Gynaecology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Gonadal axis and the role of each hormone

A

The hypothalamus releases gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH). GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

LH and FSH stimulate the development of follicles in the ovaries. The theca granulosa cells around the follicles secrete oestrogen. Oestrogen has a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to suppress the release of GnRH, LH and FSH.

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2
Q

What is oestrogen and it’s most prevalent and active form? What does is stimulate?

A

Oestrogen is a steroid sex hormone produced by the ovaries in response to LH and FSH. The most prevalent and active version is 17-beta oestradiol. It acts on tissues with oestrogen receptors to promote female secondary sexual characteristics. It stimulates:

  • Breast tissue development
  • Growth and development of the female sex organs (vulva, vagina and uterus) at puberty
  • Blood vessel development in the uterus
  • Development of the endometrium
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3
Q

What is progesterone and what does it do?

A

Progesterone is a steroid sex hormone produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation. When pregnancy occurs, progesterone is produced mainly by the placenta from 10 weeks gestation onwards. Progesterone acts on tissues that have previously been stimulated by oestrogen. Progesterone acts to:

  • Thicken and maintain the endometrium
  • Thicken the cervical mucus
  • Increase the body temperature
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4
Q

What age does puberty occur and how long does it take?

A

Puberty starts age 8 – 14 in girls and 9 – 15 in boys. It takes about 4 years from start to finish. Girls have their pubertal growth spurt earlier in puberty than boys.

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5
Q

Why do overweight children go through puberty earlier? Who might have delayed puberty?

A

Aromatase is an enzyme found in adipose (fat) tissue, that is important in the creation of oestrogen. Therefore, the more adipose tissue present, the higher the quantity of the enzyme responsible for oestrogen creation. There may be delayed puberty in girls with low birth weight, chronic disease or eating disorders, or athletes.

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6
Q

What scale is used to assess the stages of puberty?

A

Tanner Staging:

  1. Under 10, no pubic hair, no breast development
  2. 10-11, light and thin pubic hair, breast buds form behind the areola
  3. 11-13, course and curly, breast begins to elevate beyond the areola
  4. 13-14, adult like pubic hair but does not reach the thigh, areolar mound forms and projects from surrounding breast
  5. 14+, pubic hair extends to medial thigh, areolar mounds reduce, and adult breasts form
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7
Q

What do FSH & LH do in both girls and boys?

A

The rise in FSH stimulates an increase in oestrogen synthesis and oogenesis in females and the onset of sperm production in males.

The rise in LH stimulates an increase in production of progesterone in females and an increase in testosterone production in males.

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8
Q

Describe the process of thelarche

A
  • born with lobulated glandular tissue embedded in adipose tissue, separated by fibrous connective tissue
  • the breasts are in a dormant stage until puberty. In this dormant stage there are only lactiferous ducts with no alveoli.
  • puberty- increase in oestrogens causes the development of the lactiferous duct system as the ducts grow in branches with the ends forming the lobular alveoli (small, spheroidal masses).
  • mediated by progesterone, these lobules will increase in number through puberty.
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9
Q

Describe pubarche

A

The second sign of puberty in girls is typically the growth of hair in the pubic area. The hair initially appears sparse, light and straight; however, throughout the course of puberty it becomes coarser, thicker and darker.

Approximately 2 years after pubarche, hair begins to grow in the axillary area as well. In both sexes, hair growth is a secondary sexual characteristic mediated by testosterone.

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10
Q

Describe menarche

A

It’s the first menstrual period and marks the beginning of the menstrual cycles. It normally occurs around 1.5-3 years after thelarche and is due to the increase in FSH and LH.

The menarche process typically occurs at ~12.8 years (+/- 1.2 years) for Caucasian girls and 4-8 months later for African-American girls

FSH levels plateau about a year before menarche. LH levels continue to rise, and spike just before they induce menarche.

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11
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

A

Increased testicular size - increased LH stimulates testosterone synthesis by Leydig cells and the increased FSH stimulates sperm production by Sertoli cells. Spermatogenic tissue (Leydig cells and Sertoli cells) makes up the majority of the increasing testicular tissue.

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12
Q

What other genital changes happen in boys after increase in testicular size?

A
  1. scrotal skin grows, becomes thinner, darker in colour and starts to hang down from the body. It also starts to become spotted with hair follicles.
  2. a year after the testicles begin to grow, first ejaculation happens. The testicles are now producing sperm as well as testosterone. The first ejaculation marks the theoretical capability of procreation. However, on average fertility is reached one year after first ejaculation.
  3. The penis first grows in length. Then the width of the penis increases as the breadth of the shaft increases. The glans penis and corpus cavernosum also enlarge.
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13
Q

Describe the hormonal changes that result in the pubertal growth spurt

A
  • complex interaction between the gonadal sex steroids (oestradiol/testosterone), GH and insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1).
  • GH levels will rise with sex steroids (testosterone which has been converted to oestradiol) and their positive effect on the pulsatile release of GH from the anterior pituitary gland.
  • rise in GH causes a rise in the anabolic hormone IGF-1, which causes somatic growth via its metabolic actions (e.g. increases trabecular bone growth.)
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14
Q

In boys, what is a noticeable sign of puberty that happens after the growth spurt?

A

Following the peak of the growth spurt in males, the larynx and vocal cords (voicebox) enlarge, and the boy’s voice may ‘crack’ occasionally as it deepens in pitch.

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15
Q

What is delayed or absent puberty?

A

the absence of secondary sexual characteristics by the age of 13 in girls or 16 in boys

Causes:
- Hypogondaotropic hypogonadism
- Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
- Turner’s Syndrome (45 XO)
- Klinefelter’s Syndrome (47 XXY)
- Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
- Kallmann Syndrome

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16
Q

What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

2 phases: the follicular phase and the luteal phase.

  • The follicular phase is from the start of menstruation to the moment of ovulation (the first 14 days in a 28-day cycle).
  • The luteal phase is from the moment of ovulation to the start of menstruation (the final 14 days of the cycle).
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17
Q

What are follicles and what are their 4 main stages of development in the ovaries?

A

Granulosa cells surround the oocytes, forming structures called follicles.

  1. Primordial follicles
  2. Primary follicles
  3. Secondary follicles
  4. Antral follicles (also known as Graafian follicles)
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18
Q

How do primordial follicles become secondary follicles?

A
  • Primordial follicles maturing into primary and secondary follicles is always happening, independent of the menstrual cycle.
  • When at secondary follicle stage, FSH receptors develop.
  • Further development after the secondary follicle stage requires stimulation from FSH.
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19
Q

Describe the follicular stage of the menstrual cycle

A
  • At the start of the menstrual cycle, FSH stimulates further development of the secondary follicles.
  • As they grow, granulosa cells that surround them secrete increasing amounts of oestradiol (oestrogen).
  • oestradiol has a negative feedback effect on the pituitary gland, reducing the quantity of LH and FSH produced.
  • The rising oestrogen also causes the cervical mucus to become more permeable, allowing sperm to penetrate the cervix around the time of ovulation.
  • One follicle will develop further than the others and become the dominant follicle.
  • LH spikes just before ovulation, causing the dominant follicle to release the ovum (an unfertilised egg) from the ovary.
  • Ovulation happens 14 days before the end of the menstrual cycle, for example, day 14 of a 28-day cycle, or day 16 of a 30-day cycle.
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20
Q

Describe the luteal phase

A
  • After ovulation, the follicle that released the ovum collapses and becomes the corpus luteum.
  • It secretes high levels of progesterone, which maintains the endometrial lining. - This progesterone also causes the cervical mucus to become thick and no longer penetrable.
  • The corpus luteum also secretes a small amount of oestrogen.
  • When there is no fertilisation of the ovum, and no production of hCG, the corpus luteum degenerates and stops producing oestrogen and progesterone.
  • This fall in oestrogen and progesterone causes the endometrium to break down and menstruation to occur.
  • Additionally, the stromal cells of the endometrium release prostaglandins.
  • Prostaglandins encourage the endometrium to break down and the uterus to contract.
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21
Q

What happens if there is fertilisation?

A

When fertilisation occurs, the syncytiotrophoblast of the embryo secretes human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG). HCG maintains the corpus luteum. Without hCG, the corpus luteum degenerates. Pregnancy tests check for hCG to confirm a pregnancy.

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22
Q

What is menstruation?

A

Menstruation involves the superficial and middle layers of the endometrium separating from the basal layer. The tissue is broken down inside the uterus, and released via the cervix and vagina. The release of fluid containing blood from the vagina lasts 1 – 8 days.

Menstruation starts on day 1 of the menstrual cycle. The negative feedback from oestrogen and progesterone on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland ceases, allowing the levels of LH and FSH to begin to rise, and the cycle to restart.

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23
Q

What is primary amenorrhoea?

A

Primary amenorrhoea is defined as not starting menstruation:

  1. By 13 years when there is no other evidence of pubertal development
  2. By 15 years of age where there are other signs of puberty, such as breast bud development
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24
Q

What are the causes of primary amenorrhoea?

A
  1. Hypogonadism (can be hypo or hyper-gonadotropic)
  2. Kallman Syndrome
  3. Turner’s Syndrome
  4. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
  5. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
  6. Congenital malformations of the genital tract
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25
Q

What is hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

deficiency of LH and FSH due to hypothalamic or anterior pituitary dysfunction, leading to deficiency of the sex hormone.

This could be due to:
- hypopituitarism
- damage to hypothalamus or pituitary from radiotherpay/surgery/cancer
- significant chronic conditions (e.g. CF/IBD)
- Excessive exercising or dieting
- constitutional delay in growth and development
- endocrine disorders e.g. cushings
- kallman syndrome

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26
Q

What is hypergonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

the gonads fail to respond to stimulation from LH and FSH. Without negative feedback from the sex hormones (oestrogen), the anterior pituitary produces increasing amounts of LH and FSH. Consequently, you get high gonadotrophins (“hypergonadotropic”) and low sex hormones (“hypogonadism”).

This could be due to:
- Previous damage to the gonads (e.g. torsion, cancer or infections such as mumps)
- Congenital absence of the ovaries
- Turner’s syndrome (XO)

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27
Q

What is Turner’s Syndrome?

A

A female has a single X chromosome, making them 45 XO. The O referrs to an empty space where the other X chromosome should be.

Presents with:
Short stature
Webbed neck
High arching palate
Downward sloping eyes with ptosis
Broad chest with widely spaced nipples
Cubitus valgus
Underdeveloped ovaries with reduced function
Late or incomplete puberty
Most women are infertile

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28
Q

What are the associated conditions with Turner’s?

A

Recurrent otitis media
Recurrent urinary tract infections
Coarctation of the aorta
Hypothyroidism
Hypertension
Obesity
Diabetes
Osteoporosis
Various specific learning disabilities

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29
Q

How is Turners managed?

A

There is no way to treat the underlying genetic cause of Turner syndrome. Treatment aims to help with the symptoms of the condition:

  1. Growth hormone therapy can be used to prevent short stature
  2. Oestrogen and progesterone replacement can help establish female secondary sex characteristics, regulate the menstrual cycle and prevent osteoporosis
  3. Fertility treatment can increase the chances of becoming pregnant

Patients need monitoring for the associated conditions and complications.

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30
Q

What is Kallman Syndrome?

A

an X-linked recessive disorder characterised by failure of migration of GnRH cells and anosmia

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31
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

congenital deficiency of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme causing underproduction of cortisol and aldosterone, and overproduction of androgens from birth.

It is a genetic condition inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. In a small number of cases, it involves a deficiency of 11-beta-hydroxylase rather than 21-hydroxylase.

In severe cases, the neonate is unwell shortly after birth, with electrolyte disturbances and hypoglycaemia. In mild cases, female patients can present later in childhood or at puberty with typical features:

Tall for their age
Facial hair
Absent periods (primary amenorrhoea)
Deep voice
Early puberty

High levels of 17- hydroxyprogesterone are present in the blood.

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32
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

cells are unable to respond to androgen hormones due to a lack of androgen receptors. It is an X-linked recessive genetic condition, caused by a mutation in the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome. Extra androgens are converted into oestrogen, resulting in female secondary sexual characteristics. It was previously known as testicular feminisation syndrome.

There is complete and partial. Partial is less severe with more ambiguous signs such as a micropenis or clitoromegaly, bifid scrotum, hypospadias and diminished male characteristics

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33
Q

What sex is someone genetically if they have androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Genetically male with an XY genotype

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34
Q

What anatomy does someone with androgen insensitivity syndrome have?

A

Typical male sexual characteristics do not develop, and patients have normal female external genitalia and breast tissue.

