrane adhesion molecule called E-cadherin. Normally, E-cadherin helps epithelial cells stick to one another and it also transmits signals that control the progression of cell cycle.

When E-cadherin isn’t working properly, cells detach and starts dividing uncontrollably.

This type of adenocarcinoma has an increased ability to spread and invade adjacent structures, so it’s way more aggressive than the intestinal type.

This type can cause gastric linitis plastica, where the stomach wall grow thick and hard and look like a leather bottle, as the cancer invades the connective tissue of the submucosa.

Histologically, there’s ‘signet ring cells’: they look like a signet ring because the cytoplasm has giant vacuoles that push the nucleus to the edge of the cell.

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133
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Early stages may be asymptomatic so many patients present late!

  • Signs
    • Iron deficiency anaemia: koilonychia (spoon nails), pallor, angular cheilitis (swollen patches in corner of mouth)
    • Palpable mass
    • Melaena on digital rectal examination
    • Acanthosis nigricans: darkening of the skin at the axilla and other skin folds.
    • Troisier’s sign: an enlarged, hard Virchow’s node (left supraclavicular node)
    • Leser-Trelat sign: sudden onset seborrhoeic keratosis (brown patches on skin)
    • Polyarteritis nodosa: inflammation, weakening, and damage to small and medium-sized arteries.
    • Trousseau syndrome: blood clotting disorder
  • Symptoms
    • Malaise
    • Loss of appetite
    • Anorexia and weight loss
    • Dyspepsia
    • Abdominal pain
    • Difficulty swallowing
    • Early satiety
    • Nausea and vomiting
    • May be malaena and haematamesis: if cancer ulcerates and bleeds
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134
Q

What are the investigations for gastric adenocarcinoma

A
  • 1st line
    • Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy: ulcer with heaped-up edges is a common presentation
  • Staging investigations
    • CT chest, abdomen and pelvis (CAP): if biopsy reveals malignancy, CT imaging is usually the first-line staging investigation to detect metastatic disease
    • PET: offered after CT when metastatic disease is suspected and assists with staging
    • Staging laparoscopy:allpatients with potentially curable disease should have a staging laparoscopy to exclude occult peritoneal metastasis
    • Endoscopic ultrasound:assists with staging, particularly for patients where curative surgery is being considered; recent evidence suggests it may be superior to CT
    • HER2 testing: patients with HER2-positive metastatic gastric cancer may be responsive to trastuzumab(Herceptin)
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135
Q

Describe the TNM classification of gastric adenocarcinoma

A
  • TNM classification preferred for gastric tumoursT = tumour size and local extension, N = lymph node metastases, and M = distant metastases.Each of these categories have substages: T0 to T4, from N0 to N3, and M0 or M1, and the combinations of these substages determine the oesophageal cancerstage, from 0 to IV. The higher the number, the more the cancer has invaded and spread.e.g. T1N0M0 = invasion of submucosa but no spread to lymph nodes or distal organs
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136
Q

Describe the Siewert’s classification for gastro-oesophageal tumours

A

Type 1 - carcinoma of the distal oesophagus associated with Barrett’s oesophagus, which infiltrates the GOJ from above and located 1-5cm above the gastric cardia

Type 2 - junctional carcinoma of the cardia. Located 1cm above or 2cm below the gastric cardia; true GOJ tumour

Type 3 subcardial cancer, which indiltrates the GOJ from below and is located 2-5cm below the gastric cardia

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137
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for gastric adenocarcinoma

A
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Oesophageal stricture
  • Achalasia
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138
Q

Describe the management for localised gastric adenocarcinoma

A
  • Oesophagogastrectomy: for type 2 GOJ tumours that extend into the oesophagus
  • Total gastrectomy: for proximal tumours within 5cm from the GOJ
  • Sub-total gastrectomy: if the tumour is >5cm from the GOJ
  • Endoscopic submucosal resection: if the tumour is early and confined to the mucosa this may be appropriate but remains controversial
  • D2 lymph node dissection: should be considered inallpatients undergoing a curative gastrectomy
  • Chemotherapy: offer chemotherapy before and after surgery toallpatients with gastric cancer
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139
Q

Describe the management for advanced or metastatic gastric adenocarcinomas

A
  • Chemotherapy or chemoradiotherapy: usually a combination of a platinum compound and fluorouracil
  • Palliative gastrectomy
  • Trastuzumab (Herceptin): for HER2 positive metastatic gastric cancer, in combination with chemotherapy
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140
Q

Describe the complications with gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Cancer-related:

  • Bleeding: patients may present with melaena from a bleeding gastric tumour
  • Gastric outlet obstruction: tumour blocks the gastric outlet causing non-bilious post-prandial (after a meal) vomiting
  • Perforation: ulceration of a neoplastic lesion can weaken the stomach wall and if left untreated could lead to perforation
  • Metastasis: Virchow’s node (left supraclavicular node), lung, liver, peritoneum, ovaries (Krukenberg tumour)
  • Leser-Trélat sign: seborrheic keratosis, or brownish spots all over the skin. Results from the stimulation of keratinocytes by growth factors produced by the gastric cancer cells.
  • Polyarteritis nodosa: inflammation and necrosis of multiple medium-sized arteries, including those that supply the kidneys and the heart
  • Trousseau syndrome: cancer cells stimulate vascular and inflammatory cells to release tissue factor, which then activates the coagulation cascade; therefore, there’s an increase in blood coagulability that leads to thrombosis, or generation of blood clots.
  • Pseudoachalasia syndrome: if gastric cancer grows near the gastro-oesophageal junction, it can cause a stricture that makes it difficult for food and liquids to pass through from the oesophagus into the stomach
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141
Q

Describe the complications of gastrectomy to treat gastric adenocarcinoma

A
  • Malabsorption:
    • Vitamin B12 deficiency (reduced intrinsic factor)
    • Iron deficiency due to reduced conversion of Fe2+to Fe3+in the stomach and hence reduced absorption
  • Small bowel bacterial overgrowth:post gastrectomy, a blind-ending bowel loop is created to allow the gall bladder to drain into. Bacterial overgrowth within this portion of the bowel can lead to malabsorption
  • Dumping syndrome: occurs when sugar moves too quickly into the small bowel and associated with gastrectomy
    • Early dumping syndrome:occurs 30 mins after a meal as fluid moves into the intestine due to the high osmotic load, resulting in dizziness and palpitations
    • Late dumping syndrome: occurs 2 hours after a meal. As glucose is rapidly absorbed in the intestine, this causes reactive hyperinsulinaemia and subsequent hypoglycaemia
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142
Q

Describe the prognosis for gastric adenocarcinoma

A

The 5-year survival for early localised disease is approximately 70%, which decreases to 5% for patients with metastatic disease.

Unfortunately, the majority of gastric cancers are at an advanced stage at diagnosis as it often presents with vague, non-specific symptoms. So is associated with poor prognosis.

Early gastric cancer has a 90% 5 year survival

Stage 1 has a 65% 5 year survival

Stage 2 has a 36% 5 year survival

Stage 3 has a 24% 5 year survival

143
Q

Describe lymphomas

A
  • Lymphoma arises from lymphocytes found in MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue).
  • These cells, more specifically B-cells, are in charge of recognising and responding to any pathogen that crossed past the epithelial layer.
  • Infection e.g. chronic H.pyloriinfection, can cause excessive B-cellproliferation, which makes these cells more prone to have mutations and develop lymphoma.
  • Histologically, it usually appears as diffuse lymphocytes surrounding the normal lymphoid nodules and epithelial cells.
144
Q

Describe carcinoid tumour

A
  • Originates in the neuroendocrine cell e.g. G-cells of the stomach.
  • It’s a well differentiated tumour, that usually appear as a protruding mass from the mucosa, called a polyp.
  • Although it mainly appears in the stomach, it can also arise in other parts of the digestive tract like the intestine or the pancreas, which also have G-cells.
145
Q

Describe leiomyosarcoma

A
  • Leiomyosarcoma arises from smooth muscle cells from the gastric wall.
  • Extremely rare.
  • Under the microscope, cancerous cells can look like spindle, epithelial, or undifferentiated cells.
146
Q

Describe the development of tumours in the small intestine

A
  • Small intestine is relatively resistant to the development of neoplasia
  • Quite a rare place for cancer to develop - 1% of all malignancies
  • Adenocarcinoma is the most common tumour of the small intestine, accounting for up to 50% of primary tumours
147
Q

