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Health Assessment > HA Exam #2 > Flashcards

HA Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

24-hour diet recall

A

-What a person has consumed within a 24-hour period
-during this recall, find out if this is a consistent diet

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2
Q

Food diaries

A

most detailed and very specific food recall

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3
Q

Direct Observation

A

watching someone eat/ watching someone be fed

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4
Q

What factors have been seen to help people reach and maintain good health and reduce chronic disease?

A

healthy eating patterns and regular physical activity

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5
Q

What are the 12 health history questions for nutritional subjective data?

A
  1. Eating Patterns
  2. Usual Weight
  3. changes in appetite, taste, smell, chewing and swallowing
  4. recent surgery, trauma, burns and infections
  5. Chronic illness
  6. vomiting, diarrhea, constipation
  7. food allergies
  8. medications and or nutritional supplements
  9. self care
  10. alcohol and drugs
  11. exercise and activity patterns
  12. family history
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6
Q

What are you observing in the skin during a nutritional assessment?

A

skin should be smooth, no bruises, rashes, or flaking

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7
Q

What are you observing in the hair during a nutritional assessment?

A

should be shiny, scalp intact and without lesions, and does not fall out easily

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8
Q

What are you observing in a pts eyes during a nutritional assessment?

A

corneas are clear and shiny, membranes pink and moist, no bumps or sores

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9
Q

What are you observing on the lips during a nutritional assessment?

A

should be smooth not chapped, cracked or swollen

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10
Q

Tongue (nutritional assessment)

A

should be red, not swollen or abnormally smooth and no lesions

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11
Q

gums (nutritional assessment)

A

should be pink and moist, no swelling or bleeding

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12
Q

nails (nutritional assessment)

A

smooth and pink

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13
Q

Derived body weight measures include…

A

-body weight as a percent of ideal body weight
-percent usual body weight
-recent weight change

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14
Q

Body mass index

A

marker of optimal weight for height and indicator for obesity and protein-calorie malnutrition

BMI= weight (kg)/height(m)^2

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15
Q

BMI of <18.5

A

underweight

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16
Q

BMI of 18.5-24.9

A

normal weight

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17
Q

BMI of 25.0-29.9

A

overweight

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18
Q

BMI of 30.0-39.9

A

obesity

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19
Q

BMI greater than or equal to 40

A

extreme obesity

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20
Q

What are the indicators for iron status?

A

hemoglobin and hematocrit

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21
Q

What are the indicators for cardiovascular risk?

A

Cholesterol with Triglycerides, LDL and HDL levels

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22
Q

Marasmus

A

protein-calorie malnutrition (skinny looking people and can be visibly seen)

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23
Q

Kwashiorkor

A

protein malnutrition (inside your body can not necessarily be seen on the outside)

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24
Q

Epidermis

A

-replaces every 4 weeks
-outermost layer; thin but tough
-houses keratin

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25
Q

Dermis

A

-inner supportive layer
-consists of connective tissue (collagen) and elastic tissue
-nerves, sensory receptors, blood vessels and lymphatics are housed here

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26
Q

SubQ

A

-adipose tissue
-stores fat for energy, insulation and temp control, and cushions and protects

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27
Q

What are the functions of the skin?

A

-Protection (Thermal, physical, chemical, UV, and microorganisms)
-Perception
-Temp regulation (loss thru sweat and gain thru storage in adipose tissue)
-identification
-communication
-wound repair
-absorption and excretion
-Vit D production

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28
Q

Lanugo

A

fine hair

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29
Q

Vernix Caseosa

A

white, cheesy substance

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30
Q

Linea nigra

A

mid-abdominal dark line from stomach growth

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31
Q

Striae Gravidarum

A

stretch marks

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32
Q

Keloids

A

scars with increased height and width

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33
Q

Pigmentary disorders

A

increased incidence of pigment problems

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34
Q

Pseudofolliculitis

A

razor burn/bumps, ingrown hairs

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35
Q

Melasma

A

patchy tan to dark brown discoloration of the face

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36
Q

What is ABCDE?