Patients have testes in the abdomen or inguinal canal, and absence of a uterus, upper vagina, cervix, fallopian tubes and ovaries. The female internal organs do not develop because the testes produce anti-Müllerian hormone, which prevents males from developing an upper vagina, uterus, cervix and fallopian tubes.

The insensitivity to androgens also results in a lack of pubic hair, facial hair and male type muscle development. Patients tend to be slightly taller than the female average. Patients are infertile, and there is an increased risk of testicular cancer unless the testes are removed.

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35
Q

How does androgen insufficiency syndrome present?

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome often presents in infancy with inguinal hernias containing testes. Alternatively, it presents at puberty with primary amenorrhoea.

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36
Q

What hormone blood test results would you expect in someone with androgen insufficiency syndrome?

A

Raised LH
Normal or raised FSH
Normal or raised testosterone levels (for a male)
Raised oestrogen levels (for a male)

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37
Q

How is androgen insensitivity syndrome managed?

A

Specialist MDT

  • Bilateral orchidectomy (removal of the testes) to avoid testicular tumours
  • Oestrogen therapy
  • Vaginal dilators or vaginal surgery can be used to create an adequate vaginal length

Generally, patients are raised as female, but this is sensitive and tailored to the individual. They are offered support and counselling to help them understand the condition and promote their psychological, social and sexual wellbeing.

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38
Q

What structural abnormalities can cause primary amenorrhoea?

A

If the ovaries are unaffected, there will be typical secondary sexual characteristics, but no menstrual periods. There may be cyclical abdominal pain as menses build up but are unable to escape through the vagina. Structural pathology that can cause primary amenorrhoea include:

Imperforate hymen
Transverse vaginal septae
Vaginal agenesis
Absent uterus
Female genital mutilation

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39
Q

When do you investigate primary amenorrhoea?

A

The threshold for initiating investigations is no evidence of pubertal changes in a girl aged 13. Investigation can also be considered when there is some evidence of puberty but no progression after two years.

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40
Q

What investigations would you undertake in suspected primary amenorrhoea?

A
  1. Initial investigations assess for underlying medical conditions:
    Full blood count and ferritin for anaemia
    U&E for chronic kidney disease
    Anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies for coeliac disease
  2. Hormonal blood tests assess for hormonal abnormalities:
    FSH and LH will be low in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and high in hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
    Thyroid function tests
    Insulin-like growth factor I is used as a screening test for GH deficiency
    Prolactin is raised in hyperprolactinaemia
    Testosterone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome, androgen insensitivity syndrome and congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  3. Genetic testing with a microarray test to assess for underlying genetic conditions:
    Turner’s syndrome (XO)
  4. Imaging can be useful:
    Xray of the wrist to assess bone age and inform a diagnosis of constitutional delay
    Pelvic ultrasound to assess the ovaries and other pelvic organs
    MRI of the brain to look for pituitary pathology and assess the olfactory bulbs in possible Kallman syndrome
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41
Q

How do you manage primary amenorrhoea?

A

Depends on the cause…
- if necessary, replacement hormones can induce menstruation and puberty
- constitutional delay may just need observation
- if it is due to stress/ED then they need CBT, stress reduction and healthy weight gain
- if it’s an underlying condition then treatment of that cause needs optimisation
- in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, pulsatile GnRH can induce ovulation and menstruation. If pregnancy is not wanted then COCP can induce menstruation and prevent symptoms of oestrogen deficiency
- COCP can also be used with ovarian causes

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42
Q

What is secondary amenorrhoea?

A

no menstruation for more than three months after previous regular menstrual periods. Consider assessment and investigation after three to six months. In women with previously infrequent irregular periods, consider investigating after six to twelve months.

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43
Q

What are the causes of secondary amenorrhoea?

A
  1. Pregnancy is the most common cause
  2. Menopause and premature ovarian failure
  3. Hormonal contraception (e.g. IUS or POP)
  4. Hypothalamic or pituitary pathology
  5. Ovarian causes such as polycystic ovarian syndrome
  6. Uterine pathology such as Asherman’s syndrome
  7. Thyroid pathology
  8. Hyperprolactinaemia
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44
Q

How does hyperprolactinaemia cause secondary amenorrhoea?

A
  • High prolactin levels act on the hypothalamus to prevent the release of GnRH.
  • Without GnRH, there is no release of LH and FSH.
  • This causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

NB only 30% of women with a high prolactin level will have galactorrhea (breast milk production and secretion).

The most common cause is a pituitary adenoma secreting prolactin. A CT or MRI scan of the brain is used to assess for a pituitary tumour. Often there is a microadenoma that will not appear on the initial scan, and follow up scans are required to identify tumours that may develop later.

Often no treatment is required for hyperprolactinaemia. Dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine or cabergoline can be used to reduce prolactin production. These medications treat hyperprolactinaemia, Parkinson’s disease and acromegaly.

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45
Q

How do you investigate secondary amenorrhoea?

A
  1. Pregnancy test
  2. LH and FSH
  3. Prolactin
  4. TSH + T3+4
  5. Testosterone
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46
Q

Which hormone levels indicate:
1. Primary Ovarian Failure
2. PCOS

A

High FSH suggests primary ovarian failure

High LH, or LH:FSH ratio, suggests polycystic ovarian syndrome

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47
Q

Which condition does high testosterone indicate?

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome, androgen insensitivity syndrome or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

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48
Q

How is secondary amenorrhoea managed?

A

Management of secondary amenorrhoea involves establishing and treating the underlying cause. Where necessary, replacement hormones can induce menstruation and improve symptoms.

Patients with amenorrhoea associated with low oestrogen levels are at risk increased risk of osteoporosis. Where the amenorrhoea lasts more than 12 months, treatment is indicated to reduce the risk of osteoporosis:

Ensure adequate vitamin D and calcium intake
Hormone replacement therapy or the combined oral contraceptive pill

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49
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy and its risk factors?

A

Ectopic pregnancy is when a pregnancy is implanted outside the uterus. The most common site is a fallopian tube. An ectopic pregnancy can also implant in the entrance to the fallopian tube (cornual region), ovary, cervix or abdomen.

RFs:
- Previous ectopic pregnancy
- Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
- Previous surgery to the fallopian tubes
- Intrauterine devices (coils)
- Assisted conception
- Older age
- Smoking

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50
Q

How common are ectopic prgenancies?

A

1 in 90 pregnancies are ectopic

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51
Q

How does ectopic pregnancy present?

A

It typically presents around 6-8 weeks gestation
Missed period
Constant lower abdominal pain in the right or left iliac fossa
Vaginal bleeding/Prune juice coloured discharge Lower abdominal or pelvic tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness (pain when moving the cervix during a bimanual examination)
Dizziness/Syncope (blood loss)
Shoulder tip pain (peritonitis)

On examination - cervical excitation and/or adnexal tenderness

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52
Q

What signs should you look out for when suspicious of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

A

the patient may also be haemodynamically unstable (pallor, increased capillary refill time, tachycardia, hypotension), with signs of peritonitis (abdominal rebound tenderness and guarding). Vaginal examination may reveal fullness in the pouch of Douglas.

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53
Q

How do you investigate a possible ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. pregnancy test
  2. transabdominal USS, if no intrauterine pregnancy seen then offer transvaginal
  3. if positive preganancy test but no uterine pregnancy then this is a pregnancy of unknown location meaning it is a very early intrauterine pregnancy, a miscarriage or an ectopic pregnancy
  4. in this scenario a serum beta HCG should be taken
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54
Q

What would you see on USS in a patient with an ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • non-specific mass may be seen in the tube. When a mass containing an empty gestational sac is seen, this may be referred to as the “blob sign”, “bagel sign” or “tubal ring sign”
  • adnexal mass that moves separatelyto the ovary. Sensitivity of 87-99%.​ Do not confuse with corpus luteum which moves with the ovary
  • In 20% of cases apseudosacmay be seen as fluid within the uterine cavity​
  • Free fluid may be seen but is not diagnostic of an ectopicpregnancy
  • If there’s been a miscarriage then ​a gestational sac containing a yolk sac or fetal pole may be seen in a fallopian tube.
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55
Q

In a suspected ectopic pregnancy, what would you do if serum beta hcg was more than 1500iU?

A

If there is no intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound, then this should be considered an ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise, and a diagnostic laparoscopy should be offered.

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56
Q

In a suspected ectopic pregnancy, what would you do if serum beta hcg was less than 1500iU?

A

if the patient is stable, a further blood test can be taken 48 hours later:
- In a viable pregnancy, HCG level would be expected to double every 48 hours.
- In a miscarriage, HCG level would be expected to halve every 48 hours
- Where the increase or drop in the rate of change is outside these limits, an ectopic pregnancy cannot be excluded and the patient should be managed accordingly.

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57
Q

If a beta HCG test is done after 48 hours of the initial test, what does a rise of more than 63% indicate?

A

an intrauterine pregnancy. A repeat ultrasound scan is required after 1 – 2 weeks to confirm an intrauterine pregnancy. A pregnancy should be visible on an ultrasound scan once the hCG level is above 1500 IU / l.

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58
Q

If a beta HCG test is done after 48 hours of the initial test, what does a rise of less than 63% indicate?

A

ectopic pregnancy. When this happens the patient needs close monitoring and review.

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59
Q

If a beta HCG test is done after 48 hours of the initial test, what does a fall of more than 50% indicate?

A

a miscarriage. A urine pregnancy test should be performed after 2 weeks to confirm the miscarriage is complete.

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60
Q

How is an ectopic pregnancy managed?

A

It must be terminated as it is not a viable pregnancy.

Options:
1. Expectant management (awaiting natural termination)
2. Medical management (methotrexate)
3. Surgical management (salpingectomy or salpingotomy)

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61
Q

What is the criteria for conservative/expectant management in ectopic pregnancy?

A

Follow up needs to be possible to ensure successful termination
The ectopic needs to be unruptured
Adnexal mass < 35mm
No visible heartbeat
No significant pain
HCG level < 1500 IU / l

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62
Q

What is the criteria for medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Follow up needs to be possible to ensure successful termination
The ectopic needs to be unruptured
Adnexal mass < 35mm
No visible heartbeat
No significant pain
HCG level < 5000 IU / l
Confirmed absence of uterine pregnancy on ultrasound

If a woman fits the criteria she will receive an IM dose of methrotrexate

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63
Q

What are the contraindications for medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Contraindications include thrombocytopaenia, hepatic or renaldysfunction, immunocompromised, breastfeeding and pepticulcer disease

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64
Q

What follow up is done after medical management of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

The serum β-HCG level is monitored regularly to ensure the level is declining (by >15% in day 4-5). If there isn’t such a decline, a repeat dose is administered.

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65
Q

What advice must you give to someone having methotrexate for management of ectopic pregnancy and what side effects do you need to warn them of?

A

Women treated with methotrexate are advised not to get pregnant for 3 months following treatment. This is because the harmful effects of methotrexate on pregnancy can last this long.

Common side effects of methotrexate include:
Vaginal bleeding
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain
Stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)

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66
Q

Which patients with ectopic pregnancy would be managed surgically?

A

Anyone that does not meet the criteria for expectant or medical management requires surgical management. Most patients with an ectopic pregnancy will require surgical management. This include those with:

Pain
Adnexal mass > 35mm
Visible heartbeat
HCG levels > 5000 IU / l

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67
Q

What are the surgical management options for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Laparoscopic salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy. This involves a general anaesthetic and key-hole surgery with removal of the affected fallopian tube, along with the ectopic pregnancy inside the tube.

Laparoscopic salpingotomy may be used in women at increased risk of infertility due to damage to the other tube. The aim is to avoid removing the affected fallopian tube. A cut is made in the fallopian tube, the ectopic pregnancy is removed, and the tube is closed.

There is an increased risk of failure to remove the ectopic pregnancy with salpingotomy compared with salpingectomy. NICE state up to 1 in 5 women having salpingotomy may need further treatment with methotrexate or salpingectomy.

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68
Q

What must you give to a rhesus negative woman having surgical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Anti-rhesus D prophylaxis is given to rhesus negative women having surgical management of ectopic pregnancy.

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69
Q

What are the complications of an untreated ectopic pregnancy?

A

An untreated ectopic pregnancy can lead to fallopian tube rupture. The resulting blood loss can cause hypovolaemic shock, resulting in organ failure and death.

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70
Q

What are the causes of heavy menstrual/abnormal uterine bleeding?