Describe where lymphomas are most commonly found

A

Lymphomas (Non-Hodgkin’s type- B or T cell origin) are most frequently found in the ileum and are less common than adenocarcinomas

148
Q

What are the risk factors of malignant small bowel tumours

A
  • Coeliac disease
  • Crohn’s disease
149
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of malignant small bowel tumours

A
  • Pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Anorexia and weight loss
  • Anaemia
  • May be a palpable mass
150
Q

Describe the investigations for malignant small bowel tumours

A
  • Ultrasound
  • Endoscopic biopsy to histologically confirm diagnosis
  • CT scan: may show small bowel wall thickening and lymph node involvement - seen in lymphoma
151
Q

Describe the management for malignant small bowel tumours

A
  • Surgical resection
  • Radiotherapy
152
Q

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A
  • Due to germline mutation in tumour suppressor gene STK11
  • Autosomal dominant condition with mucocutaneous pigmentation and hamartomatous (benign, local malformation of cells) GI polyps
  • Polyps may occur anywhere in the GI tract – most common in small bowel
  • May bleed or cause intussusception or may undergo malignant change
153
Q

What are the types of benign small bowel tumours

A

Small bowel cancer is very rare

  • Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
  • Adenomas, leiomyomas and lipomas are rare
  • Familial adenomatous polyposis
154
Q

How is the large intestine subdivided

A

Intraperitoneal space - first part of the duodenum, small intestines, transverse colon, sigmoid colon and rectum

Retroperitoneal space - distal duodenum, ascending colon, descending colon and anal canal

155
Q

Define a colonic polyps

A

A colonic polyp is an abnormal growth of tissue projecting from the colonic mucosa.

Polyps range from a few millimetres to several centimetres and are single or multiple

156
Q

Describe the epidemiology of colonic polyps

A

Polyp presence increases with age and is rare before 30 yrs

157
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of colonic polyps

A

Mutations in genes e.g. APC gene or DNA repair genes, allow cells to grow unchecked and accumulate further mutations. As they replicate, a growth is formed, known as a polyp.

There are many different types of polyps, and some are more prone to become malignant; these are called pre-malignant or neoplastic polyps.

These pre-malignant polyps can be classified into adenomatous and serrated, according to how they look under the microscope.

Typically, adenomatous polyps have an APC mutation and the cells look like normal colonic mucosa cells, whereas serrated polyps have defects in DNA repair genes and have a saw-tooth appearance.

158
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of colonic polyps

A
  • Most polyps are asymptomatic and found by chance
  • Polyps in the rectum or sigmoid colon often present with bleeding
159
Q

Describe the management of colonic polyps

A

Polyps are removed at colonoscopy to reduce development into cancer risk

160
Q

Define colorectal cancer

A

Colorectal carcinoma is a neoplastic growth in the colon or rectum. The majority are adenocarcinomas.

161
Q

Describe the TNM and Dukes’ staging used for colorectal cancer

A

TNM stage up to T1, N0,M0 = Duke’s stage A = Limited to the submucosa

TNM up to T4, N0M0 = Duke’s stage B = B1: limited to muscular layer B2: growth through serosal layer (transmural)

Any T, N1/N2, M0 = Duke’s stage C = local lymph node involvement

Any T, any N, M1 = Duke’s stage D = distant metastatic spread

162
Q

Describe the epidemiology of colorectal cancer

A
  • Colorectal cancer is the fourth most common UK cancers, behind breast, prostate and lung.
  • It is the most common type of cancer of the gastrointestinal tract.
  • There are 42,300 new cases in the UK each year.
  • 90% of cases are seen in those aged 50 years and above.
  • M>F
  • More common in Western countries than in Asia or Africa
163
Q

Describe the aetiology of colorectal cancer

A
  • Around 95% are sporadic mutations
  • Others can be due to inherited conditions
    • Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
    • Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)/ lynch syndrome
    • Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (hamartomatous polyposis)
164
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and hereditary non-poluposis colon cancer (HNPCC)

A

Autosomal dominant

165
Q

Describe the prevalence rate of FAP and HNPCC

A

FAP = 1% of all colorectal cancers

HNPCC = 5% of all colorectal cancers

166
Q

Describe the peak age of onset for FAP and HNPCC

A

FAP = 20-40 yrs old
HNPCC = >40 yrs old

167
Q

Describe the risk factors of colorectal cancer

A
  • Increasing age
  • Male
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Red or processed meats
  • Diet low in fibre
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Polyps
  • Hereditary conditions:FAP, HNPCC, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
168
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of colorectal cancer

A
  • Most cases of colorectal tumours happen because of sporadic mutations
  • A small number are caused by known inherited genetic mutations:
    • Adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC) mutations:
      • APC is a tumour suppressor gene. Normally, the APC protein identifies when a cell is accumulating a lot of mutations and forces it to undergo apoptosis, or programmed cell death.
      • When the APC gene is mutated, the mutated bowel cells don’t die, and instead some start dividing uncontrollably, giving rise to polyps.
      • Over time, these polyps might accumulate more mutations in other tumour suppressor genes like the K-ras gene or the p53 gene, and ultimately it might might become a malignant tumour.
    • Genetic mutations in DNA repair genes (e.g. MLH-1 and MSH-2)
      • When DNA repair genes are mutated - cells accumulate mutations and over time can develop into polyps and eventually adenocarcinomas.
  • Essentially, adenocarcinomas are the malignant evolution of polyps, and polyps arise when cells start dividing faster than usual.
  • The rectum is the most common site (40%), followed by the sigmoid (30%), descending colon (5%), transverse colon (10%), and ascending colon and caecum (15%).
  • Cancers can also metastasise depending on the stage of their disease. The most common site of metastasis for colon cancer is the liver, and for rectal cancer it’s the lungs.
169
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of right sided colorectal cancer

A

Right-sided tumours are often asymptomatic, with the majority of patients presenting with incidental iron-deficiency anaemia.

  • Signs
    • Iron deficiency anaemia: koilonychia, pallor, angular cheilitis
    • May be very largewithoutevident symptoms or signs
  • Symptoms
    • Progressive change in bowel habit: diarrhoea or constipation; more prominent in left-sided tumours
    • Abdominal discomfort
    • Symptoms of large bowel obstruction: more common in left-sided tumours
    • Constitutional symptoms e.g. weight loss
    • Dyspnoea and fatigue
170
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of left sided colorectal cancer

A

Left-sided tumours are particularly associated with a change in bowel habit and have higher rates of rectal bleeding and large bowel obstruction.

  • Signs
    • Rectal mass
    • Anaemia is rare
  • Symptoms
    • Progressive change in bowel habit: diarrhoea or constipation; more prominent in left-sided tumours
    • Abdominal discomfort
    • Symptoms of large bowel obstruction: more common in left-sided tumours
      • Obstruction causes colicky abdominal pain, constipation, blood-streaked stools if stool is passed, abdominal distension, vomiting (faeculent)
    • Constitutional symptoms e.g. weight loss
    • Rectal bleeding and tenesmus
171
Q

Describe the primary investigations for colorectal cancer

A
  • FBC: may demonstrate microcytic anaemia(iron-deficiency)
  • U&Es: renal function may be deranged in advanced pelvic disease
  • LFTs: liver function may be deranged in metastatic disease
  • Colonoscopy and biopsy: gold standard investigation for diagnosis, and may demonstrate an ulcerating lesion, mucosal lesion that narrows the bowel lumen, or a polyp
  • CT colonography: CT with bowel prep and contrast to visualise the colon. Consider in patient less fit for colonoscopy
  • CT chest, abdomen and pelvis (CAP): if a biopsy is diagnostic of malignancy, a CT CAP must be performed for staging.
  • Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): a serum tumour marker used tomonitor disease progression; it isnotdiagnostic and should only be performed following confirmation of diagnosis
172
Q

What further investigations may be considered for colorectal cancer

A

MRI: may be used as an alternative to CT and is sometimes preferred for staging of rectal cancers. PET scan is not routine

173
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for colorectal cancer

A
  • IBS
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Haemorrhoids
  • Anal fissure
  • Diverticular disease
174
Q

Describe the screening for colorectal cancer

A
  • NHS home screening test to detect traces of blood in stool
    • The two types of test are the Faecal Occult Blood (FOB) test and Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
  • Screening sigmoidoscopy
    • Colonoscopy may be offered based on findings
175
Q

Describe the intial management for colorectal cancer

A

Iron replacement: should be started immediately for patients with iron deficiency anaemia whilst awaiting for further investigations