A

Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and evolving

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37
Q

Pruritis

A

itching

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38
Q

What can hair loss on the lower extremities mean?

A

loss of circulation

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39
Q

What should you assess first?

A

hands

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40
Q

Nevus

A

mole

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41
Q

Pallor

A

white, anemia, shock, anxiety fear, exposure to cold etc

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42
Q

Erythema

A

redness, fever, inflammation

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43
Q

Cyanosis

A

blue, decreased perfusion, unoxygenated Hgb

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44
Q

Jaundice

A

yellow, excessive bilirubin; sclera and hard and soft palate of the mouth

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45
Q

Sunken fontanel

A

top of the infants head

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46
Q

Anasarca

A

generalized edema

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47
Q

Cherry angioma

A

bright red dots

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48
Q

ecchymosis

A

bruising

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49
Q

160 degree nail base is considered..

A

normal

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50
Q

a nail base greater than 180 is considered

A

late clubbing

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51
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum ?

A

manubrium, body and xiphoid process

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52
Q

How many ribs do you have and where are they located?

A

You have 12 pairs of ribs

-1-7 attached to the sternum
-8-10 attached to the costral margin above
-11-12 are floating

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53
Q

How many thoracic vertebra are there?

A

12

54
Q

Acinus

A

functional respiratory unit (bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli)

55
Q

Apgar Scoring system

A

-used for newborn’s initial respiratory assessment

*7-10: good condition
*3-6: moderately depressed
*0-2: severely depressed

55
Q

What are the functions of respiration?

A
  1. Supplying oxygen
  2. removing CO2
  3. maintaining acid base balance
  4. maintaining heat exchange
55
Q

What is a normal ratio for comparing the anteroposterior to the transverse diameter?

A

1:2 or 5:7

55
Q

Cheyene-strokes respirations

A

cyclic gradually wax and wane in regular pattern with periods of apnea

55
Q

Where is the respiratory center in the brain?

A

pons and medulla

56
Q

Biot’s Respirations

A

irregular patterns with periods of apnea

57
Q

Chronic obstructive breathing

A

normal inspiration with prolonged expiration (from increased airway resistance)

58
Q

Barrel Chest

A

anteroposterior to transverse diameter is equal

59
Q

Pectus excavatum

A

“funnel chest” sunken sternum (inward)

60
Q

Pectus Carninatum

A

“pigeon breast” forward protrusion

61
Q

Symmetric expansion

A

note any lag in expansion

62
Q

Tactile Fremitus

A

a palpable vibration, produced by the larynx

63
Q

Decreased Fremitus

A

any obstruction of vibration

64
Q

Increased fremitus

A

occurs with compression or consolidation of lung tissue

65
Q

Pleural Friction fremitus

A

results from inflammation of the pleura

66
Q

What does hyperresonance over the adult lung indicate?

A

emphysema or pneumothorax

67
Q

Diaphragmatic excursion

A

map out the lower lung border in inspiration and expiration by use of percussion

68
Q

What should the difference be between inspiration and expiration ?

A

it should be equal bilaterally and be 3-5 cm

69
Q

Crackles

A

high pitches popping

70
Q

Rhonchi

A

long, low pitched, course gurgling

71
Q

Friction Rub

A

harsh grating sound

72
Q

Wheezes

A

high-pitched whistling sound

73
Q

Bronchophony

A

have pt say 99 (increased transmission of voice with increased density or consolidation)

74
Q

Egophony

A

have pt say “ee” (sounds like an a with consolidation)

75
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy

A

have pt whisper a phrase (normally faint, muffled increased with consolidation)

76
Q

Cervical nodes:

A

drain the head and neck

77
Q

Axillary nodes

A

drain the breast and upper arm

78
Q

Epitrochlear node

A

drains the hand and lower arm; located in the antecubital fossa

79
Q

Inguinal nodes

A

drain the lower extremities, the external genitalia and the anterior abdominal wall

80
Q

Bilateral edema

A

indicated a systemic problem

81
Q

Unilateral edema

A

indicates an obstruction or inflammation

82
Q

What do enlarged nodes indicate?

A

infection, immunologic disease or malignant disease

83
Q

What does a full bounding pulse indicate?

A

exercise, anxiety, fever and hyperthyroidism

84
Q

What does a weak and thready pulse indicate?

A

shock and peripheral arterial disease

85
Q

Epitrochlear lymph nodes are located in the

A

anticubital fossa

86
Q

Inguinal lymph nodes are located in the

A

groin

87
Q

What does an enlarged epitrocheal node indicate?

A

infection of the hand or forearm

88
Q

Signs of arterial insufficiency

A

pallor, coolness, diminished pulse and strength

89
Q

Unilateral swelling

A

signifies a local problem

90
Q

Bilateral swelling

A

indicates a systemic problem

91
Q

Bruit

A

indicated turbulent blood flow from partial occlusion

92
Q

Venous ulcers

A

located on medial malleolus

93
Q

Arterial ulcers

A

located on tips of toes, metatarsal heads, or lateral malleoli

94
Q

Modified Allen Test

A

evaluates the adequacy of collateral circulation prior to cannulating the radial artery

*persistent pallor or sluggish return of color indicates occlusion of collateral circulation

95
Q

Precordium

A

region on the anterior chest, over the heart and great vessels

96
Q

Mediastinum

A

the middle third of the thoracic cavity between the lungs, contains the heart and great vessels

97
Q

Base of the heart

A

the top

98
Q

Apex of the heart

A

bottom of the heart

99
Q

What are the 2 atrioventricular valves?

A

tricuspid and mitral

100
Q

What are the two semi-lunar valves?

A

pulmonic and aortic valve

101
Q

P wave

A

depolarization of the atria

102
Q

PR interval

A

from the start of P wave to the beginning of QRS

103
Q

QRS

A

depolarization of ventricles

104
Q

T wave

A

repolarization of ventricles

105
Q

QT interval

A

electrical systole of the ventricles

106
Q

S1 heart sound

A

closure of the Mitral and Tricuspid valves

107
Q

S2 heart sound

A

closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves

108
Q

S3 heart sound

A

“ventricular gallop”

caused by ventricles being resistant to filling during the rapid filling phase

systolic heart failure

109
Q

S4 heart sound

A

“atrial gallop”

present at the end of diastole with resistance of the ventricles to filling

diastolic heart failure

110
Q

Murmurs

A

result from turbulent blood flow caused by :

-increased velocity
-decreased viscosity
-structural defects

111
Q

What are heart sounds described by:

A

-frequency or pitch
-intensity or loudness
-duration
-timing

112
Q

What side of the stethoscope is used for soft, low-pitched sounds?

A

the bell (specifically for murmurs and extra heart sounds)

113
Q

What is your cardiac output?

A

4-6 L/min (stroke volume x HR)

114
Q

Preload

A

venous return, the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole

115
Q

Frank-Starling Law

A

the greater the stretch, the stronger the cardiac contraction

116
Q

After load

A

The resistance the heart has to pump against

117
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

opening in the atrial septum, closes within 1st hour after birth

118
Q

Ductus arteriosus

A

opening between the aorta and pulmonary artery, usually closes within 10-15 hrs after birth

119
Q

What happens to your arterial pressure during pregnancy?

A

it decreases (reaches lowest point during 2nd trimester)

120
Q

What is a characteristic sign of angina?

A

clenched fist

121
Q

What is a heave or lift?

A

a sustained forceful thrusting of the ventricle during systole

122
Q

where is the aortic valve located

A

second right intercostal space

123
Q

where is the pulmonic valve located

A

second left intercostal space

124
Q

where is the tricuspid valve located

A

left sternal border

125
Q

where is the mitral valve located

A

fifth interspace near the left midclavicular line

126
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

A

persistence channel between left pulmonary artery to the aorta

127
Q

Arteriosus septal defect

A

abnormal opening in atrial septum

128
Q

Ventricular septal defect

A

abnormal opening in ventricular septum

Health Assessment (3 decks)

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