A

Structural = PALM = Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma (Fibroid) and Malignancy & hyperplasia

Non-structural = COEIN = Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not yet classified

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (no identifiable cause)
Extremes of reproductive age
Fibroids
Endometriosis and adenomyosis
Pelvic inflammatory disease (infection)
Contraceptives, particularly the copper coil
Anticoagulant medications
Bleeding disorders (e.g. Von Willebrand disease)
Endocrine disorders (diabetes and hypothyroidism)
Connective tissue disorders
Endometrial hyperplasia or cancer
Polycystic ovarian syndrome

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71
Q

What are the main RFs for heavy menstrual bleeding?

A
  • age (more likely at menarche and approaching the menopause)
  • obesity

There are also other risk factors that relate to the specific causes of HMB. One example would be previous caesarean section – as a risk factor for adenomyosis.

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72
Q

What are the main clinical features of HMB? What things do you need to ascertain from the history?

A
  • Bleeding during menstruation deemed to be excessive for the individual woman.
  • Fatigue
  • SOB (if associated anaemia)
  • A menstrual cycle history should be taken
  • Date of LMP
  • Intermenstrual bleeding and post coital bleeding
  • Smear history
  • Contraception, medical history and medications
  • Sexual history
  • Possibility of pregnancy
  • Plans for future pregnancies
  • Cervical screening history
  • Migraines with or without aura (for the pill)
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73
Q

What should be included on a physical exam investigating HMB?

A

Examination of the patient should include a general observation, abdominal palpation, speculum and bimanual examination.

  • Pallor (anaemia)
  • Palpable uterus or pelvic mass
  • Try to ascertain if the uterus is smooth or irregular (fibroids)
  • A tender uterus or cervical excitation point toward adenomyosis/endometriosis
  • Inflamed cervix/cervical polyp/cervical tumour
  • Vaginal tumour
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74
Q

How would you investigate HMB?

A
  1. Urine pregnancy test
  2. FBC
  3. Other bloods to consider = TFT, hormones for pcos, coag + vWF
  4. Pelvic US - transvaginal
  5. Cervical smear - don’t need to if up to date
  6. High vaginal and endocervical swabs
  7. Pipelle endometrial biopsy:
    Indications for biopsy include persistent intermenstrual bleeding, >45 years old, and/or failure of pharmacological treatment.
  8. Hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy:
    Typically performed when ultrasound identifies pathology, or is inconclusive.
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75
Q

How do you manage HMB/AUB medically?

A
  1. Exclude underlying pathology
  2. Treatment depends on whether woman wants contraception:

If she does not want contraception:
- Tranexamic Acid and Mefanamic Acid during menstruation

If she does:
- Mirena IUS
- COCP
- Cyclical oral progestogens - POP, Depo, Implant

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76
Q

What are management options for HMB in secondary care?

A
  1. Pharmacological: gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogues (induce hypogonadal state). Use of GnRH analogues is reserved for specialists and may be a bridge to other therapies.
  2. Surgical: endometrial ablation, hysterectomy. Uterine artery embolization and myomectomy can be used for fibroids.
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77
Q

Why would someone be referred to secondary care for HMB?

A
  1. Failure of medical therapy
  2. Need for surgery
  3. Iron-deficiency anaemia not responding to medical therapy
  4. Cancer red flags:
    - Persistent intermenstrual or post-coital bleeding
    - Unexplained vulval lump or vulval ulceration and bleeding
    - Palpable abdominal mass that is not obviously a fibroid
    - Clinical features of cervical cancer
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78
Q

What are fibroids? What is their epidemiology?

A

Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) are benign smooth muscle tumours of the uterus.

They are the most common benign tumours in women, with an estimated incidence of 20-40%. The risk of a fibroid becoming malignant is 0.1%.

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79
Q

What is the pathophysiology of fibroids and how are they classified?

A

Benign smooth muscle tumours coming from the myometrium. Poor understanding but growth is thought to be stimulated by oestrogen.

  • Intramural (most common) – confined to the myometrium of the uterus.
  • Submucosal – develops immediately underneath the endometrium of the uterus, and protrudes into the uterine cavity.
  • Subserosal – protrudes into and distort the serosal (outer) surface of the uterus. They may be pedunculated (on a stalk).
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80
Q

What are the risk factors for fibroids?

A

Obesity
Early menarche
Increasing age
Family history- Women with a 1st degree relative affected carry a 2.5x increased risk.
Ethnicity- African-Americans are 3x more likely to develop fibroid than Caucasians.

Pregnancy and Progestogen only contraception seem to reduce risk

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81
Q

How do fibroids present?

A
  • Often asymptomatic
  • Heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) is the most frequent presenting symptom
  • Prolonged menstruation, lasting more than 7 days
  • Abdominal pain, worse during menstruation
  • Bloating or feeling full in the abdomen
  • Urinary or bowel symptoms due to pelvic pressure or fullness (frequency or retention)
  • Deep dyspareunia (pain during intercourse)
  • Reduced fertility
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82
Q

A pregnant woman with a history of fibroids presents with severe abdominal pain and a low-grade fever. What is the diagnosis?

A

Red degeneration refers to ischaemia, infarction and necrosis of the fibroid due to disrupted blood supply. Red degeneration is more likely to occur in larger fibroids (above 5 cm) during the second and third trimester of pregnancy. Red degeneration may occur as the fibroid rapidly enlarges during pregnancy, outgrowing its blood supply and becoming ischaemic. It may also occur due to kinking in the blood vessels as the uterus changes shape and expands during pregnancy.

Red degeneration presents with severe abdominal pain, low-grade fever, tachycardia and often vomiting. Management is supportive, with rest, fluids and analgesia.

Rarely, pedunculated fibroids can undergo torsion.

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83
Q

What would you expect from examination of a patient with fibroids?

A

A solid mass or enlarged uterus may be palpable on abdominal or bimanual examination. The uterus is usually non-tender.

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84
Q

What are possible differential diagnoses for fibroids?

A

Endometrial polyp
Ovarian tumours
Leiomyosarcoma – malignancy of the myometrium.
Adenomyosis – presence of functional endometrial tissue within the myometrium.

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85
Q

What investigations would you undertake to diagnose fibroids?

A
  1. Transvaginal Pelvic ultrasound - the main reason for requesting a pelvic ultrasound is identification of a pelvic mass or menorrhagia that is not responsive to conventional treatment.

Gold - Pelvic MRI +/- hysteroscopy. MRI is usually reserved for operative planning or complicated cases to differentiate from other diagnoses

Can also do bloods for FBC - anaemia

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86
Q

What is the medical management of fibroids?

A

Depends on HPC which is usually HMB so you would do:

  1. Mirena coil (1st line) – fibroids must be less than 3cm with no distortion of the uterus
  2. Symptomatic management with NSAIDs and tranexamic acid
  3. Combined oral contraceptive
  4. Cyclical oral progestogens
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87
Q

What are more complex pharmacological management options for fibroids which need to be started by a specialist?

A
  • GnRH analogues (goserelin (Zoladex) or leuprorelin (Prostap)) suppress ovulation, inducing a temporary menopausal state. They are useful pre-operatively to reduce fibroid size and lower complications. Can be used for 6 months only, due to the risk of osteoporosis
  • Selective Progesterone Receptor Modulators (Ulipristal / Esmya) reduce size of fibroid and menorrhagia so they are useful pre-operatively or as an alternative to surgery. Use of Ulipristal is restricted due to risk of severe liver injury.
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88
Q

What is the surgical management for fibroids?

A
  • Hysteroscopy and Transcervical Resection of Fibroid (TCRF) is useful for submucosal fibroids
  • Myomectomy is an option in women wanting to preserve their uterus and can potentially improve fertility
  • Uterine Artery Embolization (UAE)
    Performed by a radiologist via the femoral artery - Commonly causes pain and fever post-operatively
  • Hysterectomy

Endometrial ablation can be used for small fibroids

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89
Q

What are the possible complications from fibroids?

A

Pregnancy-related complications:
- Infertility (distortion of uterine cavity)
- Miscarriage
- Malpresentation
- Placental abruption
- Intrauterine growth restriction
- Preterm or obstructed labour
- Red degeneration

Non-pregnancy-related complications:
- Prolapsed fibroid
- Constipation, urinary obstruction or UTIs
- Anaemia from HMB
- Endocrine effects (polycythaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperprolactinaemia)
- Torsion
- Malignant change

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90
Q

What is endometriosis? What is the epidemiology?

A

a chronic condition in which endometrial tissue is located at sites other than the uterine cavity. It can occur in the ovaries, pouch of Douglas, uterosacral ligaments, pelvic peritoneum, bladder, umbilicus and lungs.

Around 2 million women in the UK are affected, with most diagnoses made between the ages 25 and 40.

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91
Q

What is the pathophysiology of endometriosis?

A

This is not fully understood but there are some theories:

  1. Retrograde menstruation: endometrial cells travel backwards from the uterine cavity, through the Fallopian tubes, and deposit on pelvic organs – where they can seed and grow. It has also been suggested that these cells may also be able to travel to distant sites through the lymphatic system and vasculature.

Other theories:
- Embryonic cells destined to become endometrial tissue may remain in areas outside the uterus during the development of the fetus, and later develop into ectopic endometrial tissue.
- Spread through lymphatic system, in a similar way to the spread of cancer.
- Metaplasia, from typical cells of that organ into endometrial cells.

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92
Q

What are the risk factors for endometriosis?

A

Early menarche
Late menopause
Nulliparity
Delayed childbearing
Short menstrual cycle
Family history
White ethnicity

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93
Q

What are features of a history of endometriosis?

A

Main Sx is cyclical pelvic pain (but may be constant if adhesions have formed) Other Sx = dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, dysuria, dyschezia (difficult, painful defecating), bleeding from other sites e.g. haematuria and subfertility.

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94
Q

What would be expected from a bimanual examination on a patient with endometriosis?

A

A fixed, retroverted uterus
Uterosacral ligament nodules
General tenderness
Endometrial tissue visible in the vagina on speculum examination, particularly in the posterior fornix

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95
Q

What are the main DDx to exclude when you are concerned about endometriosis?

A
  • Pelvic Inflammatory Disease: This can present with dyspareunia, pelvic pain and abnormal and/or heavy bleeding.
  • Ectopic pregnancy: This can present with dyspareunia, pelvic pain and abnormal and/or heavy bleeding, and sometimes collapse.
  • Fibroids: This can present with pelvic pain, long duration of menstrual bleedings, heavy menstrual bleeding, a feeling of a mass or bloating.
  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome: abdominal pain, dyspareunia and bloating.
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96
Q

How do you investigate endometriosis?

A
  1. Ultrasound scans are often unremarkable in patients with endometriosis. Patients with suspected endometriosis need referral to a gynaecologist for laparoscopy.

Laparoscopic surgery is the gold standard way to diagnose abdominal and pelvic endometriosis. A definitive diagnosis can be established with a biopsy of the lesions during laparoscopy. Laparoscopy has the added benefit of allowing the surgeon to remove deposits of endometriosis and potentially improve symptoms.

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97
Q

What might you see on USS of endometriosis?

A

Chocolate cysts
Adhesions
Peritoneal deposits

A skilled operator can demonstrate “kissing ovaries” – where bilateral endometrioma are adherent together. Pelvic mobility can be demonstrated, including any involvement of bowel.

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98
Q

How is endometriosis staged?

A

American Society of Reproductive Medicine:
Stage 1: Small superficial lesions
Stage 2: Mild, but deeper lesions than stage 1
Stage 3: Deeper lesions, with lesions on the ovaries and mild adhesions
Stage 4: Deep and large lesions affecting the ovaries with extensive adhesions

NICE guidelines do not use this, just recommend detailed documentation

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99
Q

How is endometriosis managed?

A
  • manage pain using the analgesic ladder
  • Hormonal management -COCP which can be used back to back without a pill-free period if helpful, POP, Medroxyprogesterone acetate injection (e.g. Depo-Provera), Nexplanon implant, Mirena coil, GnRH agonists
  • Surgical - Laparoscopic surgery to excise or ablate the endometrial tissue and remove adhesions (adhesiolysis) or Hysterectomy. It will almost always relapse after surgery.
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100
Q

When do the symptoms of endometriosis tend to stop and why does this happen?

A

The cyclical pain tends to improve after the menopause when the female sex hormones are reduced. Therefore, treatment options are based on stopping ovulation.

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101
Q

How do GnRH agonists work in the management of endometriosis?

A

GnRH agonists induce a menopause-like state. e.g. goserelin (Zoladex) or leuprorelin (Prostap). They shut down the ovaries temporarily and can be useful in treating pain in many women. However, inducing the menopause has several side effects, such as hot flushes, night sweats and a risk of osteoporosis.

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102
Q

How do contraceptives improve cyclical pain in endometriosis?

