Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Burton > Haem/Transfusions > Flashcards

Haem/Transfusions Flashcards

1
Q

Which blood type is the universal donor?

A

O-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which blood type is the universal receiver?

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is major haemorrhage defined?

A
  • Loss of one blood volume in 24 hours
  • 50% total blood volume lost in less than 3 hours
  • More than 150ml/minute
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What bloods should you order in a bleed before transfusing blood?

A

FBC
Group and save
Clotting screen
U&E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should you think about transfusing blood?

A

< 30% loss (1500ml) fluids
30-40% red cell transfusion
> 40% (2L) major haemorrhage protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is group and save?

A

Identifies patients ABO and rhesus blood group and screens blood for antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is cross-match?

A

Mixing the patients blood with the blood they are going to receive to check for a reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long does group and save and cross-match take?

A

40 mins each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long should one unit of blood be given over?

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can you safely give blood to a patient who is at risk of overload?

A

Prescribe diuretic at same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When might you need to give platelets?

A

Haemorrhagic shock
Severe thrombocytopenia <20
Low pre-op platelets < 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does fresh frozen plasma (FFP) contain?

A

Clotting factors and plasma proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is FFP given?

A

Major haemorrhage (every 2 packs of red cells)
DIC
Liver disease haemorrhage
TTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does cryoprecipitate contain?

A

Fibrinogen, vWF, factor VIII, fibronectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is cryoprecipitate given?

A

LOW FIBRINOGEN:
Massive haemorrhage
VW disease
DIC with low fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 6 complications of blood transfusion.

A

Infection transmission
Overload
Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Haemolytic reaction
Allergic reaction
Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What blood tests can confirm haemolytic reaction to blood products?

A

Coombs test positive

Hyperbilirubinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are signs of haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A 
Pyrexia
Dyspnoea and wheezing
Loin pain
Hypotension
DIC with bruising
Acute oliguric renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A 
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency 
Myelodysplasia
Liver disease
Hypothyroidism
Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are causes of normocytic anaemia?

A 
Primary bone marrow failure - rare: aplastic anaemia
Secondary bone marrow failure:
• Anaemia of chronic disease
• Combined haematinic deficiencies 
• Uraemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What blood tests can you do if you suspect haemolysis?

A 
FBC (reticulocytes)
Blood film - spherocytes, schistocytes
Bilirubin
LDH
Haptoglobin
Direct coombs test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What might you suspect if you see macrocytosis with hyperhsegmented neutrophils?

A

B12 or folate deficiency

Myelodysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

24
Q

What tests would you do to investigate anaemia?

A 
FBC, U&amp;E, LFTs
B12, folate, ferritin
Blood film
TFTs
Serum immunoglobulins
Urine bence jones protein
25
Would you expect to see a raised reticulocyte count in acute bleeding?
Yes
26
What would you expect reticulocyte count to be in ACD?
Low - suppressed
27
What patients are likely to have secondary polycythaemia and how should they be treated?
Cyanotic heart disease Cor pulmonale COPD Treat with venesection
28
What pathway does APPT measure?
Intrinsic
29
What pathway does PT measure?
Extrinsic
30
How can you measure fibrinogen?
Thrombin clotting time
31
What does INR measure?
PT - extrinsic pathway
32
What can cause prolonged PT?
Vit K deficiency Warfarin anticoagulation Factor deficiency
33
What can cause prolonged APPT?
``` Factor deficiency UF heparin (NOT LMWH) An inhibitor ```
34
What are causes of low platelets?
``` Medication - HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia) Alcohol DIC/HUS/TTP ITP Hepatosplenomegaly ```
35
What should you do if blood results show low platelets?
Repeat Full clotting screen - check for DIC Blood film
36
What blood results are characteristic of DIC?
``` Low platelet Prolonged PT and APPT Low fibrinogen High D-dimers Schistocytes on film ```
37
Which patient should have a coagulation screen before surgery?
Only if past history of bleeding or family history of bleeding disorder, or in emergency with patient on anticoagulants
38
What does a low INR mean?
Blood clots more quickly (thicker)
39
What might you see in FBC a patient with any inflammation e.g. RA?
'Reactive' Thrombocytosis Neutropenia
40
If a patients INR is too low before surgery, what should you do?
Stop warfarin | Vitamin K - IV takes a few hours to work, PO takes 24 hours.
41
What are signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia?
petechieae, epistaxis, purpura
42
If the lab reports platelet clumping in a sample, what can you do?
Send a citrate sample
43
What lab test can you do to assess the level to DOAC activity?
anti-Xa activity
44
What is the mechanism of LMWH?
Inhibits factor Xa (common to both extrinsic and intrinsic)
45
What are the pharmacokinetics of LMWH?
Longer half life than UFH | Predictable response so no monitoring
46
Why is a patients creatinine level important if they are taking LMWH?
LMWH accumulates in renal failure
47
What coagulation test is used to monitor unfractionated heparin?
APPT
48
What is the MOA of unfractionated heparin?
Binds to anti-thrombin, increasing its ability to inhibit thrombin and factor Xa.
49
What are side effects of both types of heparin?
Bleeding | HIT (thrombocytopenia) - less common in LMWH
50
What must you warn patients about when starting heparin?
Do not eat too much Vit K (leafy greens) Must not become pregnant Avoid grapefruit juice Seek advice if bleeding
51
What is the MOA of warfarin?
Inhibits reductase enzyme that activates vitamin K
52
What is the antidote for unfractionated heparin?
Protamine sulfate
53
Which DOAC has an antidote?
Dabigatran - monoclonal antibody antidote
54
What is the MOA of apixaban and rivoroxaban?
Factor Xa inhibtiors
55
What is the MOA of dabigatran?
Inhibits thrombin
56
What can you give a patients INR is > 5 and there is a minor bleed?
IV Vitamin K
57
What can you do to reverse warfarin in a major bleed?
Give prothrombin complex

Burton (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions