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H3M4/ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Part of the vascular intima that is involve in clotting process by
    producing and storing clotting components

a. CT Matrix
b. Endothelium
c. Subendothelial Collagen
d. Subendothelial CT

A

b. Endothelium

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2
Q
  1. Procoagulant property of a damaged vascular intima which
    binds vWF that binds and activates platelets
    a. An exposed smooth muscle cells & fibroblast
    b. An exposed subendothelial collagen
    c. Damaged or activated endothelial cells that secretes vWF
    d. Smooth muscles found in arterioles & arteries
A

b. An exposed subendothelial collagen

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3
Q
  1. Properties of platelet wherein platelet binds to a non-platelet
    surface:
    a. Adhesion
    b. Aggregation
    c. Secretion
A

a. Adhesion

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4
Q
  1. The narrowing of the lumen of the blood vessels during primary
    hemostasis will:
    a. Decrease the blood flow on the uninjured area of blood vessels
    b. Increase the blood flow on the injured area of blood vessels
    c. Release of circulating inhibitors in the plasma
    d. Release of clotting properties of the endothelium
    e. None
A

e. None

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5
Q
  1. The conversion of membrane phospholipids to arachidonic acid
    during platelet secretion is the function of
    a. Cyclooxygenase
    b. Phospholipid A2
    c. Thromboxane A2
    d. Thromboxane Synthetase
    e. NONE (Phospholipase A2 dapat)
A

e. NONE (Phospholipase A2 dapat)

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6
Q
  1. The conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin
    endoperoxidase during platelet secretion is the function of:
    (Choices from Q5)
    a. Cyclooxygenase
    b. Phospholipid A2
    c. Thromboxane A2
    d. Thromboxane Synthetase
A

a. Cyclooxygenase

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7
Q
  1. A form of hereditary vascular disorder that has a vascular defect
    wherein the blood vessels are thin-walled with a discontinuous
    endothelium, inadequate smooth muscle, and inadequate or
    missing elastin in the surrounding stroma:
    a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
    b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
    c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
    d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A

d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

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8
Q
  1. A form of hereditary vascular disorder that has a vascular defect
    in collagen production, structure, or crosslinking, with resulting
    inadequacy of the connective issues: (Choices from Q7)
    a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
    b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
    c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
    d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A

a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

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9
Q
  1. A form of hereditary vascular disorder which involves association of a giant cavernous hemangioma (vascular tumor),
    thrombocytopenia, and a bleeding diathesis: (Choices from Q#7)
    a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
    b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
    c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
    d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A

c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

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10
Q
  1. The following are acquired defects of platelet adhesion,
    except:
    a. Anli-platelet antibodies
    b. Chronic Liver Disease
    c. Scott Syndrome
    d. All of These
A

c. Scott Syndrome

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11
Q
  1. An autosomal recessive thrombocytopenias which involves
    mutations in the NBLEA2 Gene:
    a. Congenital Amegakaryocytic Thrombocytopenia
    b. Immune Thrombocytopenia
    c. Gray Platelet Syndrome
    d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
    e. NONE (NBEAL2 Gene dapat) if typo → GPS
A

c. Gray Platelet Syndrome

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12
Q
  1. An even in the physiologic hemostasis wherein there is a
    gradual digestion and removal of the fibrin clot as healing of the
    injury occurs:
    a. Coagulation
    b. Fibrinolysis
    c. Platelet Secretion
    d. Vasoconstriction
A

b. Fibrinolysis

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13
Q
  1. It is exposed from a disrupted subendothelial cells which
    activates the coagulation system through contact with plasma
    Factor VIl
    a. Collagen
    b. Tissue Factor
    c. ТРА
    d. Thrombomodulin
A

b. Tissue Factor

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14
Q
  1. It binds to GP IIb/IIIa receptors on adjacent platelets and joins
    them together in the presence of an ionized calcium.
    a. Fibrillin
    b. Fibrin
    c. Fibrinogen
    d. Fibronectin
A

c. Fibrinogen

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15
Q
  1. The following coagulation factors are consumed during the
    process of coagulation except:
    a. Antihemophilic Factor A
    b. Fibrin Stabilizing Factor
    c. Proaccelerin
    d. Proconvertin
A

d. Proconvertin

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16
Q
  1. The following are calcium and vitamin k independent
    coagulation factors, except:
    a. Fitzgerald Factor
    b. Fletcher Factor
    c. PTA
    d. PTC
A

d. PTC

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17
Q
  1. The primary in vivo initiation mechanism for extrinsic
    coagulation cascade depends on the formation of a.
    a. IXa: VIlla
    b. TF.Via
    c. TF:VIla
    d. Xa:Va
A

c. TF:VIla

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18
Q
  1. It is considered the marker of thrombosis and fibrinolysis:
    a. Fragment D-E-D
    b. Fragment E
    c. Fragment X
    d. Fragment Y
    e. None (D-Dimer)
A

e. None (D-Dimer)

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19
Q
  1. An intrinsic plasminogen activator secreted by the urinary tract
    epithelial cells, monocles and macrophages that convert
    plasminogen into its activated for:
    a. PAl-1
    b. TAFI
    c. ТРА
    d. UPA
A

d. UPA

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20
Q
  1. It is considered the primary inhibitor of free plasmin:
    a. A2-antiplasminogen
    b. PAI-1
    c. TAFI
    d. TFPI
    E. none A2 antiplasmin
A

E. none A2 antiplasmin

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21
Q
  1. The internal elastic lamina which primarily supports the
    endothelial cells are composed of
    a. Collagen & Elastin
    b. Collagen & Fibroblasts
    c. Elastin & Proteases
    d. Elastin & Zymogens
A

a. Collagen & Elastin

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22
Q
  1. Bernard-Soulier Syndrome involves an abnormal platelet
    function due to this missing platelet membrane receptor:
    a. GPIb/Ila Receptor
    b. GPIb/Ila Receptor
    c. GPIII Receptor
    d. GPIla/lIb Receptor
    e. none
A

e. none

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23
Q
  1. Glanzmann Thrombasthenia involves an abnormal platelet
    function due to this missing platelet membrane receptor: (Choices
    from Q#22)
    a. GPIb/Ila Receptor
    b. GPIb/Ila Receptor
    c. GPIII Receptor
    d. GPIla/lIb Receptor
    e. none
A

e. none

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24
Q
  1. The following are components of the platelet alpha-granules,
    except:
    a. ATP
    b. PDGF
    c. Protein S
    d. B-Thromboglobulin
A

a. ATP

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25
Q
  1. FVI was removed & never reassigned as part of the blood
    clotting factors because:
    a. It was determined to an activated form of contact factor
    b. It was determined to be an activated form of proconvertin
    c. It was determined to be an activated form of proaccelerin
    d. It was determined to be an activated form of stable factor
A

c. It was determined to be an activated form of proaccelerin

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26
Q
  1. Coagulation factors that are affected by coumadin (PIVKAS):
    a. Prothrombin, Proaccelerin, PTA, Stuart Factor
    b. Prothrombin, Proaccelerin, PTC, Stuart Factor
    c. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTA, Stuart Factor
    d. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTC, Stuart Factor
A

d. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTC, Stuart Factor

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27
Q
  1. Initiation phase of the coagulation cascade will produce
    ________ of the total thrombin generated:
    a. 2-3%
    b. 3-5%
    c. >95%
    d. >99%
A

b. 3-5%

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28
Q
  1. It is a cofactor to FVIla:
    a. Contact Factor
    b. Fletcher Factor
    c. Labile Factor
    d. Stable Factor
    e. none
A

e. none

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29
Q
  1. TF:FVIla complex will activate low levels of:
    a. Christmas & Stuart Factor
    b. Labile & Stable Factor
    c. Proconverlin & Proaccelerin
    d. PTA & PTC
A

a. Christmas & Stuart Factor

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30
Q
  1. These are activated by thrombin in the initiation phase bind to
    platelet membranes and become receptors for FX and FIXa:
    a. Flla & FVa
    b. FVa & FVIla
    c. FVa & FVIlla
    d. FXa & FVa
A

c. FVa & FVIlla

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31
Q
  1. A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a specific
    absence of morphologically recognizable alpha-granules in
    platelets.
    a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
    b. TAR Syndrome
    c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
    d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
    e. none
A

e. none

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32
Q
  1. An autosomal recessive disorder with a defective lysosomal
    function in variety of cells types with a tyrosine positive
    oculocutaneous albinism and a profound platelet dense granule
    deficiency. (Choices from Q#32)
    a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
    b. TAR Syndrome
    c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
    d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
A

c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome

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33
Q
  1. A rare autosomal recessive disorder that is accompanied by
    severe immunologic defects and progressive neurologic
    dysfunction in patients who survived to adulthood. A gene
    mutation in the long arm of Chromosome 1 is associated. (Choices
    from Q#32)
    a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
    b. TAR Syndrome
    c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
    d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
A

a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

34
Q
  1. This are released from a disrupted or damaged vessels which
    binds and activates platelets
    a. Collagen
    b. Prostacyclin
    c. P-Selectin
    d. vWF
A

d. vWF

35
Q
  1. A disorder with a characteristic mutation in the NBLEA2 gene is
    an example of what type of thrombocytopenia (NBEAL2???)
    a. Autosomal Dominant Thrombocytopenia
    b. Autosomal Recessive Thrombocytopenia
    c. Congenital Thrombocytopenia
    d. Sex-Linked Thrombocytopenia
A

b. Autosomal Recessive Thrombocytopenia

36
Q
  1. Which of the following blood coagulation factor is a cofactor?
    a. Christmas Factor
    b. Fletcher Factor
    c. Labile Factor
    d. Stable Factor
A

c. Labile Factor

37
Q
  1. Which of the following will serve as the source of tissue factor
    a. Fibroblasts
    b. Subendothelial cells
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

c. Both

38
Q
  1. When a person has Vitamin K deficiency, the following
    coagulation factor will most likely be affected, except:
    a. Christmas Factor
    b. Hageman Factor
    c. Stable Factor
    d. Stuart Facto
A

b. Hageman Factor

38
Q
  1. Classic form of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome is alternatively called
    as:
    a. Eczema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency Syndrome
    b. Eczema Thrombocytosis Immunodeficiency Syndrome
    c. Emphysema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency
    d . Emphysema Thrombocytosis Immunodeficiency Syndrome
A

a. Eczema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency Syndrome

39
Q
  1. Activation of the following coagulation factors in the intrinsic
    coagulation pathway
    a. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
    b. Hageman Factor, Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor C, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
    c. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Component, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
    d. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Component, Anti-Hemophilic Factor C, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Stuart Factor
    e. Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
A

a. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen

40
Q
  1. Evaluated under low power field and is the largest cell in the
    bone marrow
    a. Megakaryocytes
    b. Macrophages
    c. Histiocytes
    d. Langerhan cells
A

a. Megakaryocytes

41
Q
  1. The vertical and horizontal interactions of membrane proteins
    maintain the biconcave, discoid geometry of the RBC. describe
    the result of these forces
    a. Prevents loss of membrane
    b. Prevents membrane from fragmenting in response to too much stress
    c. Both A & B
A

c. Both A & B

42
Q
  1. This pre-analytical process is considered as the most important
    step in an analytical procedure
    a. Test Ordering
    b. Sample Preparation
    c. Patient Identification
    d. Computation of Results
A

c. Patient Identification

43
Q
  1. Which of the following marrow types is hematopoietically
    active?
    a. Red
    b. Yellow
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

a. Red

44
Q
  1. Where is the site of hematopoiesis during the myeloid phase
    a. Yolk Sac
    b. Liver
    c. Bone Marrow
    d. A and C
A

c. Bone Marrow

45
Q
  1. A leukocyte with round nucleus, light blue cytoplasm with few
    or no granule, average % in blood is 34
    a. Monocyte
    b. Eosinophil
    c. Lymphocyte
    d. Neutrophil
A

c. Lymphocyte

46
Q
  1. Where is most hematopoietic tissue found in adults?
    a. Lungs
    b. Flat Bones
    c. Spleen
    d. Long Bones
A

d. Long Bones

47
Q
  1. Hematopoietic development phase which occurs during the
    5th month of fetal development?
    a. Mesoblastic Phase
    b. Hepatic Phase
    c. Medullary Phase
    d. Yolk Sac Phase
A

c. Medullary Phase

48
Q
  1. The control center of the cell is the?
    a. Nucleus
    b. Cytoplasm
    c. Membrane
    d. Microtubular System
A

a. Nucleus

49
Q
  1. After age 70 years, fatty metamorphosis increases
    approximately ____% per decade
    a. 50
    b. 10
    c. 40
    d. 30
A

b. 10

50
Q
  1. When a stained blood smear is examined to determine the
    percentage of each type of leukocyte present and assess the
    erythrocyte and platelet morphology, this is a
    a. Differential count
    b. PBS count
    c. Both
    d. None
A

c. Both

51
Q
  1. The bone resorbing cell is known as
    a. Kupffer cells
    b. Langerhans cells
    c. Dendritic cells
    d. Osteoclasts
A

d. Osteoclasts

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is not considered a true cell because it is
    only a cytoplasmic remnant of a mother cell?
    a. Thrombocytes
    b. Leukocytes
    c. Erythrocytes
    d. AOTA
A

a. Thrombocytes

53
Q
  1. The most common erythroid maturation stages in the bone
    marrow
    a. Basophilic normoblast
    b. Orthochromic normoblast
    c. Polychromatic normoblast
    d. A and B
A

c. Polychromatic normoblast

54
Q
  1. Liquid portion of a non-anticoagulated blood
    a. Plasma
    b. Serum
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

b. Serum

55
Q
  1. What is the life span of basophils in the blood?
    a. 7 hours
    b. 18 hours
    c. 60 hours
    d. 48 hours
    e. None of these
A

c. 60 hours

56
Q
  1. Which of the following organs is responsible for the maturation
    of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD4 and
    CD8
    a. Bone marrow
    b. Thymus
    c. Lymph nodes
    d. Liver
A

b. Thymus

57
Q
  1. Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in
    sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they:
    a. Are unipotent
    b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
    c. Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow niches
    d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors
    e. None of these
A

b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

58
Q
  1. These organs function at some point in hematopoiesis except:
    a. Liver
    b. Spleen
    c. Thymus
    d. Bone marrow
    e. None of these
A

e. None of these

59
Q
  1. These factors play a major role in the maintenance,
    proliferation, and differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells and
    progenitor cells:
    a. Cytokines
    b. Growth factors
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

c. Both

60
Q
  1. These are organs which are located along the lymphatic
    capillaries that are parallel to, but not part of the circulatory
    system
    a. Lymph nodes
    b. Spleen
    c. MALT
    d. Thymus
A

a. Lymph nodes

61
Q
  1. During the ____ phase of prenatal hematopoiesis,
    hematopoietic stem cells and mesenchymal cells migrate in to the
    core of the bone
    a. Mesoblastic
    b. Hepatic
    c. Myeloid
    d. None of these
    e. All of these
A

c. Myeloid

62
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths?
    a. Neutrophils and Monocytes
    b. T & B Lymphocytes
    c. Eosinophils and Basophils
    d. Macrophages and Dendritic Cells
A

c. Eosinophils and Basophils

63
Q
  1. When a coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through
    the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be
    separated from the cellular elements is:
    a. Serum (pero non-anticoagulant dapat)
    b. Plasma (not straw colored?)
    c. Whole Blood
    d. Platelets
    e. none
A

e. none

64
Q
  1. What is the first type of cell produced by the developing
    embryo?
    a. Thrombocyte
    b. Lymphocyte
    c. Erythrocyte
    d. Granulocyte
A

c. Erythrocyte

65
Q
  1. This is a formation of clot inside the blood vessels
    a. Hemostasis
    b. Fibrinolysin
    c. Coagulation
    d. Thrombosis
A

d. Thrombosis

66
Q
  1. Scientist that describes platelet as petite plaques
    a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
    b. Athanasius Kircher
    c. James Homer
    d. Giullio Bizzozero
A

d. Giullio Bizzozero

67
Q
  1. In hematopoietic stem cell, multipotent is derived from _____,
    they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissue
    a. Pluripotent
    b. Totipotent
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

a. Pluripotent

68
Q
  1. During the mesoblastic stage, the types of hemoglobin formed
    are the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Gower 1
    b. Gower 2
    c. Portland
    d. Hemoglobin F
A

d. Hemoglobin F

69
Q
  1. The extramedullary hematopoiesis is the work of _ that mediate
    the progenitor binding to stroma.
    A. Proteoglycan
    B. Glycosaminoglycans
    C. Both
    D. none
A

C. Both

70
Q
  1. At which normoblastic stage does globin production begin?
    A. Orthochromic normoblast
    B. Pronormoblast
    C. Polychromatic normoblast
    D. Basophilic normoblast
A

B. Pronormoblast

71
Q

72.In the bone marrow , erythroid precursors are located
A. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands
B. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the ad____? Cell lining
C. Surrounding complement components
D. Storing iron from senescent red cell

A

A. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands

72
Q
  1. Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by
    A. Degrading antigen and presenting to lymphocytes
    B. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot
    C. Synthesizing complement components
    D. Storing iron from senescent red cell
A

A. Degrading antigen and presenting to lymphocytes

73
Q

74.The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is
indirected in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has
secondary granules that are lavender in color is the
A. Band
B. Myelocyte
C. Promyelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte

A

D. Metamyelocyte

74
Q
  1. The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development
    A. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8
    B. Maturation in the thymus
    C. Synthesis of immunoglobulin
    D. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes
A

D. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

75
Q
  1. The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis
    A. MIC-I
    B. FU - Meg
    C. CFU -meg
    D. LD-CFU-Meg
A

D. LD-CFU-Meg

76
Q

77.What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion
A. VWF
B. Factor VIII
C. Fibrinogen
D. P-selectin

A

A. VWF

77
Q

78.Microparticles
A. Are stored in platelets dense granules
B. Inhibit blood clotting
C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists
D. exhibit no biologic activity

A

C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists

78
Q

79.What platelet organelle sequesters ionic calcium binds a series
of enzymes of the
A. Glycocalyx
B. Dense granules
C. dene/tubular system

A

C. dene/tubular system

79
Q

80.White clots
A. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg
B. Are characteristics of the secondary hemostatic process
C. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF
D. From normally in response to vascular injury and
are completely

A

C. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF

Final Na 2 (4 decks)

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