A

Cyclical pain can be treated with hormonal medications that stop ovulation and reduce endometrial thickening. This can be achieved using the combined oral contraceptive pill, oral progesterone-only pill, the progestin depot injection, the progestin implant (Nexplanon) and the Mirena coil.

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103
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Adenomyosis is the presence of functional endometrial tissue within the myometrium of the uterus.

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104
Q

What is the incidence of adenomyosis? And what are the risk factors?

A

10% - It may occur alone, or alongside endometriosis or fibroids.

High parity
Uterine surgery e.g. any endometrial curettage, endometrial ablation
Previous caesarean section
Hereditary occurrence has been reported, suggesting a potential genetic predisposition

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105
Q

What is the pathophysiology and aetiology of adenomyosis?

A

Occurs when the endometrial stroma (connective/supporting tissue) is allowed to communicate with the underlying myometrium after uterine damage. Such interaction may occur in association with Pregnancy and childbirth & Uterine surgery (e.g dilation+ curettage).

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106
Q

Where is endometrial invasion normally seen in adenomyosis?

A

It can be focal or diffuse and is more commonly found in the posterior wall of the uterus. The extent of invasion is variable, but in severe cases pockets of menstrual blood can be seen in the myometrium of hysterectomy specimens.

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107
Q

What is an adenomyoma?

A

When a collection of endometrial glands form grossly visible nodules, they are described as an adenomyoma. Oestrogen, progesterone and androgen receptors are found in the ectopic endometrial tissue, making it responsive to hormones.

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108
Q

What are the features seen in a history of adenomyosis?

A
  • Painful periods (dysmenorrhoea)
  • Heavy periods (menorrhagia)
  • Irregular bleeding
  • Pain during intercourse (dyspareunia)
  • It may also present with infertility or pregnancy-related complications.
  • Around a third of patients are asymptomatic.

NB. The dysmenorrhoea is commonly progressive; beginning as cyclical pain, but can worsen to daily pain.

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109
Q

What would be seen in an examination of someone with adenomyosis?

A

On examination (abdominal and bimanual palpation), a symmetrically enlarged tender uterus may be palpable. It will feel more soft than a uterus containing fibroids. “Boggy uterus”

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110
Q

How do you investigate adenomyosis?

A
  1. Transvaginal ultrasound of the pelvis
  2. MRI and transabdominal ultrasound are alternative investigations where transvaginal ultrasound is not suitable.

The gold standard is to perform a histological examination of the uterus after a hysterectomy. However, this is not usually a suitable way of establishing the diagnosis. Potential for hysteroscopic biopsy.

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111
Q

What would you see on the ultrasound of someone with adenomyosis?

A
  • a globular uterine configuration
  • poor definition of the endometrial-myometrial interface
  • myometrial anterior-posterior asymmetry
  • intramyometrial cysts
  • heterogeneous myometrial echo texture
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112
Q

What would you expect to see on the MRI of someone with adenomysosis?

A

‘endo–myometrial junctional zone’ that can be distinguished from the endometrium and outer myometrium. An irregular thickening of this zone is now recognised as the hallmark of adenomyosis

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113
Q

What is the definitive cure for adenomyosis?

A

The only curative therapy is hysterectomy

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114
Q

What is the medical management of adenomyosis?

A

Same as for endometriosis

  • Tranexamic and Mefenamic acid
  • Hormonal = COCP, Progestogens (oral or Intrauterine system e.g. Mirena), GnRH agonists, aromatase inhibitors
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115
Q

What are other options for invasive management of adenomyosis except hysterectomy?

A

In the UK, uterine artery embolisation can be used as an alternative treatment option in the short and medium term for women who wish to avoid hysterectomy and or preserve their fertility. The aim is to block the blood supply to the adenomyosis, causing it to shrink.

Other treatment options include endometrial ablation and resection, laparoscopic excision and magnetic resonance–guided focused ultrasound.

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116
Q

What problems can adenomyosis cause in pregnancy?

A

Infertility
Miscarriage
Preterm birth
Small for gestational age
Preterm premature rupture of membranes
Malpresentation
Need for caesarean section
Postpartum haemorrhage

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117
Q

What are cervical polyps and how common are they?

A

benign growths protruding from the inner surface of the cervix. They are typically asymptomatic, but a very small minority can undergo malignant change.

2-5% of women

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118
Q

What is the histological pathophysiology of cervical polyps?

A

Cervical polyps develop as a result of focal hyperplasia of the columnar epithelium of the endocervix.

The aetiology is unclear, but suggested causes are:
Chronic inflammation
Abnormal response to oestrogen (cervical polyps are associated with endometrial hyperplasia)
Localised congestion of the cervical vasculature

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119
Q

What group has a higher incidence of cervical polyps?

A

They are more common in multigravidae, with a peak in incidence between 50 and 60 years of age.

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120
Q

What are the features of a history of cervical polyps?

A
  • often asymptomatic, identified only via routine cervical screening.
  • most common clinical feature is abnormal vaginal bleeding. This can be in the form of menorrhagia, or intermenstrual, post-coital, or post-menopausal bleeding.
  • can also cause increased vaginal discharge.
  • Rarely, they grow large enough to block the cervical canal, causing infertility.
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121
Q

What would you expect to see on examination of a patient with cervical polyps?

A

On speculum examination, cervical polyps are usually visible as polypoid growths projecting through the external os.

It can be confused with endometrial polyp – which could be projecting through cervical canal.

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122
Q

What investigations do you do if you suspect cervical polyps?

A
  • Triple swabs – endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken
  • Cervical smear – to rule out cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
  • Definitive = histology after removal of the polyp
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123
Q

What should you investigate if someone has cervical polyps?

A

Approximately 27% of women with cervical polyps have associated endometrial polyps. Especially the post-menopausal age group. If symptoms of bleeding persist after removal of the polyp, an ultrasound scan should be arranged to assess the endometrial cavity.

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124
Q

What is the management of cervical polyps?

A

Cervical polyps have a small (less than 0.5%) risk of malignant transformation – and so it is common practice to remove them whenever they are identified (even if asymptomatic).

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125
Q

How do you remove polyps?

A
  • GP - polypectomy forceps+ twist so it is avulsed as the pedicle becomes twisted. The polyp should not be pulled off as it will result in more bleeding. Any resulting bleeding can be cauterised with silver nitrite.
  • 2nd care - Larger polyps, or those that are more difficult to access can be removed by diathermy loop excision in the colposcopy clinic, or under general anaesthesia if the base of the polyp is broad.

Any excised polyps should be sent for histological examination to exclude malignancy. They have a recurrence rate of 6-12%.

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126
Q

What are the complications of polypectomy?

A

Infection, haemorrhage and uterine perforation (rare) - in outpatients setting only remove the ones you can actually see

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127
Q

What is a cervical ectropion?

A

there is eversion of the endocervix, exposing the columnar epithelium to the vaginal milieu. It is also known as a cervical erosion, although no “erosion” of cells actually occurs.

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128
Q

Who do you see cervical ectropions in physiologically?

A

commonly seen on examination of the cervix in adolescents, in pregnancy, and in women taking oestrogen containing contraceptives.

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129
Q

What is the histological make up of the endocervical canal?

A

the more proximal, and ‘inner’ part of the cervix. It is lined by a mucus-secreting simple columnar epithelium.

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130
Q

What is the histological make up of the ectocervix?

A

the part of cervix that projects into the vagina. It is normally lined by stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium.

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131
Q

What is the histological definition of a cervical ectropion?

A

the presence of everted endocervical columnar epithelium on the ectocervix

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132
Q

Why do some people with an ectropion have more discharge or post-coital bleeding?

A

The columnar epithelium contains mucus-secreting glands, and thus some individuals with cervical ectropion experience increased vaginal discharge.

It may also give rise to post-coital bleeding, as the fine blood vessels present within the epithelium are easily broken during intercourse.

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133
Q

What are the RF/causes for cervical ectropion?

A

Oestrogen:
COCP
Pregnancy
Adolescence
Menstruating age (it is uncommon in post-menopausal women)

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134
Q

What are the signs of ectropion in a history?

A

Asymptomatic, post-coital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, dyspareunia or excessive discharge (non-purulent).

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135
Q

What would you see on a speculum examination of someone with an ectropion?

A

On speculum examination, there will be a well-demarcated border between the redder, velvety everted columnar epithelium extending from the external os, and the pale pink squamous epithelium of the ectocervix. This border is the transformation zone.

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136
Q

What differentials would you consider in someone with an ectropion?

A

cervical cancer, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, cervicitis (inflammation of the cervix, typically caused by infection), and pregnancy

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137
Q

What is the transformation zone?

A

The border between the columnar epithelium of the endocervix (the canal), and the stratified squamous epithelium of the ectocervix (the outer area of the cervix visible on speculum examination). When the transformation zone is located on the ectocervix, it is visible during speculum examination as a border between the two epithelial types.

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138
Q

How do you diagnose a cervical ectropion?

A

Usually a clinical diagnosis based on examination. You can do the following to rule out other things:

  • Pregnancy test
  • Triple swabs – suggestion of infection (such as purulent discharge), endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken
  • Cervical smear – to rule out cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. If a frank lesion is observed, a biopsy should be taken (note that biopsies are not performed as routine).
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139
Q

How are cervical ectropians managed? Should someone with an ectropion have the COCP?

A

Asymptomatic ectropion require no treatment. Ectropion will typically resolve as the patient gets older, stops the pill or is no longer pregnant. Having a cervical ectropion is not a contraindication to the combined contraceptive pill.

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140
Q

How can you manage problematic bleeding caused by a cervical ectropion?

A

cauterisation of the ectropion using silver nitrate or cold coagulation during colposcopy. This will result in significant vaginal discharge until healing is completed.

Medication to acidify the vaginal pH has been suggested, such as boric acid pessaries.

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141
Q

What are ovarian cysts? Are they cause for concern?

A

A cyst is a fluid-filled sac. Functional ovarian cysts related to the fluctuating hormones of the menstrual cycle, and are very common in premenopausal women. The vast majority of ovarian cysts in premenopausal women are benign. Cysts in postmenopausal women are more concerning for malignancy and need further investigation.

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142
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

Nulliparity
Early menarche
Late menopause
Hormone replacement therapy containing oestrogen only
Smoking
Obesity
Asbestos
IVF
Positive FHx
BRCA1&2
Lynch II Syndrome

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143
Q

What are protective factors for ovarian cancer?

A

Multiparity
Combined contraceptive methods
Breastfeeding

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144
Q

Why are more ovulations considered a risk factor for ovarian cancer?

A

Ovarian cancers are believed to derive from surface epithelial irritation during ovulation. Therefore, the more ovulations that take place, the increased risk of developing malignancy

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145
Q

Which genetic factors can increase risk of ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA 1&2 and Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch II Syndrome)

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146
Q

What is BRCA 1&2?

A

these mutations increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancers. Ovarian cancer risk is as much as 46% at age 70 in BRCA1 positive families and 12% in BRCA2. Prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy can be performed in these patients however this does not completely eradicate the risk of developing malignancy.

BRCA 1 is chromosome 17, 2 is chromosome 13

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147
Q

What equation is used for Risk of Malignancy Index?

A

RMI = U x M x CA125

U is ultrasound features and M is menopausal status

RMI >250 should be referred to gynae specialist

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148
Q

How do ovarian cysts present?

A

Most asymptomatic
Pelvic pain
Bladder and bowel (freq+constipation)
Bloating
Fullness in the abdomen
PV bleeding
A palpable pelvic mass (particularly with very large cysts such as mucinous cystadenomas)
Ovarian cysts may present with acute pelvic pain if there is ovarian torsion, haemorrhage or rupture of the cyst

Look out for red flags like weight loss

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149
Q

Describe a follicular cyst

A

Follicular cysts represent the developing follicle. When these fail to rupture and release the egg, the cyst can persist. Follicular cysts are the most common ovarian cyst, they are harmless and tend to disappear after a few menstrual cycles. Typically they have thin walls and no internal structures, giving a reassuring appearance on the ultrasound.

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150
Q

Describe a corpus luteum cyst

A

Corpus luteum cysts occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and instead fills with fluid. They may cause pelvic discomfort, pain or delayed menstruation. They are often seen in early pregnancy.

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151
Q

What types of ovarian cysts are non-neoplastic?

A

Follicular and non-neoplastic cysts

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152
Q

What are the 3 types of pathological ovarian cysts?

A

Endometriomas, Polycystic Ovaries and Theca Lutein Cysts

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153
Q

What is an endometrioma on the ovary?

A

These are also called chocolate cysts and are present in those with endometriosis. There has been bleeding into the cyst resulting in the appearance.