176
Q

Describe the elective treatment for colorectal cancer

A
  • Neoadjuvant therapy:for locally advanced or metastatic tumours
    • Colon cancer:chemotherapy
    • Rectal cancer:radiotherapy (T3 and above) or chemoradiotherapy (rectal cancer is amenable to radiotherapy as it is an extraperitoneal structure)
  • Surgical resection:for all stages of colorectal cancer
    • If the cancer is metastatic, the primary tumour, along with metastases to the liver and lung, can still be resected as this has been shown to improve survival
      Adjuvant chemotherapy:for locally advanced or metastatic tumours
177
Q

Describe the complications with colorectal cancer

A

Cancer-related

  • Metastasis: most commonly to the liver, lung, and peritoneum
  • Large bowel obstruction:colorectal cancer is the commonest cause; requiring resection in colon cancer or a defunctioning colostomy in rectal cancer

Treatment-related

  • Surgical complications: such as anastomotic leak, perforation, sepsis. Rates of anastomotic leak are higher for left-sided tumours, which is why a Hartmann’s procedure is often performed
178
Q

Describe the prognosis for colorectal cancer

A

Early localised disease has a 5-year survival between 95% and 100%, whilst metastatic disease has a survival between 5% and 10%.

Serum CEA is used to monitor disease progression and the effectiveness of treatment.

179
Q

Describe the cell layers of the inner wall of the entire GI

A

The inner wall of the entire GIis lined with mucosa, which has three cell layers.

  • The innermost epithelial layer absorbs and secretes mucus and digestive enzymes.
  • The middle lamina propria contains blood and lymph vessels.
  • The outermost muscularis mucosa, a layer of smooth muscle that contracts and helps break down food.
180
Q

Describe the regions of the stomach

A

In the stomach, there are four regions - the cardia, the fundus, the body, and the antrum. The epithelial layer in different parts of the stomach contains different proportions of gastric glands which secrete various substances.

181
Q

Describe the cells and their secretions of the cardia, fundus, body, antrum and duodenum

A
  • The cardia contains mostly foveolar cells that secrete mucus
  • The fundus and the body have mostly parietal cells that secrete hydrochloric acid and chief cells that secrete pepsinogen, an enzyme that digests protein.
  • The antrum has mostly G cells that secrete gastrin in response to food entering the stomach. (These G cells are also found in the duodenum and the pancreas). Gastrin stimulates the parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid, and more broadly stimulates the growth of glands throughout the stomach.
  • The duodenum also contains Brunner glands which secrete mucus rich in bicarbonate ions, to neutralise the acid.
182
Q

How else is stomach acid neutralised by the blood, duodenum and stomach

A

In addition, the blood flowing to the stomach and duodenum brings in even more bicarbonate which helps neutralise the hydrochloric acid.

The stomach and duodenum also secrete prostaglandins which stimulate mucus and bicarbonate secretion, vasodilate the nearby blood vessels allowing more blood to flow to the area, promote new epithelial cell growth, and also inhibit acid secretion.

183
Q

Define peptic ulcer disease

A

A break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum more than 5 mm in diameter. Duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers.

184
Q

Describe the epidemiology of peptic ulcer disease

A
  • M>F
  • Estimated lifetime prevalence for men estimated at 11–20% and for women at 8–11%
  • More common with increasing age
  • More common in developing countries due to Helicobacter pylori
185
Q

Describe the aetiology of peptic ulcer disease

A

A result of an imbalance between factors promoting mucosal damage (gastric acid,H. pylori, NSAIDs) and those promoting gastroduodenal defence (prostaglandins, mucus, bicarbonate).

  • H. pylori**:causes chronic inflammation which breaks down protective layer; responsible for themajority of peptic ulcers**(95% of duodenal ulcers and 75% of gastric ulcers).
  • NSAIDs: inhibit cyclo-oxygenase (COX) resulting in reduced prostaglandin which normally reduces acid secretion and increases mucus production
  • Other drugs: SSRIs, corticosteroids and bisphosphonates. These break down the protective layer.
  • Smoking and alcohol: may lead to increased acid.
  • Caffeine: may lead to increased acid.
  • Stress: may lead to increased acid.
  • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome:a gastrinoma (tumour) that results in numerous peptic ulcers due to elevated gastrin levels
  • Blood type O
  • Raised intracranial pressure:causes vagal stimulation which increases acid production (Cushing’s ulcer).
  • Severe burn:hypovolaemia secondary to a burn causes reduced perfusion of the stomach leading to necrosis (Curling ulcer)
186
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease

A

the protective layer of the stomach and duodenum is comprised of mucus and bicarbonate and secrete by stomach mucosa. NSAIDs and H. Pylori break down the protective layer by decreasing mucus production. an increase in stomach acid causes ulceration. Alcohol, caffeine, stress increase stomach acid.
Gastric ulcers - Lesser curvature of antrum. Duodenal ulcers - 1st part of duodenum

187
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of peptic ulcer disease

A
  • Signs
    • Evidence of bleeding
      • Hypotension and tachycardia (shock)
      • Melaena on rectal examination
    • Epigastric tenderness
    • Pallor, if anaemic
  • Symptoms
    • ‘Burning’ epigastric pain
      • Pain relieved by eating and worse when hungry:duodenal ulcer
      • Pain worsened by eating:gastric ulcer
    • Nausea and vomiting
    • Haematemesis or melaena
    • Dyspepsia (indigestion)
    • Reduced appetite and weight loss
    • Anaemia: due to bleeding
    • Fatigue
188
Q

Describe the investigations for peptic ulcer disease

A
  • No active bleeding
    • H. pyloribreath test and/or stool antigen
      • Breath test: measures CO2 in breath after ingesting C-urea
      • Stool antigen: monoclonal antibodies for detection of H. pylori
      • Patients must be PPI-free for 2 weeks and antibiotic-free for 4 weeks as this may give a false negative
      • Serology(for IgG) isonlyused if breath test and stool antigen are unavailable
    • Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy:
      • Gold standard diagnostic test for visualisation, and biopsy:
        • Excludes malignancy
        • Rapid urease test ‘clo test’: to check for H. pylori (H.pylori produces urease)
      • Notroutinely performed for non-bleeding ulcers
    • Fasting gastrin level: if suspected Zollinger-Ellison syndrome e.g. recurrent or treatment-resistant peptic ulcers
  • If active bleeding
    • FBC: assess the extent of anaemia
    • U&Es: urea is raised in an upper GI bleed (protein in RBCs is digested into urea in the GI tract), whilst pre-renal acute kidney injury may also be present
    • LFTs and coagulation profile:**assess severity of liver disease
    • Venous blood gas: can be analysed within minutes and provides an estimate of the Hb. Also, a raised lactate suggests poor tissue perfusion and is associated with a significant bleed
    • Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy: diagnostic and therapeutic. All gastric ulcers should be biopsied as they can potentially be malignant
    • Erect CXR:if concerned about perforation, an erect CXR may demonstrate pneumomediastinum
189
Q

Describe the management for peptic ulcer disease

A

The core aspects of treating peptic ulcers are:

Stopping NSAIDs
Treating H. pylori infections with triple therapy
Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., lansoprazole or omeprazole)

190
Q

Describe the complications of peptic ulcer disease

A
  • Perforation: life-threatening as ulcer penetrates the duodenum or stomach into the peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis. May also allow air to collect under the diaphragm and irritate the phrenic nerve causing referred shoulder pain. Requires surgical intervention!
  • Gastric outlet obstruction/ pyloric stenosis: caused by obstruction of the pylorus due to an ulcer and subsequent scarring. Presents with abdominal pain, distension, vomiting and nausea after eating
191
Q

Describe the prognosis of peptic ulcer disease

A

ForH. pylori-negative peptic ulcers, if adequate acid suppression is offered thenmost duodenal ulcers heal in 4 weeks and gastric ulcers in 8-10 weeks.

For ulcers related to NSAID use, discontinuing NSAID use is associated with low ulcer recurrence. If NSAIDs continue, a PPI must be offered alongside it.

