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Sexual and reproductive health > Gynaecology - fastest and pass medicine > Flashcards

Gynaecology - fastest and pass medicine Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common cause of recurrent first trimester spontaneous miscarriage?

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

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2
Q

what is the definition of recurrent miscarriage?

A

3 or more consecutive spontaneous abortions

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3
Q

what are the causes of recurrent miscarriages? (5)

A 
antiphospholipid syndrome 
endocrine disorders: poorly controlled diabetes mellitus/thyroid disorder, PCOS 
uterine abnormality - uterine septum 
parental  chromosomal abnormalities 
smoking
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4
Q

symptoms of PMS regularly occur during which phase?

A

luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

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5
Q

when do symptoms of PMS improve?

A

end of menstruation

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6
Q

what are the symptoms of PMS? (4)

A

anxiety, irritability, bloating and nostalgia

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7
Q

what is the lifestyle management of PMS?(4)

A

healthy diet, exercise, reduction in stress levels and regular sleep

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8
Q

what is used to treat moderate to severe symptoms of PMS?

A

combined oral contraceptive pill and SSRIs

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9
Q

what is not recommended as treatment of PMS symptoms?

A

pyridoxine and progesterone alone

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10
Q

what are the commonest types of ovarian cysts?

A

follicular cysts

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11
Q

what types of cysts occur due to non-rupture of the dominant follicle or failure of atresia in a non-dominant follicle?

A

follicular cysts

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12
Q

what type of cyst occurs during the menstrual cycle if the pregnancy doesn’t occur and the corpus luteum doesn’t break down and disappear and its filled with blood or fluid

A

corpus luteal cyst

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13
Q

what is the presentation of corpus luteum cyst?

A

intraperitoneal bleeding

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14
Q

what is the most common type of ovarian cancer

A

serous carcinoma

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15
Q

what are the features of PCOS? (7)

A

subfertility and infertility
menstrual disturbances: oligomenorrhea and amenorrhoea
hirsutism, acne (due to hyperandrogenism)
obesity
acanthosis nigricans (due to insulin resistance)

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16
Q

what does PCOS pelvic ultrasound show?

A

multiple cysts on the ovaries

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17
Q

what is the classic investigative feature of PCOS?

A

LH;FSH ratio is raised

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18
Q

what do you need to check for in PCOS?

A

impaired glucose tolerance

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19
Q

GnRH agonists may ——- the size of uterine fibroids?

A

reduce

20
Q

what can reduce the severity of fibroid-related bleeding?

A

progesterone receptor inhibitors

21
Q

what shouldn’t be taken 4-6 weeks prior to major surgery due to increased risk of venous thromboembolism?

A

COCP

22
Q

what are common associations with uterine fibroids?

A

more common in afro-caribbean women

rare before puberty, develop in response to estrogen and don’t tend to progress following menopause

23
Q

how do you diagnose uterine fibroids?

A

transvaginal ultrasound

24
Q

what is a complication of uterine fibroids?

A

red degeneration - hemorrhage into tumour

25
Q

when does red degeneration commonly occur?

A

during pregnancy

26
Q

reinfibulation is —– and ——— be done under any circumstances

A

illegal and cannot

27
Q

which act advises that all forms of female genital cutting/modification of anon-medical reasons is illegal and cannot be performed underhand circumstances, not illegal to discuss it

A

the female genital mutilation act 2003

28
Q 
which class of FMG is this: 
Partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce (clitoridectomy).
A

type 1

29
Q

which class of FGM is this: Partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora (excision).

A

type 2

30
Q 
which class of FGM is this: 
Narrowing of the vaginal orifice with creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris (infibulation).
A

type 3

31
Q 
which class of FGM is this: 
All other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, for example: pricking, piercing, incising, scraping and cauterization.
A

type 4

32
Q

what is the treatment for vaginal vault prolapse?

A

sacrocolpoplexy

33
Q

what procedure suspends the vaginal apex to the sacral promontory?

A

sacrocolpoplexy

34
Q

what is the procedure when the vaginal wall is repaired following a cystocele?

A

anterior colporrhaphy

35
Q

what is the procedure when reconstruction of the vagina is done to make t’tighter” following childbirth e.g.

A

vaginoplasty

36
Q

what is the procedure when the uterus is removed via the vagina?

A

vaginal hysterectomy

37
Q

what is the procedure when the ovaries are removed?

A

bilateral oophorectomy

38
Q

what is called when there is descent of one of the pelvic organs resulting in protrusion on the vagina walls?

A

urogenital prolapse

39
Q

what percentage of women are affected by urogenital prolapse?

A

40%

40
Q

what are the risk factors for urogenital prolapse? (5)

A

increasing age
multiparty, vaginal deliveries
obesity
spina bifida

41
Q

what is the presentation of urogenital prolapse?

A

sensation of pressure, heaviness, bearing down

urinary symptoms; incontinence, frequency, urgency

42
Q

what is the conservative management of urogenital prolapse?

A

weight loss, pelvic floor muscle exercises

43
Q

if the patient has asymptomatic and mild prolapse what is the treatment?

A

no treatment needed

44
Q

what are other options for treatment of urogenital prolapse?

A

ring pessary and surgery

45
Q

how do surgically treat cystocele/cystourethrocele?

A

anterior colporrhaphy, colposuspension

46
Q

how do you treat uterine prolapse?

A

hysterectomy, sacrohysteropexy

47
Q

how do you treat rectocele?

A

posterior colporrhapy

Sexual and reproductive health (5 decks)

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