Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of HITT

A

Type 1 is non immune mediated - occur g at 3 days

Type 2 is immune mediated at 5-10 iGg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pathophysiology of HITT

A

Heparin bind to platelet factor 4
The complex is immunogenic and activates iGG hit antibodies
This causes platelet activation and thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is included in the Warkentin hit score

A

Thrombocytopenia
Timing
Thrombosis
Other potential cause a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What lab tests confirm hit

A

Immunoassay for hit antibodies

Functional platelet assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Micro angioplasty is haemolytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Epidemic or atypical
Epidemic - prodromal bloody diarrhoea and E. coli
Atypical rare and worse - strep, hiv, bmt, cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathophysiology of Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Exposure to toxin
Bloody diarrhoea due to haemorrhaging colitis
aki secondary to toxin mediated vascular endothelial damage
Platelet aggregation- > thrombi -> compliment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Cipro for e.coli

Plasma exchange - Mainly for atypical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A
Maha
Thrombocytopenia 
Aki
Fluctuating consciousness 
Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathophysiology of ttp

A

Deficiency in ADaMTS 13
vWF not cleaved
Large multimers and no cleaving therefore uncontrolled platelet activation
Fibrin deposited forming a mesh that shreads red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of ttp

A

Plasma exchange continue 2 days after plts >150
Methyl pred
Retuximab if relapse
Aspirin and thromboprophalycis once plts > 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition of Anaemia

A

Men 130

Women 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define sickle cell disease

A

Chromosome 11
Autosomal recessive
Hb S is less soluble and more viscous and tends to polymerise - distorts it’s contour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Presentations of sickle cell

A

Vaso- occlusive

  • acute chest syndrome
  • Stoke
  • long bone ischaemia
  • aki

Sequestration
- anaemia, hypotension and enlarged spleen

Aplastic

  • red cell aplasia
  • parvo B19 / folate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define thalasaemia

A

2 types- alpha and beta
Alpha - deletion of 1-4 alpha chains

Beta- reduced beta and increased alpha and gamma
Minor or major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define factor 5 Leiden

A

Autosomal dominant
Mutates factor 5 therefore activated protein c cannot bind to it resulting in ongoing clot formation

Present with venous thrombus

17
Q

Define anti phospholipid syndrome

A

Autoimmune hypercoaguloable state due to excess antiphospholipid antibodies

Arterial and venous thrombosis

18
Q

Define haemophilia

A

X linked recessive
A - factor 8
B -factor 9

19
Q

Define von willrbrands disease

A

Autosomal dominant

VWF needed for platelet adhesion to the endothelium and to bind to factor 8 to prevent its breakdown

20
Q

Define DIC

A

Acquired syndrome characterised by a dyregulated host response to a trigger resulting in intravascular coagulation, damaged microcasculature and organ dysfunction

21
Q

Triggers for DIC

A

Sepsis
Trauma
Obstetric emergencies

22
Q

Pathophysiology of DIC

A

Excessive thrombin production
Excessive fibrinolysis
Thrombosis and bleeding
Loss of localisation

23
Q

What is cross matching

A

Mixing donor cells with recipient serum and observing for signs of agglutination

24
Q

Which blood group is the universal donor

25
Which is the universal recipient
AB +
26
What is donor blood tested for
HIV antibodies HCV antibodies Hep b surface antigen Syphilis serology
27
How is blood stored
Citrate Phosphate Dextrose Adenine Shelf life 35 days
28
How are platelets stored
Pooled from 4-6 ffp Stored at 20-24 degrees Agitated to prevent clumping Shelf life 3-5 days
29
What is the storage lesions
Changes that occur is stored blood ``` Hyperkalaemia Acidosis Reduced 2,3 dpg (left shift) Low platelet Factor 5 and 8 decrease activity ```
30
Define massive transfusion
Whole circulating volumes in 24 hours 50% circulating volume in 3 hours 10 unit transfusion
31
Complications of transfusion
``` Immediate haemolytic reaction Delayed haemolytic reaction (3-10/7) Febrile Allergic Hyperkalaemia Hyperkalaemia Iron overload Transfusion related infection Taco (lvf or ccf in 6-24hours) Trali (ards in 6hours) ```
32
Transfusion threshold
70 -90 | Tricc restrictive vs liberal
33
What is needed to check blood and give blood
``` 2 trained members of staff Patient ID - surname - dob - gender - hospital number ``` Check all match with medical notes, patient band, transfusion form and compatibility label - blood group and pack number - return the tag
34
What is rhesus on blood
If you are rh D negative you have antibodies to Rh D and therefore destroy any rd D positive cells
35
What can a patient with AB blood recieve
Everything
36
What can a patient with A blood recieve
A and O
37
What can a patient with O blood recieve
O