ForH. pylori-positive peptic ulcers, duodenal ulcer recurrence is 20% and gastric ulcer recurrence is 30% post-eradication

192
Q

Define appendicitis

A

Inflammation of the appendix located at McBurney’s point (2/3 between from umbilicus to ASIS)

193
Q

Describe the epidemiology of appendicitis

A
  • Appendicitis is the most common acute abdominal condition in the UK requiring surgery
  • The highest incidence is between 10-20 years of age
  • M>F
194
Q

Describe the risk factors for appendicitis

A
  • Young age:the highest incidence is between 10-20 years of age
  • Male
  • Frequent antibiotic use:causes an imbalance in gut flora and a modified response to subsequent infection which may trigger appendicitis
  • Smoking
195
Q

Describe the aetiology of appendicitis

A

Faecolith (calcified faecal deposits) most common. Foreign bodies, intestinal worms/pinworm, lymphoid hyperplasia

196
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of appendicitis

A

Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix leads to stasis > bacterial overgrowth > inflammation. Obstruction leads to increased pressure in the appendix which can cause rupture.

197
Q

What are the key presentations of appendicitis

A

Central abdominal pain which migrates to the right iliac fossa, low-grade pyrexia and anorexia. 50% of patients present with this characteristic history.

198
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of appendicitis

A
  • Signs
    • Right iliac fossa tenderness: rebound tenderness (pain when pressure is taken off) or percussion tenderness (pain during percussion) suggests localised peritonism
    • Guarding
    • Tachycardia, hypotension and generalised peritonism: suggests perforation
    • Rovsing’s sign: pain in the right iliac fossa is worsened by pressing on left iliac fossa
    • Psoas sign: pain is worsened by extending the hip
    • Obturator sign: pain is worsened by flexing and internally rotating the hip
    • Digital rectal examination: not routinely performed but a boggy sensation suggests a pelvic abscess
  • Symptoms
    • Periumbilical pain (referred pain) which migrates to the right iliac fossa (McBurney’s point)
    • Low-grade fever: > 38°C suggests alternative pathology e.g. mesenteric adenitis
    • Reduced appetite and anorexia
    • Nausea and vomiting: persistent vomiting is unusual
    • Diarrhoea: rare but may occur in pelvic appendicitis or due to a pelvic abscess
199
Q

What are the first line investigations for appendicitis

A
  • FBC: leukocytosis and neutrophilia is seen in up to 90% of patients
  • CRP and ESR: raised due to inflammation
  • U&Es: acute kidney injury in dehydration secondary to vomiting, or in instances of perforation and sepsis
  • Urinalysis: perform in all patients to exclude renal colic, a urinary tract infection or pregnancy in women; in appendicitis, there may be a mild leukocytosis without nitrates.
  • Group & save: important to conduct prior to surgical intervention
200
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for appendicitis

A

Abdominal CT with contrast

201
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for appendicitis

A
  • Ectopic Pregnancy: serum or urine bHCG (pregnancy test) to exclude pregnancy is essential
  • Ovarian Cysts: can cause pelvic and iliac fossa pain, particularly with rupture or torsion
  • Meckel’s Diverticulum: malformation of thedistal ileumthat occurs in around 2% of the population. It is usually asymptomatic, however it can bleed, become inflamed, rupture or cause avolvulusorintussusception.
  • Mesenteric Adenitis: inflamed abdominal lymph nodes. This presents with abdominal pain, usually in younger children. This is often associated with tonsillitis or an upper respiratory tract infection.
  • UTI
  • Diverticulitis
  • Perforated ulcer
  • Food poisoning
  • Acute terminal ileitis (due to Crohn’s)
202
Q

Describe the management for appendicitis

A
  • Initial management
    • Fluids: patients will require hydration due to fluid losses, as well as due to being nil-by-mouth prior to surgery
    • Analgesia: patients can be in considerable pain
    • Antiemetics: can be given for nausea and vomiting e.g. ondansetron
    • Preoperative IV antibiotics: prophylactic antibiotics are associated with reduced wound infection rates, e.g. ceftriaxone and metronidazole
  • Definitive management
    • Prompt appendicectomy:laparoscopicappendicectomy is the treatment of choice, using a three-port approach. Occasionally, anopenapproach is required, with a 2-3 inch incision just below McBurney’s point. Significantabdominal lavageis required for perforated appendicitis
    • Postoperative antibiotics: usually given for only 24 hours, but occasionally patients are discharged on a brief course of oral antibiotics if the appendix was perforated or necrotic
203
Q

Describe the complications of appendicitis

A

Peritonitis if ruptured, appendix abscess, adhesions

204
Q

Describe the prognosis for appendicitis

A

Following surgery, the chance of death from appendicitis is very low. Most patients will leave the hospital in 1-3 days. Those who have a non-perforated appendix have a mortality rate of 0.08%, compared to 0.5% in those with perforation.

205
Q

Define bowel obstruction

A

Bowel obstruction is when the normal flow of contents moving through the intestines is interrupted. The causes can be either mechanical or functional (also called ileus)

206
Q

Describe the classifications for bowel obstruction

A
  • According to site:
    • Large bowel or small bowel
  • Extent of luminal obstruction:
    • Partial
    • Complete
  • According to mechanism:
    • Mechanical: obstruction
    • Functional: lack of contraction
  • According to pathology:
    • Simple: one obstructing point and no vascular compromise
    • Closed loop: obstruction at two points causing grossly distended bowel at risk of perforation
    • Strangulation: blood supply is compromised and patient is very ill. Sharp, constant and localised pain. Peritonism, fever, increase WCC and signs of mesenteric ischaemia are all features.
207
Q

Describe the aetiology of bowel obstruction

A
  • Mechanical causes
  • Small intestine (scar tissue post-surgery, hernia, gallstone ileus or meconium ileus)
  • Large intestine (kinks in loop)
  • Functional (infection, inflammation, postoperative ileus)
208
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bowel obstruction

A

When there’s an obstruction, the bowel contents distal to the obstruction get passed; but proximal to the obstruction, gas and stool start to accumulate, causing the bowel to dilate, and therefore, the overall abdominal cavity to distend.

The accumulated gas and stool causes pressure inside the bowel lumen to increase, so the intestinal contents push towards the intestinal wall, compressing the mucosal blood and lymphatic vessels. Since the walls of veins and lymphaticsare weaker and easier to compress compared to arteries, venous and lymphatic drainage are the first ones to get blocked. The pressure pushes the water from these vessels into the surrounding tissue, leading to mucosal oedema. If pressure inside the lumen gets even higher, it also compresses mucosal arteries, leading to ischaemia or reduced blood flow to the intestinal wall. This also leads to hypoxia.

At the cellular level, this is accompanied by the production of reactive oxygen species; which can damage DNA, RNA, and proteins of the cells in the epithelial layer and lamina propria of the mucosa, leading to cell death, or mucosal infarction.

When the mucosa becomes damaged and capillary blood vessels in the lamina propria rupture, blood enters the bowel lumen. All this stool and blood in the lumen becomes a nutritious feast for bacteria that normally reside in the intestines, and they start growing out of control. These bacteria can then get into the intestinal wall, where they get attacked by macrophages rushing into the mucosa. These macrophages then release inflammatory cytokinese.g. tumor necrosis factor-alpha, which cause blood vessels to become more permeable to fluid and to more immune cells, further increasing mucosal oedema, inflammation, and damage.

The overall result is the compromised ability of the mucosa to absorb food and water, which may lead todehydration and loss of electrolytes, like sodium, potassium and chloride.

As all these lumen contents continues to build up, intraluminal pressure rises even higher, making the problem even worse. And if this pressure becomes high enough, even larger arteries get compressed, meaning that the arterial supply to more layers of the bowel wall is compromised. Bowel ischaemia and infarction extend from just the mucosa to all layers bowel wall, known as a transmural infarction.

This may result in perforation, and all the bacteria that have been accumulating inside the lumen, can now easily leak out, causing peritonitis. Large numbers of bacteria from the peritoneal cavity can sneak into the bloodstream, triggering sepsis.

209
Q

Define small bowel obstruction

A

Small bowel obstruction (SBO) is a mechanical or functional obstruction of the small intestine that prevents the normal passage of digestive contents.

It can be partial or complete.

210
Q

Describe the epidemiology of small bowel obstruction

A
  • Accounts for 60-75% of intestinal obstruction
  • A rare disease in those who have not had previous surgery.
  • The risk can increase by at least twelve-fold in those with a history of abdominal surgery
211
Q

Describe the aetiology of small bowel obstruction

A

Adhesions from previous surgery (75%), hernias (10%), Crohn’s strictures, malignancy

212
Q

Define the pathophysiology of small bowel obstruction

A

Obstruction of bowel leads to distention above the blockage due to a build up of fluid and contents. This causes increased pressure which pushes upon blood vessels in the bowel wall causing them to be compressed. Compressed vessels cannot supply blood leading to ischaemia, necrosis and perforation.

