Haem questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does blood typing involve?

A

forward grouping - patient’s RBC vs. standard sera

reverse grouping for confirmation - patient’s sera vs. standard RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is antibody screening?

A

Patient’s serum + control RBC in saline

Screening for clinically relevant antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the additives for PRBCs?

A
SAGM 
sodium chloride 
adenine 
dextrose 
mannitol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the anticoagulant additive to blood at collection?

A

CPD
citrate
phosphate
dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define a circle system

A

Circle breathing system is a closed or semi-closed system used to deliver oxygen and anaesthetic gases, while eliminating CO2 and recirculates patient’s respiratory gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Advantages of circle system?

A

provides constant inspired concentration
conserve heat and humidity
reduced anaesthetic gas waste
efficient CO2 removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Disadvantage of circle system?

A

slow equilibration of anaesthetic gas
soda lime degradation products
complex system prone to error
high resistance within circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how much O2 is dissolved in blood at room air?

A

PaO2 (RA) = 100mmHg

0.03 x 100 = 3ml/L of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is intrapleural pressure different between the base vs. apex of lung?

A

Base - gravity, weight of lung onto tissue.

High intrapleural pressure, less negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is FRC measured by gas dilution?

A

Helium dilution method
Known volume and concentration of helium.
Helium minimally uptaken

V1 x [He] = (V1 + FRC) x [He]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define FRC

A

Lung volume at end-expiration of normal tidal breathing
RV + ERV
Volume at lung inward recoil and chest wall outward recoil are in equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the correction factor F in the alveolar gas equation

A

F = ~2mmHg on RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How much does MV increase with every mmHg of CO2?

A

2-3L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the effectors of ventilatory response?

A

Phrenic nerve - diaphragm
intercostal nerves - external intercostal
C-spine nerves - scalenes
CNIX/X - pharyngeal dilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What hormones are regulated by the liver?

A

EPO, 10% - hepatic synthesis of RBC particularly in neonatal period
Conversion of cholecalciferol to 25 hydroxy-D3
Angiotensinogen
Androgens/oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Effect of sevo on cardiac muscle?

A
dose dependent reduction in HR/contractility 
anaesthetic preconditioning (activation of ATP-sensitive K channels) -> reduce risk of iscahemia 
Increase QT interval ?MOA 
Coronary steal syndrome - rarely significant
17
Q

How does hypokalaemia affect NMB?

A

HypoK -> increase K efflux gradient -> intracellularly become more negative -> hyperpolarisation of membrane -> potentiates effect of NMB

18
Q

How does amino glycoside affect NMB?

A

competes with Ca for binding site -> reduce Act release and potentiate NMB effect.

Also reduces post-synaptic nACHr sensitivity rot Ach

19
Q

What are the factors that affect venous return?

A

Flow = pressure change / resistance

RA flow = (MSFP - RAP) / RVR (resistance to venous return)

20
Q

What are the factors that affect MSFP?

A

Total blood volume
Venous tone
Posture
Skeletal muscle pump

21
Q

What factors affect RAP?

A

IPPV
PVR
Congestive heart failure

22
Q

What factors affect RVR?

A

arteriolar resistance - vasodilators -> move more blood for artery -> veins -> increase venous return

External compression - pneumoperitoneum

23
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

How does one gain alkali in ECF?

A

endogenous - recovery from lactic / kept acidosis, as acids are cleared by liver

exogenous - IV fluid, IV NaHCO3

24
Q

Endo causes of metabolic alkalosis?

A

Hyperaldosterone - Conn’s, Cushing’s, high dose steroids

Hypokalaemia

25
Describe the formation of urea
Degradation of amino acid from protein and proteolysis. Process almost entirely in the liver Deamination via amino transferases - a-kteo acids and NH4. Ammonia + CO2 -> urea Important intermediate steps are ornithine, citrulline, arginine
26
Key points for phenytoin PK
``` saturable liver metabolism - zero order highly albumin bound Half life 24 hours Many drugs inhibit metabolism of phenytoin enzyme inducer ```
27
What are some of the potential drug interactions with amiodarone
potent CYP450 inhibitor | Increase concentration digoxin, amide LAs, warfarin
28
What are the effects of pro-kinetics?
Increase LOS tone Increase motility Relaxation of pylorus
29
Prokinetic drugs?
metoclopramide - anti-D2, cholinergic cisapride - increase myenteric plexus release of Ach Erythromycin - cholinergic
30
What are the particulate of antacids?
aluminium or magnesium oxide
31
What is hepatic extraction ratio?
fraction of drug irreversibly removed during one pass of blood through the liver
32
Equation of hepatic extraction ratio
(Fraction unbound x intrinsic clearance ) / (Hepatic blood flow + (Fu x Cl int) )