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YEAR 5: Haematology - PK Edited > Haem: CML and myeloproliferative disorders > Flashcards

Haem: CML and myeloproliferative disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is polycythaemia?

A

A condition characterised by raised Hb concentration and raised haematocrit.

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2
Q

What are the two main types of polycythaemia?

A

Relative - caused by a lack of plasma (associated with alcoholism, obesity and diuretics)

True - caused by an excess of erythrocytes

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3
Q

What is secondary polycythaemia and what can cause it?

A
  • Polycythaemia that occurs due to excessive stimulation by EPO (there is no problem with the bone marrow itself)
  • Appropriate causes: high altitude, hypoxic lung disease, cyanotic heart disease, high affinity haemoglobin
  • Inappropriate causes: renal disease (cysts, tumours), uterine myoma, other tumours
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4
Q

How can myeloproliferative neoplasms be broadly categorised? And what is in each of these categories?

A
  • Philadelphia positive: CML
  • Philadelphia negative: polycythaemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia, primary myelofibrosis
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5
Q

What are the two processes that cell undergo as they develop and how are these different in acute and chronic leukaemia?

A
  • Two processes: differentiatoin + proliferation
  • Chronic leukaemia: differentiation is intact (produces mature cells) + proliferation is excessive and abnormal
  • Acute leukaemia: differentiation is abnormal (cells have lost the ability to mature) + proliferation is excessive and abnormal
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6
Q

What are the main types of myeloid malignancy?

A
  • Acute myeloid leukaemia (blasts >20%)
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia
  • Myeloproliferative disorders
  • Myelodysplastic syndromes (blasts 5-19%)
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7
Q

Mutations in which protein gene are commonly associated with the development of myeloproliferative disorders?

A

Tyrosine kinase

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8
Q

What is the normal physiological role of tyrosine kinase?

A
  • Transmit cell growth signals from cell surface receptors to the nucleus
  • They are activated by transferring phosphate groups to itself and downstream proteins
  • They promote cell growth but they do NOT affect maturation
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9
Q

Name three genes that are associated with myeloproliferative disorders.

A
  • JAK2 (V617F)
  • Calreticulin
  • MPL
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10
Q

Which conditions is defined by the presence of one of these mutations? (i.e. 100% of patients have this mutation)

A

100% of polycythaemia vera has JAK2 V617F mutation

NOTE: it is also found in 60% of primary myelofibrosis and essential thrombocythaemia

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11
Q

What is the normal physiological role of JAK2? How is this different in polycythaemia vera?

A
  • It is a tyrosine kinase that is normally bound to the inactive EPO receptor. When EPO binds to the receptor, the receptor dimersises, autophosphorylates and phosphorylates JA2 which promotes cell proliferation.
  • Mutated JAK2 is constitutively active in the absence of EPO thereby driving cell replication in the absence of a stimulus.
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12
Q

What is the diagnosis of myeloproliferative disorders based on?

A
  • Clinical features (splenomegaly is particularly important)
  • FBC
  • Bone marrow biopsy
  • EPO level
  • Mutation testing
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13
Q

Outline the typical presentation of polycythaemia vera?

A
  • Often incidental
  • Hyperviscosity: headaches, visual disturbance, stroke, fatigue, dyspnoea, light-headedness
    * Increased histamine release: aquagenic pruritis, peptic ulceration
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14
Q

Outline the 3 main steps in treatment of polycythaemia vera.

A
  • Reduce haematocrit (aim for <45%) - by (1) venesection and (2) cytoreductive therapy (hydroxycarbamide)
  • Reduce thrombosis risk - control Hct, (3) aspirin, keep platelets < 400x109/L
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15
Q

What is essential thrombocythaemia? And its general biochemical range?

A

Chronic myeloproliferative disorder mainly involving the megakaryocyte lineage

Characterised by sustained thrombocytosis > 600 x109/L

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16
Q

Outline the typical presentation of essential thrombocythaemia.

A
  • Incidental finding (50%)
  • Thrombosis (arterial and venous) - CVA, TIA, DVT, PE, gangrene
  • Bleeding (mucous membrane and cutaneous)
  • Headaches, dizziness, visual disturbance
  • Splenomegaly (modest)

NOTE: ET can cause both thrombosis and bleeding depending on the way in which the abnormal platelet function

17
Q

Outline the treatment options for essential thrombocythaemia (2 of them)

A
  • Aspirin
  • Hydroxycarbamide

NOTE: hydroxycarbamide is an antimetabolite that suppresses cell turnover

18
Q

Outline the prognosis for essential thrombocythaemia.