213
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of small bowel obstruction

A

Colicky central or generalised abdominal pain (higher up), abdominal distention (less severe than LBO), early onset vomiting first (bilious) followed by late onset constipation, ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds. Abdominal bloating, constipation and anorexia

214
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for small bowel obstruction

A

CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

215
Q

Describe the first line investigations for small bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal x-ray – dilation of small bowel >3cm, coiled spring appearance (valvulae conniventes - due to mucosal folds on surface), dilated bowel loops and gas shadows (fluid and air accumulates in bowel)

216
Q

Describe the further investigations for small bowel obstruction

A

FBC, U&E imbalances, ABG (metabolic alkalosis, raised lactate)

217
Q

Describe the management for small bowel obstruction

A

Stable: ABCDE, ‘drip and suck’ – insert IV cannula > fluid resuscitation, nil-by-mouth, insert nasogastric tube to decompress stomach, catheter (monitor urine output), analgesia, antiemetics, antibiotics
Unstable: treat according to cause: laparotomy, adhesiolysis for lesions, hernia repair, tumour resections, bowel resection

218
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for small bowel obstruction

A

Large bowel obstruction, pseudo-obstruction

219
Q

Describe the complications for small bowel obstruction

A

Necrosis, perforation, sepsis, aspiration pneumonia and short gut syndrome

220
Q

Describe the prognosis for small bowel obstruction

A

Small bowel obstruction is most commonly caused by adhesions. These patients are at risk of recurrent SBO, even after adhesiolysis. Recurrence occurs most commonly within 5 years but can occur decades later.

221
Q

Define large bowel obstruction

A

Large bowel obstruction (LBO) occurs due to mechanical or functional obstruction of the large intestine that prevents the normal passage of contents.

222
Q

Describe the epidemiology of large bowel obstruction

A
  • Less common, accounting for only 25% of all intestinal obstruction due to larger lumen
  • Large bowel obstruction is a common complication of colorectal cancer and can occur in up to 30% of patients
  • Usually in people over 65 years old
223
Q

Describe the aetiology of large bowel obstruction

A
  • Colorectal cancer most common cause
  • Stricture
  • Volvulus: torsion of the colon around itself and the mesentery (either sigmoid or caecal - less common)
  • Hirschprung’s disease
224
Q

Describe the risk of large bowel obstruction

A
  • Increasing age: usually in people over 65 years old
  • Colorectal cancer:smoking, obesity, processed meat, inflammatory bowel disease
  • Stricture:diverticulitis, inflammatory bowel disease, post-surgical bowel resection with anastomosis
  • Volvulus
225
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of large bowel obstruction

A

Obstruction of bowel leads to distention above the blockage due to a build-up of fluid and contents. This causes increased pressure which pushes upon blood vessels in the bowel wall causing them to be compressed. Compressed vessels cannot supply blood leading to ischaemia, necrosis and perforation.

226
Q

What are the key presentations for large bowel obstructions

A

Continuous abdominal pain (lower down), severe abdominal distention, early onset constipation first followed by later onset vomiting (initially bilious then faecal), absent bowel sounds. Tachycardia and hypotension. Bloating, constipation and anorexia

227
Q

Describe the gold standard investigation for large bowel obstruction

A

CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast:gold standard imaging as it can identify dilated bowel loops, evidence of ischaemia and perforation, as well as the underlying cause

228
Q

Describe the first line investigations for large bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal x-ray – dilated large bowel >6cm, dilated caecum >9cm. Dilated bowel loops and gas shadows (fluid and air accumulates in bowel). Coffee bean sign (if sigmoid volvulus)
Digital rectal exam (empty rectum, hard compacted stools, maybe blood). X-ray doesn’t show rectum so DRE necessary

229
Q

Describe the further investigations for large bowel obstruction

A

FBC, U&E imbalances, ABG (metabolic alkalosis, raised lactate)

230
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for large bowel obstruction

A

Small bowel obstruction, pseudo-obstruction

231
Q

Describe the management for large bowel obstruction

A

Management Stable: ABCDE, ‘drip and suck’ – insert IV cannula > fluid resuscitation, nil-by-mouth, insert nasogastric tube to decompress stomach, catheter (monitor urine output), analgesia, antiemetics, antibiotics
Unstable: treat according to cause: laparotomy, adhesiolysis for lesions, hernia repair, tumour resections, bowel resection

232
Q

Describe the complications for large bowel obstruction

A
  • Bowel ischaemia and perforation: twisting of the bowel compromises the blood supply and can lead to necrosis with eventual perforation
  • Sepsis: perforation leads to faecal peritonitis and sepsis
  • Aspiration pneumonia:the risk is reduced with NG tube decompression
  • Dehydration: occurs due to ‘third-spacing of fluid’
233
Q

Describe the prognosis for large bowel obstruction

A

Early management reduces the likelihood of bowel ischaemia and subsequent surgical resection.

Overall prognosis also depends on the underlying cause. If a patient has bowel obstruction secondary to colorectal malignancy, they have a lower 5-year survival rate.

234
Q

Define pseudo-obstruction

A

Clinical picture mimicking colonic obstruction but with no mechanical cause.

Also known as Ogilvie syndrome.

235
Q

Describe the epidemiology of pseudo-obstruction

A
  • Usually associated with recent severe illness or surgery.
  • Often seen in the post-partum setting, particularly following caesarian section.
236
Q

Describe the aetiology of pseudo-obstruction

A

In more than 80% of cases its a complication of other conditions:

  • Puerperium: the period after childbirth during which the mother’s reproductive organs return to their original non-pregnant condition.
  • Postoperative states e.g. abdominal, pelvic, cardiothoracic, orthopaedic and neuro
  • Intra-abdominal trauma
  • Intra-abdominal sepsis
  • Pelvic, spinal and femoral fractures
  • Drugs e.g. opiates (particularly after orthopaedic surgery), antidepressants
  • Cardiorespiratory and neurological disorders
237
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of pseudo-obstruction

A

Rapid and progressive abdominal pain, abdominal distention, vomiting, constipation

238
Q

Describe the gold standard investigation for pseudo-obstruction

A

CT of abdomen and pelvis with contrast (no transition zone)

239
Q

Describe the first line investigations for pseudo-obstruction

A

Abdominal x-ray: megacolon distention >10cm

240
Q

Describe the management for pseudo-obstruction

A

Drip and suck, IV neostigmine, surgical decompression (caecostomy, ileostomy)

241
Q

Describe the complications with pseudo-obstruction

A

Weight loss: due to malabsorption in chronic pseudo-obstruction

242
Q

Define diverticulosis, diverticular disease and diverticulitis

A
  • Diverticulosis:the presence of diverticula (out-pouching) in an asymptomatic patient
  • Diverticular disease: where diverticula cause symptoms, such as intermittent lower abdominal pain, without inflammation and infection
  • Diverticulitis:**where diverticula become inflamed and infected, typically causing severe lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and occasionally rectal bleeding
243
Q

Describe the epidemiology of diverticular

A
  • Diverticula are very common with increasing age, affecting 66% of patients over 80 years old. Peak age is 50-70 years old.
  • 30% of Westerners have diverticulosis by age 60.
  • 25% of patients with diverticulosis develop symptoms, whilst almost 80% of these people have an episode of diverticulitis.
  • Mainly form in sigmoid colon but can also affect right colon, particularly in Asian people.
244
Q

Describe the risk factors for diverticula

A
  • Increasing age:> 50 years; peak age is 50-70 years old
  • Low dietary fibre
  • Obesity: particularly in younger people
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Smoking:increases the risk of complicated diverticular disease
  • NSAIDs:increases the risk of perforation in diverticulitis

High pressure in the colon

245
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diverticula

A

High pressures in the colon + weak wall leads to outpouching of the colon wall forming diverticula. Most commonly in the sigmoid colon due to its smallest luminal diameter and high pressure. If faecal matter or bacteria gather in the diverticula this causes inflammation and can lead to rupture of blood vessels = diverticulitis.

246
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of diverticular disease and diverticulitis

A

Diverticular disease: bowel habits changed (constipation), bloating/flatulence, LLQ pain, guarding and tenderness, nausea and vomiting
Diverticulitis: all of above + fever, blood in stool, tachycardia, palpable LIF mass

247
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for diverticula

A

Abdominal/pelvis CT with contrast (may show dilated bowel loops, obstruction, abscess)

248
Q

What are first line investigations for diverticula

A

Abdo examination: tenderness and guarding (peritoneum irritated), distended and tympanic to percussion (gas), bowel sounds diminished (colon not working well).
FBC: raised WCC, CRP, ESR. Colonoscopy

249
Q

Describe the management for diverticulosis, diverticular disease and diverticulitis

A

Diverticulosis = nothing, watchful waiting. Lifestyle modification (weight loss, smoking, fibre)
Diverticular disease = high fibre diet and fluids. Bulk-forming laxatives. Surgery if needed.
Diverticulitis = Abx (co-amoxiclav = amoxicillin/clavulanate) + paracetamol. Analgesia, IV fluid, liquid food.

250
Q

Describe the complications for diverticular disease

A

Infection > abscess, bowel perforation, peritonitis, haemorrhage, obstruction, fistulae into adjacent organs (vagina, bladder)

251
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for diverticular disease

A

Appendicitis, endometriosis, colorectal cancer, IBD

252
Q

Describe the prognosis for diverticulitis

A

It is estimated that 85% of people with uncomplicated diverticulitis will respond to medical treatment, whilst approximately 15% of patients will require surgical intervention.

253
Q

Define gastritis

A

Gastritis refers to inflammation of the lining of the stomach associated with mucosal injury.

254
Q

Describe the aetiology of gastritis

A
  • Helicobacter pylori infection
  • Autoimmune gastritis
  • Viruses e.g. cytomegalovirus and herpes simplex
  • Duodenogastric reflux - whereby bile salts enter stomach and damage mucin protection resulting in gastritis
  • Specific causes e.g. Crohn’s (more common in children than adults)
  • Mucosal ischaemia - reduced blood supply to mucosal cells can mean less mucin produced so acid can induce gastritis
  • Increased acid - can overwhelm mucin resulting in gastritis, stress can increase acid production
  • Aspirin and NSAIDs e.g. Naproxen
  • Alcohol, smoking, caffeine - irritates and erodes stomach mucosa
  • Extreme physiological stress e.g. shock, sepsis or burns
255
Q

Describe the risk factors for gastritis

A
  • Alcohol
  • NSAIDs
  • H.pylori
  • CMV and herpes
  • Infectious: crowding and poor sanitation
  • Autoimmune: HLA-DR3 and B8
  • Reflux/hiatus hernia
  • Granulomas e.g. in Crohn’s
  • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: tumours cause the stomach to produce too much acid
  • Menetrier’s disease: massive overgrowth of mucous cells (foveola) in the mucous membrane lining the stomach
256
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of gastritis

A

H. Pylori causes inflammation. Alcohol increases gastric acid and irritates stomach. NSAIDs inhibit COX which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis which decreases mucus protective barrier production. Autoimmune gastritis attacks parietal cell and intrinsic factor antibodies which reduces B12 absorption.

257
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of gastritis

A
  • Nausea or recurrent upset stomach
  • Vomiting
  • Abdominal bloating
  • Epigastric pain
  • Indigestion
  • Haematemesis/ malaena
258
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for gastritis

A

Endoscopy and biopsy (gastric mucosal inflammation and atrophy)

259
Q

What are the first line investigations for gastritis

A

Helicobacter pylori urea breath test, H. Pylori stool antigen test

260
Q

What are further investigations for gastritis

A

FBC: low Hb. Autoimmune: low vitamin B12, parietal cell/intrinsic factor antibodies

261
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for gastritis

A
  • Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
  • GORD
  • Non-ulcer dyspepsia
  • Gastric lymphoma
  • Gastric carcinoma
262
Q

Describe the management for gastritis

A

1st line – treat underlying cause.
H. Pylori eradication: triple therapy – proton pump inhibitor + 2 antibiotics for 7 days.
1st line – omeprazole, amoxicillin 1g, clarithromycin 500mg. if penicillin allergy, swap amoxicillin for 400mg metronidazole
NSAIDs/alcohol – stop. Autoimmune – IM vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin)

263
Q

Describe the complications of gastritis

A

Peptic ulcers, achlorhydria (lack of HCl in stomach) , bleeding and anaemia (VB12 deficiency), MALT lymphoma, gastric cancer

264
Q

Describe the prognosis of gastritis

A
  • Erosive gastritis: symptoms typically improve following discontinuation of or reduction in exposure to offending agent e.g. NSAIDs
  • Helicobacter pylori infection: prognosis is good. An initial traditional triple therapy regimen may be inadequate, and patients may require an alternative quadruple bismuth-based regimen.
  • Autoimmune gastritis: prognosis is excellent for B₁₂ deficiency following replacement therapy with cyanocobalamin. There is a small increased risk for the development of gastric adenocarcinoma and gastric carcinoids.
265
Q

Define diarrhoea

A

The abnormal passage of loose or liquid stool more than 3 times daily

266
Q

Describe the epidemiology of diarrhoea

A

2nd leading cause of child death globally

267
Q

Describe the aetiology of diarrhoea

A
  1. Rotavirus – leading cause in children
  2. Norovirus – leading cause in adults. Cruise ships, hotels, restaurants.
  3. Traveller’s diarrhoea – most commonly enterotoxigenic E. coli or cholera
  4. Bacteria – campylobacter jejuni (mc, undercooked chicken), E. coli (enterotoxigenic – watery, enterohaemorrhagic – bloody), salmonella enterica, shigella
  5. Antibiotics – clostridium difficile infection. Cs: co-amoxiclav, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins, clarithromycin
  6. Parasites – giardia lamblia (mc), cryptosporidium
  7. Non-infective: IBD, coeliac, IBS, malignancy
268
Q

What are the key presentations with diarrhoea

A

Diarrhoea loose liquid stools, vomiting, abdominal cramps.
Blood in stool = bacterial infection
Watery diarrhoea = viral, parasitic
Virus = fever, fatigue, headache, muscle pain
Traveller’s diarrhoea = fever, N+V, cramps, tenesmus, bloody stools during trip abroad
Rice-water diarrhoea = cholera
Guillain barre = campylobacter jejuni

269
Q

Describe the first line investigations for diarrhoea

A

Stool sample (microscopy, culture, toxin detection). FBC (raised CRP, ESR), blood culture.
Campylobacter jejuni: CCDA or PCR. Salmonella: pink with black centre on XLD. Shigella: pink on XLD.

270
Q

Describe the management for diarrhoea

A

Usually self-limiting. Isolation. Treat underlying cause. Fluid rehydration. Electrolyte replacement.
Medication for symptoms: antiemetics (metoclopramide), antidiarrheals (loperamide), broad spectrum Abx (ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone)
Bacterial diarrhoea – metronidazole.

271
Q

Define acute diarrhoea

A

Acute diarrhoea is defined as that lasting less than 2 weeks

272
Q

Describe the aetiology of acute diarrhoea

A
  • Usually due to infection e.g. travellers diarrhoeaSuspect gastroenteritis!
273
Q

Define chronic diarrhoea

A

Chronic diarrhoea is defined as lasting more than 2 weeks

274
Q

Describe the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea

A

Organic causes (associated with changes in the structure of an organ or tissue resulting in symptoms - increased stool weights) must be differentiated from functional causes (conditions in which there is no physical cause for symptoms - frequent passage of low volume and weight stools) such as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

275
Q

Describe the blood supply for the colon

A

The blood supply to the colon is primarily provided by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.

There are many branches that supply the colon. The areas they supply cross-over and they have a tendency to anastomose allowing for a degree of collateral supply. The supply is most precarious at so called ‘watershed’ areas, where such collaterals are limited - namely the splenic flexure and rectosigmoid junction.

276
Q

Define ischaemic colitis

A

Bowel ischaemia which affects the large bowel. This is mainly due to pathology in the inferior mesenteric artery territory and can range from mild ischaemia to gangrenous colitis.

Also known as chronic colonic ischaemia.

277
Q

Describe the epidemiology of ischaemic colitis

A
  • Colonic ischaemia has an approximate incidence of 22.9 per 100,000 person-years
  • The most common form of intestinal ischaemia
  • Incidence increases with advancing age
278
Q

Describe the aetiology of ischaemic colitis

A

Intestinal ischaemia occurs when blood flow to the intestines (small and large bowel) is reduced and thereby insufficient for the needs of the intestines. The cause of insufficient blood flow varies and can be occlusive, or non occlusive (most common)

Thrombosis, embolism, surgery, vasculitis, coagulation disorders

279
Q

Describe risk factors for ischaemic colitis

A
  • Older age
  • Peripheral vascular disease
  • Infective endocarditis
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Atherosclerosis: smoking, HTN, hypercholesterolaemia, diabetes
  • Previous MI: impaired ventricular wall motion results in thrombus formation and mesenteric embolisation
  • Coagulation disorders
  • Cocaine use: may cause IC in younger patients
  • Vasculitis: may cause IC in younger patients
  • Hypoperfusion:sepsis and trauma
280
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations for ischaemic colitis

A
  • Signs
    • Abdominal tenderness
    • Peritonism
    • Haemodynamic instability
    • Pyrexia - shock
    • Tachycardia - shock
  • Symptoms
    • Lower left side abdominal pain (may be crampy in nature)
    • Diarrhoea +/- blood
    • Haematochezia - passage of fresh blood through the anus
    • Fever
281
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for ischaemic colitis

A

Colonoscopy and biopsy

282
Q

What are the first line investigations for ischaemic colitis

A

Urgent CT contrast/angiography (rule out perforation). FBC: metabolic acidosis (raised lactate),

283
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for ischaemic colitis

A

Other causes of acute colitis e.g. IBD

284
Q

What is the management for ischaemic colitis

A

1st line – IV fluids, antibiotics (prophylactic- metronidazole and ciprofloxacin), anticoagulants, surgery if gangrenous

285
Q

What are the complications with ischaemic colitis

A
  • Bowel infarction and perforation: ischaemia can result in necrosis and subsequent perforation. This can lead to peritonitis and profound sepsis
  • Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) progressing into a multi-organ dysfunction syndrome, mediated by bacteria translocation across the dying gut wall
  • Strictures: patients with ischaemic bowel managed conservatively have a risk of developing strictures
286
Q

Describe the prognosis of ischaemic colitis

A

Most patients’ symptoms improve within 24 to 48 hours, with complete clinical recovery within 1 to 2 weeks

Mortality ~22%

287
Q

Describe the blood supply of the gut

A
  • Foregut
    • Stomach and part of duodenum, biliary system, liver, pancreas
    • Celiac artery
  • Midgut
    • Duodenum to 1sthalf of transverse colon
    • Superior mesenteric artery
  • Hindgut
    • 2ndhalf of transverse colon to rectum
    • Inferior mesenteric artery
288
Q

Define mesenteric ischaemia

A

Type of ischaemic bowel disease affecting the small intestine. Can be acute or chronic

289
Q

Describe the epidemiology of mesenteric ischaemia

A
  • Age: typically occurs in people > 40 years old, but can occur in younger patients depending on the cause
  • Gender: chronic mesenteric ischaemia is 3 times more frequent in women
290
Q

Describe the aetiology of mesenteric ischaemia

A

Arterial

  • Thrombosis - atherosclerotic plaque formation. The commonest cause.
  • Embolism - most common cause usually due to atrial fibrillation or spontaneous rupture of an atheroma
  • Other - vasculitides, external compression e.g. tumour, hernia, volvulus, intussuception (part of the intestine slides into an adjacent part of the intestine. This telescoping action often blocks food or fluid from passing through)

Venous

  • Thrombosis - rare cause and patients usually have a history of hypercoagulability

Non-occlusive

  • Hypoperfusion - multiple causes e.g. trauma, sepsis, and heart failure
291
Q

Describe the risk factors for mesenteric ischaemia

A
  • Older age
  • Atrial fibrillation: results in embolisation
  • Atherosclerosis:smoking, HTN, hypercholesterolaemia, diabetes
  • Previous MI: impaired ventricular wall motion results in thrombus formation and mesenteric embolisation
  • Hypercoagulable state
  • Infective endocarditis
  • Vasculitis
  • Hypoperfusion:sepsis and trauma
292
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of mesenteric ischaemia

A

Superior mesenteric artery most commonly affected
Acute: blockage of mesenteric arteries or veins supply small intestine.
Chronic: narrowing of GI blood vessels causing ischaemia to bowel

293
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of mesenteric ischaemia

A

Triad: 1. central/RIF acute severe abdominal pain. 2. No abdominal signs on exam (tenderness, guarding). 3. Rapid hypovolemic shock. Abdominal bruit, haematochezia/melaena, nausea and vomiting, weight loss

294
Q

What is the gold standard test for mesenteric ischaemia

A

Contrast CT/CT angiogram (bowel wall thickening)

295
Q

Describe the investigations for mesenteric ischaemia

A

Contrast CT/CT angiogram, FBC and ABG (metabolic acidosis, raised lactate)

296
Q

Describe the management for mesenteric ischaemia

A

1st line – IV fluids, antibiotics, IV heparin to reduce clotting, surgery to remove necrotic bowel

297
Q

Describe the complications of mesenteric ischaemia

A

Bowel ischaemia > necrosis, perforation, sepsis, peritonitis

298
Q

Describe the prognosis for mesenteric ischaemia

A

Mortality of acute mesenteric ischaemia is high if left untreated, ranging from 50-80% with non-occlusive aetiology associated with a poorer prognosis.

The most important factor in increasing survival is an early diagnosis prior to the onset of bowel infarction. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia has a much better prognosis.

299
Q

Describe the differences in pathology between mesenteric ischaemia and ischaemic colitis

A

MI- affects small bowel due to embolus or thrombus

IC- affects large bowel and occurs in ‘watershed’ areas e.g. splenic flexure

300
Q

Describe the differences in presentation between mesenteric ischaemia and ischaemic colitis

A

MI - acute: severe, sudden abdominal pain; pain is disproportionate to clinical findings. chronic: colicky, post-prandial abdominal pain.

IC - transient, less severe abdominal pain with bloody diarrhoea

301
Q

Describe the difference in diagnostic tests between mesenteric ischaemia and ischaemic colitis

A

MI - CT angiogram or angiography

IC- colonoscopy

302
Q

Describe the management differences for mesenteric ischaemia and ischaemic colitis

A

MI- surgical emergency and anticoag

IC- conservative and surgery if conservative fails

303
Q

Define Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Tear of the oesophageal mucosal membrane due to sudden increases in intra-abdominal pressure

304
Q

Describe the epidemiology of MWT

A
  • MWT accounts for up to 15% of cases of upper GI bleeding
  • MWT is more common in men than in women
  • The age of presentation may vary but is most common in people aged between 30 and 50 years
305
Q

Describe the risk factors of MWT

A
  • Any condition that predisposes to retching or vomiting: such as gastroenteritis, bulimia, hyperemesis gravidarum
  • Alcoholism: damages the gastric mucous membrane and also causes vomiting
  • Chronic cough: often due to COPD, asthma, bronchiectasis
  • Hiatus hernia
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
  • Trauma to chest or abdomen
  • Transoesophageal echocardiography
  • Heavy lifting or straining
  • Male
  • Aged 40-60 years
306
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of MWT

A

MWT is caused by a sudden rise in intra-abdominal and transmural pressure across the gastro-oesophageal junction secondary to vomiting and retching in the presence of a preexisting damaged gastric mucous membrane, which is often related to alcoholism. This causes a subsequent laceration resulting in an upper GI bleed that is usually self-limiting.

307
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of MWT

A

Haematemesis after retching Hx, melaena, hypovolemic shock (hypotension, dizziness), dysphagia. No Hx of liver disease or portal hypertension

308
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for MWT

A

Endoscopy (tear or laceration)

309
Q

What are the first line investigations for MWT

A

1st line Endoscopy (tear or laceration). FBC, U&E, LFT, Coagulation screen, blood cross-matching and group. Rockall score – severity of upper GI bleeding

310
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for MWT

A
  • Boerhaave’s syndrome: spontaneous perforation of the oesophagus, usually due to vomiting, which ruptures all the layers of the oesophageal wall (transmural). Boerhaave’s syndrome is a surgical emergency.
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Peptic ulcer
  • Varices
  • Cancer
311
Q

Describe the management for MWT

A

1st line – most resolve spontaneously.
ABCDE, blood transfusion, anti-emetic, endoscopy to stop bleeding, proton pump inhibitor. Surgical repair if endoscopic haemostasis has failed

312
Q

Describe the complications with MWT

A
  • Rebleeding: usually occurs within the first 24 hours, but is rare after endoscopy
  • Hypovolaemic shock: only occurs with life-threatening, persistent bleeds, which are very rare following MWT
  • Oesophageal perforation: a rare complication
  • MI
313
Q

Describe the prognosis of MWT

A

The prognosis associated with MWT is generally excellent.Bleeding often ceases spontaneouslyprior to arriving at the emergency department and almost always does so before endoscopy. Up to 15% of patients experience rebleeding, with the highest risk of rebleeding within the first 24 hours.

Alcoholism is a common underlying feature and requires recognition, and long-term support should be offered as appropriate.

314
Q

Define haemorrhoids

A

Haemorrhoids are normal spongy vascular structures in the anal canal that act as cushions for the stool as it passes through. Hemorrhoidal disease (simply know as haemorrhoids) is when haemorrhoids get disrupted, swollen and inflamed. Internal (above dentate line) and external (above dentate line)

315
Q

Describe the epidemiology of haemorrhoids

A
  • Prevalence increases with age with a peak in 45-65 yr olds
  • Equally common in both males and females
316
Q

Describe the aetiology of haemorrhoids

A

Haemorrhoids are often caused by chronically or recurrently increased abdominal pressure, from a variety of causes:

  • Straining during bowel movements
  • Chronic diarrhoea or constipation
  • Congestion from a pelvic tumour, pregnancy, congestive cardiac failure and portal hypertension
  • Anal intercourse
317
Q

Describe risk factors for haemorrhoids

A

Constipation, straining, coughing, heavy lifting, pregnancy, obesity, old age

318
Q

Describe the classification of internal haemorrhoids

A

Internal grades 1-4.
1: bleeding, no prolapse. 2: prolapse when straining and reduces when relaxing. 3: prolapse on straining, requires manual pushback. 4: permanently prolapsed

319
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of haemorrhoids

A

Bright red bleeding on wiping, not in stool. Pruritis ani (itching), constipation, straining, lumps around or inside anus, perianal pain

320
Q

Describe the investigations for haemorrhoids

A

1st line External examination (see external haemorrhoids), digital rectal exam (DRE), proctoscopy (see internal haemorrhoids)

321
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for haemorrhoids

A

Rectal bleeding: colorectal cancer, IBD, IBS.
Perianal disorders: anal fissure, anal fistula, perianal abscess

322
Q

Describe the management for haemorrhoids

A

Conservative: topical treatment, constipation – increase fluid, fibre, laxatives
1st and 2nd grade: rubber band ligation, infrared coagulation, injection scleropathy, bipolar diathermy
3rd and 4th grade: haemorrhoidectomy, stapled haemorrhoidectomy, haemorrhoidal artery ligation

323
Q

Describe the complications for haemorrhoids

A
  • Anaemia due to chronic blood loss
  • Strangulation if the blood supply to an internal haemorrhoid is cut off, leading to ischaemia
  • Thrombosed haemorrhoids: blood pools inside a haemorrhoid and forms clots.

Procedure related:

  • Rubber band ligation: pain, delayed haemorrhage if the rubber band dislodges, hemorrhoidal thrombosis, localised infection or abscess at the site of band ligation, sepsis, or urinary retention.
  • Sclerotherapy: minor discomfort or bleeding with the injection, rectourethral fistulas, rectal perforations, and necrotising fasciitis, which can occur with misplaced injections into non-hemorrhoidal tissues or into the vasculature.
  • Haemorrhoidectomy: infection, urinary retention mainly associated to spinal anaesthesia; urinary tract infection possibly secondary to urinary retention; fecal incontinence due to pain, anal spasm, and changes in sensation; anal stricture if too much anoderm is resected; and delayed haemorrhage due to sloughing of the primary clot, which usually occurs 7 to 16 days after the procedure.
324
Q

Define an anal fistula

A

An abnormal connection between the epithelial surface of the anal canal and skin - it is essentially a track that communicates between the skin and anal canal/rectum

325
Q

Describe the aetiology of anal fistulas

A
  • Perianal sepsis
  • Anorectal abscesses (70%)
  • Crohn’s ulcerations (30%)
  • TB
  • Diverticular disease
  • Rectal carcinoma
  • Immunocompromise
326
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of anal fistulas

A

Blockage of deep intramuscular gland ducts is thought to predispose to the formation of abcesses, which discharge to form the fistula.

327
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of anal fistulas

A
  • Pain
    • Usually intermittent and during defecation, during sitting or activity.
  • Malodorous discharge (bloody or mucus)
  • Pruritus ani (itchy bottom)
  • Perianal skin may be excoriated and inflamed
  • Systemic abscess if it becomes infected
328
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for anal fistulae

A

Digital rectal exam

329
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for anal fistulae

A

Rectal bleeding: colorectal cancer, IBD, IBS. Perianal disorders: haemorrhoids, anal fissure, perianal abscess

330
Q

Describe the management for anal fistulae

A

1st line – surgical removal and drainage and treat with Abx if infected

331
Q

Define anal fissure

A

Painful tear in squamous lining of lower anal canal, distal to the dentate line resulting in pain on defecation.

Can be acute: <4-6 weeks

Or chronic: >6 weeks

332
Q

Describe the epidemiology of anal fissures

A
  • 90% are posterior tears
  • Anterior tears usually follow childbirth
  • F>M
333
Q

Describe the aetiology of anal fissures

A

Constipation, anal trauma, Crohn’s, TB

334
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of anal fissures

A

Extreme pain on defaecation (strong sensory supply), fresh blood on wiping or on stool, tearing sensation on passing stool

335
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for anal fissures

A

Digital rectal exam

336
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for anal fissures

A

Rectal bleeding: colorectal cancer, IBD, IBS.
Blood on wiping: haemorrhoids, anal fistulae, perianal abscess

337
Q

Describe the management for anal fissures

A

1st line – stool softening: fluids and more fibre. Also topical creams, e.g., glyceryl trinitrate, diltiazem

338
Q

Describe the complications for anal fissures

A

The main complication of surgical treatment for anal fissures is fecal incontinence.

339
Q

Define a perianal abscess

A

Superficial infection that appears as a tender red lump under the skin near the anus. Most common anorectal abscess. Infection in anorectal tissue forming walled off collections of stool/bacteria abscess near the anus.

340
Q

Describe the epidemiology of perianal abscess

A
  • Perianal abscesses make up 45% of anorectal abscesses (most common type)
  • F>M
  • 2-3 times more common in those who have anal sex
341
Q

Describe the aetiology of perianal abscesses

A

Anal fistula, Crohn’s, anal trauma (e.g., from anal sex)

342
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of a perianal abscess

A

An abscess forms when normal tissue is split apart and that new space is invaded by nearby pathogens like bacteria. This leads to an immune response.

343
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of a perianal abscess

A

Constant perianal pain, perianal swelling, fever, pus in stool

344
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for a perianal abscess

A

Digital rectal exam

345
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis for perianal abscess

A

Rectal bleeding: colorectal cancer, IBD, IBS.
Blood on wiping: haemorrhoids, anal fistulae, anal fissure

346
Q

Describe the management for a perianal abscess

A
  • Surgical excision and drainage
  • Treatment with antibiotics
347
Q

Define a pilonidal sinus/abscess

A

Hair follicles get stuck under the skin in the natal cleft (butt crack) ~6cm above the anus, resulting in irritation and inflammation leading to small tracks which can become infected (abscess)

348
Q

Describe the epidemiology of pilonidal sinus/abscess

A
  • M>F
  • Commonly presents between 20-30 yrs
349
Q

What are the risk factors for a pilonidal sinus/abscess

A
  • Obese caucasians and those from Asia, Middle East and Mediterranean are at increased risk
  • Large amount of body hair
  • Having deep gluteal clefts
  • Sedentary job
  • Family history
  • Stiff hair
350
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pilonidal sinus/abscess

A

Pilonidal disease is a common anal condition characterised by skin infection in the gluteal cleft. This is usually related to mechanical forces on the skin damaging and opening pores that collect loose hairs and debris, leading to hair follicle infection.

The ingrowing of hair excites a foreign body reaction and may cause secondary tracks to open laterally with or without abscesses, with foul-smelling discharge.

351
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of pilonidal sinus/abscess

A

Swollen pus filled smelly abscess, sacrococcygeal discharge, pain, swelling and sinus tracts

352
Q

What is the gold standard for pilonidal sinus/abscess

A

Clinical examination

353
Q

Describe the management for pilonidal sinus/abscess

A

1st line – surgery (drainage). Area hygiene + antibiotics (co-amoxiclav). Hair removal