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154
Q

What are polycystic ovaries?

A

An ultrasound diagnosis.

The ovaries contrain more than 12 antral follicles, or ovarian volume greater than 10ml. The classic ‘ring of pearls’ sign is seen on ultrasound scanning.

PCO is present as one of the features of polycystic ovarian syndrome (Rotterdam criteria criteria). Isolated PCO does not equate to PCOS.

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155
Q

What is a Theca Lutein Cyst?

A

These result as a consequence of markedly raised hCG e.g. molar pregnancy. They regress upon resolution of the raised hCG.

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156
Q

What are the 3 types of benign neoplastic ovarian cysts?

A

Epithelial, Benign Germ Cell tumours and sex cord stromal tumours

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157
Q

What are epithelial ovarian cysts?

A

Serous cystadenoma – reflects the most common type of malignant ? ovarian tumour and is usually unilocular with up to 30% being bilateral.

Mucinous cystadenoma – these are often multiloculated and usually unilateral.

Brenner tumour – unilateral with a solid grey or yellow appearance.

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158
Q

What are benign germ cell tumours?

A

Mature cystic teratoma (Dermoid cysts) – 10% are bilateral, usually occur in young women and occur frequently in pregnancy. As germ cell in origin they can contain teeth, hair, skin and bone.

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159
Q

What are sex cord stromal cell tumours on the ovary?

A

These are rare tumours, that can be benign or malignant. They arise from the stroma (connective tissue) or sex cords (embryonic structures associated with the follicles). There are several types, including Sertoli–Leydig cell tumours and granulosa cell tumours.

Fibroma is the most common stromal tumour. Important to know about as up to 40% present with Meig’s syndrome which is the association between these tumours and ascites/pleural effusion.

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160
Q

What investigation is used for diagnosing ovarian cysts?

A

Ultrasound - TV or Abdo

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161
Q

What is the general management approach you should take with ovarian cysts?

A

Premenopausal
<5cm watch and wait
5-7 cm gynae referral and yearly scan
>7cm surgery

Postmenopausal
CA125 tumour marker and gynae referral

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162
Q

If a premenopausal woman has had an ultrasound which shows a simple ovarian cyst which measures less than 5cm, how would you proceed?

A

No further investigations

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163
Q

If a woman under 40 years old has a complex ovarian mass, how would you proceed?

A

Need to investigate incase there is a germ cell tumour:

Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Alpha-fetoprotein (α-FP)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

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164
Q

What is CA125?

A

glycoprotein and tumour marker for epithelial cell ovarian cancer. Not very specific and can be raised by various things. Non-malignant causes include endometriosis, fibroids, adenomyosis, pelvic infection, liver disease and pregnancy.

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165
Q

If a postmenopausal woman has a cyst with a low RMI (less than 25) what would you do?

A

Low RMI (less than 25): follow up for 1 year with ultrasound and CA125 if less than 5cm.
Simple cysts under 5cm with a normal CA125 may be monitored with an ultrasound every 4 – 6 months.

166
Q

If a postmenopausal woman has a cyst with a moderate RMI (25-250) what would you do?

A

Moderate RMI (25-250): bilateral oophorectomy and if malignancy found then staging is required (with completion surgery of hysterectomy, omentectomy +/- lymphadenectomy).

167
Q

If a postmenopausal woman has a cyst with a high RMI (over 250) what would you do?

A

High RMI (over 250): referral for staging laparotomy

168
Q

What is Meig’s Syndrome?

A

Meig’s syndrome involves a triad of:

Ovarian fibroma (a type of benign ovarian tumour)
Pleural effusion
Ascites

Meig’s syndrome typically occurs in older women. Removal of the tumour results in complete resolution of the effusion and ascites.

169
Q

What is a characteristic feature of Serous cystadenocarcinoma (ovarian cancer)?

A

characterised by Psammoma bodies

170
Q

What is the characteristic feature of Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma (ovarian cancer)?

A

characterised by mucin vacuoles

171
Q

What is the general management of ovarian cancer?

A
  • Surgery – staging laparotomy for those with a high RMI with attempt to debulk the tumour.
  • Adjuvant chemotherapy – recommended for all patients apart from those with early, low grade disease and uses platinum based compounds.
  • Follow up – involves clinical examination and monitoring of CA125 level for 5 years with intervals between visits becoming further apart according to risk of recurrence.
172
Q

What is the most common subgroup of ovarian cancer?

A

Epithelial (serous is the most common within this and then endometrioid)

173
Q

What is the most common type of non-epithelial ovarian cancer?

A

Germ cell tumours: most common non-epithelial ovarian cancer, and is a common cause of ovarian cancer in patients younger than 35

174
Q

How does ovarian cancer present?

A

Abdominal distension
Early satiety (feeling full earlier than normal)
Anorexia
Change in bowel habit
Abnormal or postmenopausal bleeding
Pelvic or abdominal pain
Urinary urgency
Urinary frequency
Weight loss
Ascites
Pelvic mass

NB. because ovarian cancer can be diagnosed very late, some patients may present with complications e.g. bowel obstruction, DVT, paraneoplastic syndrome, torsion or lung mets

175
Q

Which findings on examination do the NICE guidelines say necessitate an urgent referral to gynae cancer services?

A

Ascites and/or
A pelvic or abdominal mass (which is not obviously uterine fibroids)

176
Q

What is PCOS?

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder, characterised by menstrual disruption and excess androgen production and the presence of multiple immature follicles (“cysts”) within the ovaries.

177
Q

What is the pathophysiology of PCOS?

A

Excess luteinising hormone (LH) – produced by the anterior pituitary gland in response to an increased GnRH pulse frequency, this stimulates ovarian production of androgens.

Insulin resistance – resulting in high levels of insulin secretion.
This suppresses hepatic production of sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG), resulting in higher levels of free circulating androgens.

Despite the high levels of LH, the increased circulating androgens suppress the LH surge (which is required for ovulation to occur). Follicles develop within the ovary, but are arrested at an early stage (due to the disturbed ovarian function) – and they remain visible as “cysts” within the ovary.

178
Q

What are RF for PCOS?

A

diabetes, irregular menstruation and/or a family history of PCOS

179
Q

How does PCOS present?

A

Oligo/amenorrhoea
Infertility/sub-fertility
Acne
Hirsutism
Obesity
Sleep apnea
Anxiety/depression
Hirsutism
Obesity
Male pattern baldness
Acanthosis nigricans

180
Q

What is the criteria for PCOS diagnosis?

A

A diagnosis requires at least two of the three key features:

  1. Oligoovulation or anovulation, presenting with irregular or absent menstrual periods
  2. Hyperandrogenism, characterised by hirsutism and acne
  3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (or ovarian volume of more than 10cm3)
181
Q

What are some complications of PCOS?

A

Insulin resistance and diabetes
Acanthosis nigricans
Cardiovascular disease
Hypercholesterolaemia
Endometrial hyperplasia and cancer
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Depression and anxiety
Sexual problems

182
Q

What are some DDx for PCOS?

A
  • Hypothyroidism – obesity, hair loss and insulin resistance.
  • Hyperprolactinaemia – oligomenorhoea/amenorrhoea, acne and hirsutism.
  • Cushing’s disease – obesity, acne, hypertension, insulin resistance and depression.
  • Medications, such as phenytoin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, testosterone and anabolic steroids, congential adrenal hyperplasia and Ovarian or adrenal tumours that secrete androgens also cause Hirsutism
183
Q

Why does insulin resistance cause hyperandrogenism?

A
  1. When someone is resistant to insulin, their pancreas has to produce more insulin to get a response from the cells of the body.
  2. Insulin promotes the release of androgens from the ovaries and adrenal glands. Therefore, higher levels of insulin result in higher levels of androgens (such as testosterone).
  3. Insulin also suppresses sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production by the liver. SHBG normally binds to androgens and suppresses their function. Reduced SHBG further promotes hyperandrogenism in women with PCOS.

The high insulin levels contribute to halting the development of the follicles in the ovaries, leading to anovulation and multiple partially developed follicles (seen as polycystic ovaries on the scan).

184
Q

What bloods would you order to investigate PCOS?

A

Testosterone
Sex hormone-binding globulin
Luteinizing hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Prolactin (may be mildly elevated in PCOS)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
17-hydroxyprogesterone

Also consider oral glucose tolerance test, especially in women with a BMI higher than 30

185
Q

What blood test results would you expect from a patient with PCOS?

A

Raised luteinising hormone
Raised LH to FSH ratio (high LH compared with FSH, ratio of 3:1 will disrupt)
Raised testosterone
Raised insulin
Normal or raised oestrogen levels

186
Q

What would you see on an ultrasound of a patient with PCOS?

A

Typical ultrasound findings are numerous peripheral ovarian follicles (“cysts”), and/or ­ovarian volume >10cm3. Often described as a “String of Pearls”.
Diagnostic criteria are either:
- 12 or more developing follicles in one ovary
- Ovarian volume of more than 10cm3

Not reliable in adolescents

187
Q

What condition are women with PCOS at high risk of?

A

Endometrial hyperplasia which can become malignant. This is because in anovulatory menstrual cycles, the effect of oestrogen is unopposed due to lower levels of progesterone.

188
Q

How is the endometrium protected in women with PCOS?

A

by inducing at least 3 bleeds per year. This can be done by using:
- Combined oral contraceptive pill (low dose).
- Dydrogesterone – a progesterone analogue. This is often used if the combined pill is contraindicated.
- Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system can also be used in the long term prevention

189
Q

Why is weight management an important aspect of PCOS treatment?

A

achieving a BMI of under 30 may be enough to trigger a regular menstrual cycle so encourage healthy diet and exercise. This will increase insulin sensitivity. In severe cases, orlistat (pancreatic lipase inhibitor) can be prescribed.

190
Q

If an adult has oligo/amenorrhoea for 3 months or longer then what management is recommended by NICE?

A

NICE advises a cyclical progestogen to induce a withdrawal bleed and referral for a TV USS (any abnormalities will require further investigation).

191
Q

What can be done to help women with PCOS trying to concieve?

A
  1. Clomiphene - Induces ovulation and improves conception rates.
  2. Metformin - Can be used with/out clomiphene to increase the chances of a pregnancy.
  3. Ovarian drilling - is a 2nd line laparoscopic surgical procedure where diathermy or laser is used to damage the hormone producing cells of the ovary.
  4. Gonadotrophins - Can induce ovulation if clomiphene and metformin have failed.

Letrozole can also be used - this is an aromatase inhibitor (AI). AIs work by inhibiting aromatase, an enzyme involved in the conversion of androgens to oestrogens.

192
Q

How does Clomiphene work?

A

a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) commonly used in the treatment of oligo/anovulatory infertility.

193
Q

How can hirtuism in PCOS be managed?

A
  • cosmetically
  • acne treatment
  • weight loss
  • anti-androgens
194
Q

What are some examples of anti-androgenic drugs?

A

anti-androgen medication such as cyproterone, spironolactone or finasteride can be used to reduce hirtuism but can’t use in pregnancy

Eflornithine is a topical cream

195
Q

If someone with PCOS is planning to get or is pregnant, which condition needs to be screened for?

A

Those planning a pregnancy should have an oral glucose tolerance test, if they are already pregnant it should be conducted prior to 20 weeks. Additional testing should be carried out at 24-28 weeks.

196
Q

What is CIN?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia = dyskaryosis – mutations in the squamous cells in the transformation zone of the cervix. Mutations are much more likely to happen here at the squamocolumnar junction as the cells are already ‘transforming’ from squamous to columnar known as metaplasia.

197
Q

What are the risk factors for CIN?

A

HPV 16 and 18
Missed screening
Early first sexual experience
Multiple partners
Partner who has had multiple factors
Smoking
Immunosuppression with HIV
High parity (over 5)
Family history
COCP

In daughters of women treated with diethylstilbestrol (DES), there is an increased risk of clear cell adenocarcinoma of the cervix. DES was a synthetic oestrogen used to prevent premature labour and miscarriage and was later found to be associated with cervical cancer.

198
Q

What strains of HPV are protected against by the Gardasil vaccine?

A

HPV strains 6,11 (to prevent genital warts) and 16 and 18 (to prevent cervical neoplasia and cervical, vulval, vaginal and anal cancer)

199
Q

What is the timing of cervical screening?

A

25-49 - 3 years
50 -64 - 5 years
>60 - if recent smear abnormal or not had one since 50

200
Q

What tests are done in cervical smear?

A

HPV screening – testing for HPV first is more sensitive and accurate.
LBC (liquid based cytology) looks for dyskaryosis.