A
  • Normal life span in many patients
  • 5% in 10 years risk of leukaemic transformation
  • Myelofibrosis is uncommon
19
Q

What is primary myelofibrosis?

A
  • A clonal myeloproliferative disease associated with reactive bone marrow fibrosis
  • Characterised by extramedullary haemopoeisis
  • NOTE: other myeloproliferative disorders can transform into myelofibrosis
20
Q

Outline the typical presentation of primary myelofibrosis.

A
  • Cytopaenias (anaemia, thrombocytopaenia)
  • Thrombosis
  • MASSIVE splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Hypermetabolic state (FLAWS)
21
Q

What might you expect to see in the blood film of a patient with primary myelofibrosis?

A
  • Leucoerythroblastic picture
  • Tear drop poikilocytes
  • Giant platelets
  • Circulating megakaryocytes
22
Q

What is a characteristic feature seen on bone marrow aspirate in primary myelofibrosis?

A

Dry tap

23
Q

What might you see on histological analysis of a trephine biopsy in primary myelofibrosis?

A
  • Increased reticulin and collagen fibrosis
  • Prominent megakaryocyte hyperplasia and clustering
  • New bone formation
24
Q

Which mutations would you test for in a patient with primary myelofibrosis?

A

JAK2 and Calreticulin

NOTE: these are not diagnostic

25
Q

What are some bad prognostic features in primary myelofibrosis?

A
  • Severe anaemia
  • Thrombocytopaenia
  • Massive splenomegaly

NOTE: median survival is 3-5 years

26
Q

Outline the treatment options for primary myelofibrosis.

A
  • Supportive - RBC and platelet transfusions (usually ineffective becasue of splenomegaly)
  • Hydroxycarbamide (may worsen anaemia)
  • Ruxolitinib - JAK2 inhibitor
  • Allogeneic stem cell transplantation
  • Splenectomy - dangerous operation but may provide symptomatic relief
27
Q

What might you expect to see in the FBC of a patient with CML?

A
  • Leucocytosis (MASSIVE)
  • Normal or raised Hb and platelets
28
Q

What would you expect to see in abundance in the blood film of a patient with CML?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Basophils
  • Myelocytes (NOT blasts)

NOTE: myelocytes are immature myeloid cells that are NOT blasts (analogous to reticulocytes for red blood cells)

29
Q

Briefly describe the natural history of CML before targeted treatment was available.

A
  • 5-6 years stable phase
  • 6-12 months accelerated phase
  • 3-6 months blasst crisis
30
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome? - what is the translocation

A

CML is caused by a translocation between 9;22 producing a derivative chromosome, 22q, which is called the Philadelphia chromosome

is a BCR-ABL fusion gene

31
Q

What are the two genes that make up the fusion gene in the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Bcr = breakpoint cluster region

Abl = ableson tyrosine kinase

32
Q

Explain how this fusion gene results in excessive proliferation of myeloid cells.

A
  • Abl is a tyrosine kinase that drives cell proliferation but is rarely expressed unless the cells are receiving a stimulus to proliferation
  • Bcr is a housekeeping gene that is constitutively active
  • The Bcr-Abl fusion gene means that the tyrosine kinase component is constitutively activated thereby driving cell proliferation in the absence of a stimulus
33
Q

List some diagnostic techniques used to identify the CML and monitor response to treatment.

A
  • FBC and leucocyte count
  • Cytogenetics and detection of Philadelphia chromosome (FISH)
  • RT-PCR to detect and quantify the number of copies of Bcr-Abl fusion transcript

NOTE: RT-PCR transcript % is the most sensitive

34
Q

1 examples of Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitors (tx for CML)

A
  • 1st generation: imatinib
  • 2nd generation: dasatinib, nilotinib
  • 3rd generation: bosutinib
35
Q

What are the next steps in treatment if the first-line fails?

A
  • 1st line fails (no complete cytogenetic response at 1 year or initial response is followed by resistance) → switch to 2nd or 3rd generation
  • 2nd line fails (inadequate response or disease progresses to accelerated or blast phase) → allogeneic stem cell transplantation

YEAR 5: Haematology - PK Edited (19 decks)

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