201
Q

How do you proceed which each of the following smear results?

  1. HPV negative
  2. HPV + with normal smear
  3. HPV + with abnormal smear
  4. Inadequate smear
A
  1. consider smear to also be negative and just continue with routine screening
  2. repeat smear in 12 months
  3. refer for colposcopy
  4. repeat smear in 3 months, if it remains inadequate then refer for colposcopy
202
Q

What findings constitute an abnormal smear?

A

Dyskaryosis
Borderline changes
Any invasive carcinoma or glandular neoplasia

203
Q

What findings constitute an inadequate smear?

A

Contains an obscuring element like blood, lubricant or inflammation
Taken Inappropriately
Incorrectly labelled
Cervix not fully visualised

204
Q

What is done in colposcopy?

A
  • visualise cervix
  • stain with acetic acid (abnormal turns white = acetowhitening, happens bcos it coagulates abnormal proteins)
  • iodine staining - Normal squamous tissue contains glycogen whereas columnar cells do not. As Iodine is glycophillic, application will cause uptake of the stain in the normal tissue (where there is no glycogen) but the CIN or cancer will remain unstained (a saffron-yellow)
  • biopsy for histology
205
Q

How is CIN managed?

A

Only high-grade dysplasia – CIN II or III should be treated. Can treat in colposcopy – ‘see and treat’ or at an additional time. The most common form of treatment is large loop excision of the transformation zone – a LLETZ biopsy. Can increase risk of miscarriage and pre-term birth.

206
Q

What are alternative management options for CIN other than LLETZ?

A

cryotherapy, laser or cold coagulation to destroy or excise the abnormal area. If the abnormal area extends into the cervical canal a Cone Biopsy is indicated.

207
Q

When should you advise a pregnant woman who is due for cervical cancer screening to have her smear?

A

12 weeks post partum

208
Q

What age groups does incidence of cervical cancer peak in?

A

half of all cases are diagnosed before the age of 47, with a peak age of diagnosis in those aged 25-29. There is a second peak in women in their 80s.

209
Q

What is the main histological type of cervical cancer?

A

majority (70%) of cervical cancers are squamous cell carcinomas. Of the remainder, 15% are adenocarcinoma and 15% are mixed in type.

210
Q

Where does cervical cancer metastasise to?

A

The most common sites of metastasis are the lung, liver, bone and bowel.

211
Q

How does cervical cancer present?

A

Asymptomatic
Intermenstrual bleeding
Post-coital bleeding
Post-menopausal bleeding
Malodorous discharge
Blood-stained discharge
Pelvic pain
Dyspareunia

In late stages: oedema, loin pain, rectal bleeding, radiculopathy and haematuria

212
Q

What does examination of someone with cervical cancer reveal?

A

Speculum examination – assess for evidence of bleeding, discharge and ulceration.
Bimanual examination – assess for pelvic masses.
GI examination – assess for hydronephrosis, hepatomegaly, rectal bleeding, mass on PR.

213
Q

If a pre-menopausal woman presents with symptoms of cervical cancer, what investigations would you undertake?

A

test for chlamydia trachomatis infection
+ = treat for chlamydia infection. If symptoms persist after treatment, refer for colposcopy and biopsy.
- = a colposcopy and biopsy is usually performed.

214
Q

If a post-menopausal woman presents with symptoms of cervical cancer, what investigations would you undertake?

A

Urgent colposcopy and biopsy

215
Q

If cervical cancer is diagnosed from colposcopy and biopsy, what investigations would you do next?

A
  • Basic bloods
  • CT chest, abdo, pelvis
  • Further staging Ix - MRI pelvis, PET
  • +/- examination under anaesthesia with further biopsies
216
Q

What staging system is used for the classification of cervical cancer?

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system

217
Q

Define each of the stages of the FIGO classification of cervical cancer

A

Stage 0 – Carcinoma in-situ

Stage 1 – Confined to cervix
A) Identified only microscopically.
B) Gross lesions, clinically identifiable.

Stage 2 – Beyond cervix but not pelvic sidewall/ involves vagina but not lower 1/3
A) No parametrial involvement.
B) Obvious parametrial involvement.

Stage 3 – Extends to pelvic sidewall/ involves lower 1/3 vagina/ hydropnephrosis not explained by another cause.
A) No extension to sidewall.
B) Extension to sidewall and/or hydronephrosis.

Stage 4 – Extends to bladder or rectum, or metastases
A) Involves bladder/rectum.
B) Involves distant organs

218
Q

What features would prompt a 2 week wait referral for cervical cancer?

A
  • Unexplained cervical symptoms (including discharge)
  • Postmenopausal bleeding if not on HRT or persistent/unexplained bleeding 6 weeks after stopping HRT
  • Persistent premenopausal bleeding (intermenstrual or post-coital) or blood-stained vaginal discharge and:
    Polyp, ectropion, cervicitis, or warts and any infection treated
  • Persistent intermenstrual bleeding
  • Patients with suggestive features who have not attended screening, have bleeding > 3 months, change in symptoms/bleeding pattern or failure of contraception to regulate bleeding.
219
Q

What is the difference between dysplasia and dyskaryosis?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a grading system for the level of dysplasia (premalignant change) in the cells of the cervix. CIN is diagnosed at colposcopy.

Cervical smear assesses dyskaryosis

220
Q

Which patients are exceptions to the normal cervical smear screening programme?

A

Women with HIV are screened annually
Women over 65 may request a smear if they have not had one since aged 50
Women with previous CIN may require additional tests (e.g. test of cure after treatment)
Certain groups of immunocompromised women may have additional screening (e.g. women on dialysis, cytotoxic drugs or undergoing an organ transplant)
Pregnant women due a routine smear should wait until 12 weeks post-partum

221
Q

How is stage 1A cervical cancer treated?

A

LLETZ, Cone biopsy, radical trachelectemy or hysterectomy.

222
Q

How is stage 1B/2A cervical cancer treated?

A

Radical (Wertheim’s) hysterectomy as a curative treatment modality. Involves removal of the uterus, vagina and parametrial tissues up to the pelvic sidewall, plus lymphadenectomy. Chemo and radiotherapy may also be given.

223
Q

How is stage 2B/4A cervical cancer treated?

A

chemoradiation

224
Q

How is 4B cervical cancer treated?

A

Metastatic disease is treated with a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy and palliative care. Anterior/posterior/total pelvic extenteration may be used. This is the removal of all pelvic adnexae plus bladder (anterior)/rectum (posterior or both (total).

225
Q

What chemotherapy is the mainstay of cervical cancer treatment?

A

Cisplatin based

226
Q

What follow up should be offered after cervical cancer treatment?

A

Gynae- every 4 months after treatment has been completed for the first 2 years, and every 6-12 months for the subsequent 3 years.

All follow-ups should involve a physical examination of the vagina and cervix (if they haven’t been removed).

Note – Cervical smear testing is no longer valid after radiotherapy.

227
Q

What is the most common type of endometrial cancer?

A

Most are adenocarcinomas which are caused by stimulation of the endometrium by unopposed oestrogen, without the protective effects of progesterone. Progesterone is made by the corpus luteum after ovulation so in scenarios where there is anovulation, risk increases.

228
Q

What are the RF for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Early menarche and/or late menopause– at the extremes of menstrual age, menstrual cycles are more likely to be anovulatory.
  • Low parity – just under 1/3 of women developing endometrial cancer are nulliparous. With each pregnancy, the risk of endometrial cancer decreases.
  • Polycystic ovarian syndrome – with oligomenorrhoea, cycles are more likely to be anovulatory.
  • HRT with oestrogen alone.
  • Tamoxifen use
  • Age 65-75
  • Obesity - (40%) more fat = faster rate of peripheral aromatisation of androgens to oestrogen
  • Genetic - hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)
  • T2DM
229
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia, the types and management?

A

Precancerous condition involving thickening of the endometrium, less than 5% become endometrial cancer. 2 types = Hyperplasia without atypia
and Atypical hyperplasia. Managed with progestogens such as Mirena coil ror continuous oral progestogens (e.g. medroxyprogesterone or levonorgestrel).

230
Q

What are protective factors for endometrial cancer?

A

Combined contraceptive pill
Mirena coil
Increased pregnancies
Cigarette smoking

231
Q

How does endometrial cancer present?

A
  • PMB (abnormal vaginal bleeding ≥12 months after the last menstrual period) in someone not on HRT
  • AUB (Intermenstrual bleeding, heavy menstrual bleeding, etc)
  • Abnormal vaginal discharge (clear/white)
  • Haematuria
  • Anaemia
  • Raised platelet count
  • Constitutional symptoms
232
Q

What would physical examination in a patient with endometrial cancer show?

A
  • Abdominal examination – for abdominal or pelvic masses.
  • Speculum examination – for evidence of vulval/vaginal atrophy, or cervical lesions.
  • Bimanual examination – to assess the size and axis of the uterus prior to endometrial sampling. Fixed+hard = advanced disease
233
Q

When would you do 2WW referral for endometrial cancer?

A
  • age > 55 years and PMB
  • Consider referral: age < 55 years and PMB
  • NICE recommends TVUSS in women over 55:
    *Unexplained vaginal discharge
    *Visible haematuria plus (raised platelets, anaemia or elevated glucose levels)
234
Q

What Ix would you order to diagnose or exclude endometrial cancer?

A
  • Transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness (normal is less than 4mm post-menopause)
  • Pipelle biopsy, which is highly sensitive for endometrial cancer making it useful for excluding cancer
  • Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy
  • May need bloods, CT and MRI if cancer
235
Q

How is endometrial cancer classified?

A

FIGO staging
Stage 1: Confined to the uterus
Stage 2: Invades the cervix
Stage 3: Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina or lymph nodes
Stage 4: Invades bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

236
Q

How is hyperplasia with atypia managed?

A

total abdominal hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. If this surgery is contra-indicated, regular surveillance biopsies should be performed.

237
Q

How is stage 1 endometrial cancer managed?

A

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Peritoneal washings should also be taken. Traditionally, this has been performed as an open procedure, but laparoscopic surgery is increasingly performed.

238
Q

How is stage 2 endometrial cancer managed?

A

Radical hysterectomy (whereby vaginal tissue surrounding the cervix is also removed, alongside the supporting ligaments of the uterus), and assessment and removal of pelvic lymph nodes (lymphadenectomy). May need adjuvant radiotherapy.

239
Q

How is stage 3 endometrial cancer managed?

A

Maximal de-bulking surgery (if possible)
Additional chemotherapy is usually given prior to radiotherapy.

240
Q

How is stage 4 endometrial cancer managed?

A

Maximal de-bulking surgery (if possible)
In many stage IV patients, a palliative approach is preferred, e.g. with low dose radiotherapy, or high dose oral progestogens.

241
Q

What is the main type of vulval cancer, other types and and what is the epidemiology of vulval Ca?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Relatively rare
Other types = primary vulval melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, Bartholin’s gland carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and rarely, sarcoma

242
Q

What are the risk factors for vulval cancer?

A

Advanced age (particularly over 75 years)
Immunosuppression
HPV infection
Lichen sclerosus (5% get cancer)

243
Q

What is VIN? What conditions are associated with particular types of VIN?

A

Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a premalignant condition affecting the squamous epithelium of the skin that can precede vulval cancer.

High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is a type of VIN associated with HPV infection that typically occurs in younger women aged 35 – 50 years.

Differentiated VIN is an alternative type of VIN associated with lichen sclerosus and typically occurs in older women (aged 50 – 60 years).

244
Q

How is VIN managed?

A

Biopsy to diagnose

Mx - Watch and wait with close followup
Wide local excision (surgery) to remove the lesion
Imiquimod cream
Laser ablation

245
Q

How does vulval cancer present?

A

Vulval lump
Ulceration
Bleeding
Pain
Itching
Lymphadenopathy in the groin
Irregular mass
Fungating lesion
Ulceration
Bleeding

246
Q

What is the most common site for vulval cancer?

A

Usually a unifocal lesion on labia majora, other sites include the clitoris and perineum

247
Q

How is vulval cancer diagnosed?

A
  • 2WW referral
  • Diagnosis is made by biopsy. This can be performed under local anaesthetic through a Keye’s punch biopsy.
  • Sentinel node biopsy to demonstrate lymph node spread
  • Further imaging for staging (e.g. CT abdomen and pelvis)
248
Q

How is vulval cancer staged?

A

FIGO staging
Stage I – Carcinoma confined to the vulva
Stage II – Carcinoma extending to the lower third of the vagina, urethra or anus
Stage III – Carcinoma extending to the upper two thirds of vagina or urethra, OR invasion in to bladder or rectal mucosa OR lymph nodes (non-ulcerated)
Stage IV – ulcerated lymph nodes, disease fixed to the pelvic bone OR distant metastases

249
Q

How is vulval cancer managed?

A

In simple cases of primary vulval cancer this can be treated with radical/wide local excision.

If there is multi-focal disease then a radical vulvectomy is preferred. Reconstructive surgery can be done to retain the structure of the vulva

Lymphadenectomy is an important part of treatment in preventing recurrence. In cases of advanced vulval cancer, radiotherapy is now being used, with or without chemotherapy in addition.

250
Q

What is lichen sclerosus?

A

Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with patches of shiny, “porcelain-white” skin. It commonly affects the labia, perineum and perianal skin in women. It can affect other areas, such as the axilla and thighs. It can also affect men, typically on the foreskin and glans of the penis.

251
Q

What is lichen simplex?

A

It is chronic inflammation and irritation caused by repeated scratching and rubbing of an area of skin. This presents with excoriations, plaques, scaling and thickened skin

252
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

Lichen planus is an autoimmune condition that causes localised chronic inflammation with shiny, purplish, flat-topped raised areas with white lines across the surface called Wickham’s striae

253
Q

What causes lichen sclerosus?

A

Largely unknown but may be:
- Genetics – family history of lichen sclerosus can increase risk.
- Other autoimmune disorders – such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes, alopecia areata.
- Two peaks of onset in prepubertal girls and peri- or post-menopausal women

254
Q

How does lichen sclerosus present?

A
  • Itching
  • Soreness and pain possibly worse at night
  • Skin tightness
  • Painful sex (superficial dyspareunia)
  • Erosions
  • Fissures
  • Skin affected is “Porcelain-white”, shiny, tight, thin and slightly raised
  • Papules or plaques
  • Scarring - Clitoral hood fusion, fusion of the labia minora to the labia majora and posterior fusion resulting in loss of vaginal opening
255
Q

What is the Koebner Phenomenon?

A

The Koebner phenomenon refers to when the signs and symptoms are made worse by friction to the skin. This occurs with lichen sclerosus. It can be made worse by tight underwear that rubs the skin, urinary incontinence and scratching.

256
Q

How is lichen sclerosus diagnosed?

A

Normally a clinical diagnosis is made but a biopsy can be performed when there is failure of treatment or malignancy needs to be ruled out

257
Q

How is lichen sclerosus managed?

A

Cannot be cured but can be effectively managed under gynae or derm

1st - potent topical steroids, such as clobetasol propionate 0.05% (dermovate) plus emoilents

Other options:
- Intralesional corticosteroids: injection of some preparations of corticosteroids may be used for thickened areas that fail to respond to topical therapy.
- Topical calcineurin inhibitors: this is an immunosuppressive agent that is second-line treatment.
- Oral/topical retinoids
- UVA1 phototherapy
- Oestrogen pessaries or creams may be used to reduce symptoms of atrophic vulvovaginitis in post-menopausal women that may be contributing to symptoms.

258
Q

What steroid regime should be followed for lichen sclerosus?

A

Steroids are initially used once a day for four weeks, then gradually reduced in frequency every four weeks to alternate days, then twice weekly. When the condition flares patients can go back to using topical steroids daily until they achieve good control. A 30g tube should last at least three months.

259
Q

What is a Bartholin’s Gland Cyst?

A

The cystic dilatation of one of the greater vestibular glands due to obstruction. A build-up of mucus secretions can cause the duct of the gland to become blocked, from which a cyst can develop. The cyst itself can become infected, and if untreated, develop into an abscess. Abcess is commonly caused by E.Coli, Staph Aureus or STIs.

260
Q

What are the RF for bartholin’s cyst?

A

Personal history of Bartholin’s cyst
Sexually active (STIs can cause a Bartholin’s cyst or abscess)
History of vulval surgery
Nulliparous
Child bearing age

261
Q

How does a Bartholin’s cyst present?

A
  • Usually on the posterior aspect of the labia majora
  • Unilateral, painless swelling: ~1-3cm in size
  • Discomfort (if large): may be experienced on sitting, walking or during sexual intercourse
  • Disfiguring: large cysts may significantly alter the appearance of the vulva
  • Vaginal examination: soft, non-tender, fluctuant mass. A normal Bartholin gland should not be palpable
262
Q

How does bartholin’s abscess present?

A

Unilateral, painful swelling
Difficulty sitting, walking or having sex
Surrounding erythema
Fever (uncommon)
Purulent exudate (if spontaneous drainage)
Vaginal examination: tense, hard, painful, surrounding cellulitis

263
Q

How is Bartholin’s Cyst diagnosed?

A

Usually a clinical diagnosis
If age > 40 then consider biopsy to exclude vulval carcinoma
If suspicion of STI then take endocervical and high vaginal swabs

264
Q

How are Bartholin’s Cysts managed?

A
  • warm compress or salt bath
  • Incision and Drainage plus either Word catheter or marsupialisation
  • Antibiotics are generally reserved for patients with recurrent abscess, systemic features, complicated infection (e.g. immunosuppressed, extensive cellulitis), or resistant organisms. If an STI is detected, antibiotics should be directed towards this isolated organism.
265
Q

What is a Nabothian Cyst?

A

fluid-filled cysts often seen on the surface of the cervix. They are also called nabothian follicles or mucinous retention cysts. They are usually up to 1cm in size, but rarely can be more extensive. They are harmless and unrelated to cervical cancer.

266
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Nabothian Cysts?

A

columnar epithelium of the endocervix (the canal) produces cervical mucus. When the squamous epithelium of the ectocervix slightly covers the mucus-secreting columnar epithelium, the mucus becomes trapped and forms a cyst. This can happen after childbirth, minor trauma to the cervix or cervicitis secondary to infection.

267
Q

How do Nabothian Cysts present?

A

Normally asymptomatic and seen on speculum
Rarely can cause a feeling of fullness in the pelvis if they are very large
They appear as smooth rounded bumps on the cervix, usually near to os
White/yellow appearance

268
Q

How are Nabothian Cysts managed?

A

If the diagnosis is certain then reassure and discharge, they are harmless.

If uncertain, refer for colposcopy to examine in detail. Occasionally they may be excised or biopsied to exclude other pathology. Rarely they may be treated during colposcopy to relieve symptoms.

269
Q

What is Ovarian Torsion?

A

twisting of the ovary and/or fallopian tube on its vascular and ligamentous supports, blocking adequate blood flow to the ovary, this is a surgical emergency as if left it leads to ischaemia. If the torsion persists, necrosis will occur, and the function of that ovary will be lost

270
Q

What is the aetiology of ovarian torsion?

A

It is usually due to an ovarian mass larger than 5cm, such as a cyst or a tumour. It is more likely to occur with benign tumours.

It is also more likely to occur during pregnancy.

Ovarian torsion can also happen with normal ovaries in younger girls before menarche (the first period), when girls have longer infundibulopelvic ligaments that can twist more easily.

271
Q

How does ovarian torsion present?

A

sudden onset severe unilateral pelvic pain. The pain is constant, gets progressively worse and is associated with nausea and vomiting.

On exam = localised tenderness and sometimes there is a palpable adnexal mass.

272
Q

How is ovarian torsion diagnosed?

A

1st - TVUSS which shows “whirlpool sign”, free fluid in pelvis and oedema of the ovary. Doppler studies may show a lack of blood flow.

Gold - Laparoscopic surgery

273
Q

How is ovarian torsion managed?

A

Emergency laparoscopic surgery to either un-twist the ovary and fix it in place (detorsion) or remove the affected ovary (oophorectomy), this depends on how it looks once the surgery has started.

Sometimes it may need to become laparotomy if malignancy or large mass

274
Q

What are the complications of ovarian torsion?

A

Delay in treatment leads to loss of function of that ovary. If there is another functioning ovary then fertility is not affected but if the only functioning ovary gets twisted then it leads to infertility and menopause.

Where a necrotic ovary is not removed, it may become infected, develop an abscess and lead to sepsis. Additionally it may rupture, resulting in peritonitis and adhesions.

275
Q

What is a vault prolapse?

A

occurs in women that have had a hysterectomy, and no longer have a uterus. The top of the vagina (the vault) descends into the vagina

276
Q

What is a rectocele? How does it present?

A

caused by a defect in the posterior vaginal wall, allowing the rectum to prolapse forwards into the vagina. Associated with constipation. Women can develop faecal loading in the part of the rectum that has prolapsed into the vagina. Loading of faeces results in significant constipation, urinary retention (due to compression on the urethra) and a palpable lump in the vagina.

277
Q

What is a cystocele?

A

caused by a defect in the anterior vaginal wall, allowing the bladder to prolapse backwards into the vagina. Prolapse of the urethra is also possible (urethrocele). Prolapse of both the bladder and the urethra is called a cystourethrocele.

278
Q

What are the risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Multiple vaginal deliveries
Instrumental, prolonged or traumatic delivery
Advanced age and postmenopause status
Obesity
Chronic respiratory disease causing coughing
Chronic constipation causing straining
Previous surgery for prolpase

279
Q

How does pelvic organ prolapse present?

A

A feeling of “something coming down” in the vagina
Vaginal bulge/protrusion
A dragging or heavy sensation in the pelvis
Urinary symptoms, such as incontinence, urgency, frequency, weak stream and retention
Bowel symptoms, such as constipation, incontinence and urgency
Sexual dysfunction, such as pain, altered sensation and reduced enjoyment

280
Q

How is severity of uterine prolapase graded? What is uterine procidentia?

A

pelvic organ prolapse quantification (POP-Q) system:

Grade 0: Normal
Grade 1: The lowest part is more than 1cm above the introitus
Grade 2: The lowest part is within 1cm of the introitus (above or below)
Grade 3: The lowest part is more than 1cm below the introitus, but not fully descended
Grade 4: Full descent with eversion of the vagina

A prolapse extending beyond the introitus can be referred to as uterine procidentia.

281
Q

How is uterine prolapse investigated?

A

Post-void residual urine (PVR) volume (catheter or ultrasound)
Urodynamics
Urinalysis as higher risk of UTI

282
Q

What is conservative management and which patients should be offered it?

A

women that are able to cope with mild symptoms, do not tolerate pessaries or are not suitable for surgery can be offered this

Physiotherapy (pelvic floor exercises)
Weight loss
Lifestyle changes for associated stress incontinence, such as reduced caffeine intake and incontinence pads
Treatment of related symptoms, such as treating stress incontinence with anticholinergic mediations
Vaginal oestrogen cream

283
Q

How are vaginal pessaries used to manage uterine prolapse? What additional steps should someone using a pessary take?

A

They’re inserted into the vagina to provide extra support to the pelvic organs. Women often have to try a few types of pessary before finding the correct comfort and symptom relief. Pessaries should be removed and cleaned or changed periodically (e.g. every four months). They can cause vaginal irritation and erosion over time. Oestrogen cream helps protect the vaginal walls from irritation.

284
Q

What are the complications of prolapse surgery?

A

Pain, bleeding, infection, DVT and risk of anaesthetic
Damage to the bladder or bowel
Recurrence of the prolapse
Altered experience of sex

285
Q

What is used to examine someone with a uterine prolapse?

A

Sim’s Speculum

286
Q

What are the types of pessaries for uterine prolapse?

A
  • Ring pessaries are a ring shape, and sit around the cervix holding the uterus up
  • Shelf and Gellhorn pessaries consist of a flat disc with a stem, that sits below the uterus with the stem pointing downwards
  • Cube pessaries are a cube shape
  • Donut pessaries consist of a thick ring, similar to a doughnut
  • Hodge pessaries are almost rectangular. One side is hooked around the posterior aspect of the cervix and the other extends into the vagina
287
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A

It’s caused by overactivity of the detrusor muscle of the bladder. Urge incontinence is also known as overactive bladder. The typical description is of suddenly feeling the urge to pass urine, having to rush to the bathroom and not arriving before urination occurs.

288
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

It’s weakness of the pelvic floor and sphincter muscles. This allows urine to leak at times of increased pressure on the bladder. The typical description of stress incontinence is urinary leakage when laughing, coughing or surprised.

Childbirth = most common cause, other RFs = oestrogen deficient states, pelvic surgery and irradiation.

289
Q

What is mixed incontinence?

A

a combination of urge incontinence and stress incontinence

290
Q

What is overflow incontinence? What causes it?

A

Occurs when there is chronic urinary retention due to an obstruction to the outflow of urine. This is either due to bladder outlet obstruction or detruser under activity. Chronic urinary retention results in an overflow of urine, and the incontinence occurs without the urge to pass urine.

It can occur with anticholinergic medications, fibroids, pelvic tumours and neurological conditions such as multiple sclerosis, diabetic neuropathy and spinal cord injuries. Overflow incontinence is more common in men, and rare in women.

291
Q

What are the risk factors for urinary incontinence?

A

Increased age
Postmenopausal status
Increase BMI
Previous pregnancies and vaginal deliveries
Pelvic organ prolapse
Pelvic floor surgery
Neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis
Cognitive impairment and dementia

292
Q

What are modifiable risk factors that contribute to urinary incontinence?

A

Caffeine consumption
Alcohol consumption
Medications
Body mass index (BMI)

293
Q

What symptoms should you be asking about when taking a history of how severe someone’s urinary incontinence is?

A

Frequency of urination
Frequency of incontinence
Nighttime urination
Use of pads and changes of clothing

294
Q

What investigations are used when diagnosing incontinence?

A

Urinalysis/MSU
Bladder scan - for post void residual urine volume
Bladder diary
Urodynamics

295
Q

How does urodynamic testing work? What is measured?

A

Stop taking anticholinergics 5 days before. A thin catheter is inserted into the bladder, and another into the rectum. These two catheters can measure the pressures in the bladder and rectum for comparison.

  • Cystometry measures the detrusor muscle contraction and pressure
  • Uroflowmetry measures the flow rate
  • Leak point pressure is the point at which the bladder pressure results in leakage of urine. The patient is asked to cough, move or jump when the bladder is filled to various capacities. This assesses for stress incontinence.
  • Post-void residual bladder volume tests for incomplete emptying of the bladder
  • Video urodynamic testing involves filling the bladder with contrast and taking xray images as the bladder is emptied. Theses are only performed where necessary and not a routine part of urodynamic testing.
296
Q

What is the management for stress incontinence?

A

Avoiding caffeine, diuretics and overfilling of the bladder
Avoid excessive or restricted fluid intake
Weight loss (if appropriate)
Supervised pelvic floor exercises for at least three months before considering surgery
Surgery
Duloxetine is an SNRI antidepressant used second line where surgery is less preferred

297
Q

What are the surgical management options for stress incontinence?

A
  • Tension-free vaginal tape (TVT) procedures involve a mesh sling looped under the urethra and up behind the pubic symphysis to the abdominal wall. This supports the urethra, reducing stress incontinence.
  • Autologous sling procedures work similarly to TVT procedures but a strip of fascia from the patient’s abdominal wall is used rather than tape
  • Colposuspension involves stitches connecting the anterior vaginal wall and the pubic symphysis, around the urethra, pulling the vaginal wall forwards and adding support to the urethra
  • Intramural urethral bulking involves injections around the urethra to reduce the diameter and add support
298
Q

How is urge incontinence managed?

A
  • Bladder retraining 1st line
  • Anticholinergic medication, for example, oxybutynin, tolterodine and solifenacin
  • Mirabegron is an alternative to anticholinergic medications
  • Invasive procedures where medical treatment fails
299
Q

What are the side effects of anticholinergics?

A

dry mouth
dry eyes
urinary retention
constipation
postural hypotension
cognitive decline
memory problems
worsening of dementia

300
Q

When is Mirabegron contraindicated? What monitoring is needed? How does it work? What complications can arise?

A

contraindicated in uncontrolled hypertension.

BP needs to be monitored regularly during treatment.

It works as a beta-3 agonist, stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, leading to raised blood pressure. This can lead to a hypertensive crisis and an increased risk of TIA and stroke

301
Q

What are invasive management options for urge incontinence?

A
  • Botulinum toxin type A injection into the bladder wall
  • Percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation involves implanting a device in the back that stimulates the sacral nerves
  • Detrusor myomectomy augmentation cystoplasty involves using bowel tissue to enlarge the bladder
  • Urinary diversion involves redirecting urinary flow to a urostomy on the abdomen
302
Q

What is atrophic vaginitis?

A

dryness and atrophy of the vaginal mucosa related to a lack of oestrogen. It occurs in women entering the menopause.

303
Q

What is the pathophysiology of atrophic vaginitis?

A

Atrophic vaginitis is characterised by inflammation and thinning of the genital tissues due to a fall in oestrogen levels, hence is most common after menopause.

The tissue is more prone to inflammation. There are also changes in the vaginal pH and microbial flora that can contribute to localised infections.

Oestrogen also helps maintain healthy connective tissue around the pelvic organs, and a lack of oestrogen can contribute to pelvic organ prolapse and stress incontinence.

304
Q

How does atrophic vaginitis present?

A

Thinning of the vaginal mucosa +skin
Loss of pubic hair
Narrowed introitus
Loss of vaginal rugae (folds)
Vaginal dryness and itching
Dyspareunia
Post-coital bleeding
Vaginal discharge from inflammation
Urinary symptoms such as dysuria, recurrent UTI
Pale mucosa
Erythema and inflammation

305
Q

How is atrophic vaginitis investigated?

A
  • Clinical examination, including speculum examination if tolerated, looking for vaginal signs of atrophy
  • Transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial biopsy may be necessary to exclude endometrial cancer
  • An infection screen may be done if there is itching or discharge
  • A biopsy of any abnormal skin lesions may be required
306
Q

What are the DDx for atrophic vaginitis?

A
  • Of postmenopausal bleeding: malignancy, endometrial hyperplasia
  • Of genital itching/discharge: sexually transmitted infection, vulvovaginal candidiasis, skin conditions such as lichen sclerosis, lichen planus, diabetes
  • Of narrowed introitus: female genital mutilation
  • Of urinary symptoms: urinary tract infection, bladder dysfunction, pelvic floor disfunction, cystitis
  • Of dyspareunia: malignancy, vaginismus
307
Q

How is atrophic vaginitis managed?

A
  • vaginal lubricants
  • oestrogen replacement (either systemic hormone-replacement therapy oral or transdermal OR
    topical oestrogen preparations)
308
Q

Is there a contraindication for topical oestrogen?

A

Same as HRT: breast cancer, angina and VTE. It is unclear whether long term use of topical oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer. Women should be monitored at least annually, with a view of stopping treatment whenever possible.

309
Q

What is Asherman’s Syndrome?

A

adhesions (sometimes called synechiae) form within the uterus, following damage to the uterus- asymptomatic adhesions are not referred to as Asherman’s

310
Q

Explain the pathophysiology behind Asherman’s Syndrome

A

Often caused by pregnancy-related D&C e.g. for RPOC or after uterine surgery or several pelvic infections.

Damaged tissue may heal abnormally, creating scar tissue (adhesions) connecting areas of the uterus that are generally not connected. There may be adhesions binding the uterine walls together, or within the endocervix, sealing it shut. These adhesions form physical obstructions and distort the pelvic organs, resulting in menstruation abnormalities, infertility and recurrent miscarriages.

311
Q

How does Asherman’s Syndrome present?

A
  • typically presents following recent D&C, uterine surgery or endometritis
  • Secondary amenorrhoea
  • Significantly lighter periods
  • Dysmenorrhoea
  • Infertility.
312
Q

What investigations are done to diagnose Asherman’s Syndrome?

A
  • Hysteroscopy is the gold standard investigation, and can involve dissection for treatment of the adhesions
  • Hysterosalpingography, where contrast is injected into the uterus and imaged with xrays
  • Sonohysterography, where the uterus is filled with fluid and a pelvic ultrasound is performed
  • MRI scan
313
Q

What is FGM?

A

FGM involves any procedure resulting in the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia, or other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical purposes. It is illegal to carry out FGM in the UK and it is internationally recognised as a human rights violation. It mainly happens to girls before they turn 15.

314
Q

What are the types of FGM?

A

Type 1: Removal of part or all of the clitoris.
Type 2: Removal of part or all of the clitoris and labia minora. The labia majora may also be removed.
Type 3: Narrowing or closing the vaginal orifice (infibulation).
Type 4: All other unnecessary procedures to the female genitalia.

315
Q

What are the complications of FGM that a patient may present to you with?

A

Pain
Bleeding
Infection
Swelling
Urinary retention
Urethral damage and incontinence
Vaginal infections e.g. BV
Pelvic infections
UTI
Dysmenorrhea
Sexual dysfunction and dyspareunia
Infertility and pregnancy-related complications
Significant psychological issues and depression
Reduced engagement with healthcare and screening

316
Q

What is the law surrounding FGM in the UK?

A

It is illegal to perform FGM in the UK or to aid someone in carrying out FGM on themselves or others and to assist in the planning and procurement of FGM practices abroad.

If you identify anyone with it under 18 then it must be reported to the police/social services. No obligation to report in adults unless risk posed to a child. Should be documented in notes. Pregnant women assessed on case by case basis but needs to be documented in child’s personal health records.

317
Q

What can you offer women affected by FGM?

A
  • A special gynae/FGM referral
  • A psych referral
  • Sexual health screening
  • Education about how it is illegal
  • Social services/Paeds
  • A de-infibulation surgical procedure may be performed by a specialist in FGM in cases of type 3 FGM.

NB. Re-infibulation may be requested after childbirth. Performing this procedure is illegal.

318
Q

What is the embryological root of the female reproductive system?

A

The upper vagina, cervix, uterus and fallopian tubes develop from the paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts). These are a pair of passageways along the outside of the urogenital region that fuse and mature to become the uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix and upper third of the vagina.

In male fetuses, anti-Mullerian hormone is produced, which suppresses the growth of the paramesonephric ducts, causing them to disappear.

319
Q

What is a bicornate uterus?
how would it be diagnosed?
what complications can it cause?

A
  • where there are two “horns” to the uterus, giving the uterus a heart-shaped appearance
  • Ix = pelvic ultrasound scan
  • A bicornuate uterus may be associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes (miscarriage, premature birth or malpresentation)
  • However, successful pregnancies are generally expected. In most cases, no specific management is required
320
Q

What is an imperforate hymen?
How does it present?
How is it diagnosed?
How is it managed?
What complication could it cause?

A
  • where the hymen at the entrance of the vagina is fully formed, without an opening
  • may be discovered when the girl starts to menstruate, and the menses are sealed in the vagina causing cyclical pelvic pain and cramping without any vaginal bleeding.
  • diagnosed during a clinical examination
  • Tx = surgical incision to create an opening in the hymen

Theoretically, if an imperforate hymen is not treated retrograde menstruation could occur leading to endometriosis.

321
Q

What is a transverse vaginal septae?
What are the types and how do they present?
What complications can they cause?
How do you diagnose it?
How do you treat it?
What complications can arise from treatment?

A
  • Septum forms transversely across the vagina
  • Can be perforate (with a hole) or imperforate (completely sealed).
  • Perforate = will still menstruate, but can have difficulty with intercourse or tampon use.
  • Imperforate = will present similarly to an imperforate hymen with cyclical pelvic symptoms without menstruation. - Vaginal septae can lead to infertility and pregnancy-related complications.
  • Ix = examination, ultrasound or MRI
  • Tx = surgical correction.
  • The main complications of surgery are vaginal stenosis and recurrence of the septae.
322
Q

What is Vaginal Hypoplasia?
What is Vaginal Agenesis?
Why do these happen?
Are the ovaries affected?
How is it treated?

A
  • Vaginal hypoplasia = abnormally small vagina.
  • Vaginal agenesis = absent vagina.
  • These occur due to failure of the Mullerian ducts to properly develop, and may be associated with an absent uterus and cervix.
  • The ovaries are usually unaffected, leading to normal female sex hormones. The exception to this is with androgen insensitivity syndrome, where there are testes rather than ovaries.
  • Tx = vaginal dilator over a prolonged period to create an adequate vaginal size or surgery
323
Q

What is premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

defined as menopause before the age of 40 years. It is the result of a decline in the normal activity of the ovaries at an early age. It presents with early onset of the typical symptoms of the menopause.

324
Q

Is premature ovarian insufficiency HYPER or HYPOgonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

characterised by hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Under-activity of the gonads (hypogonadism) means there is a lack of negative feedback on the pituitary gland, resulting in an excess of the gonadotropins (hypergonadotropism)

325
Q

What would hormonal analysis show in someone with premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

Raised LH and FSH levels (gonadotropins)
Low oestradiol levels

326
Q

What causes premature ovarian insufficiency?

A
  • Idiopathic = >50% of cases
  • Iatrogenic = chemotherapy, radiotherapy or surgery
  • Autoimmune = possibly associated with coeliac disease, adrenal insufficiency, type 1 diabetes or thyroid disease
  • Genetic = + FHx or Turner’s syndrome
  • Infections = mumps, TB or CMV
327
Q

How does premature ovarian insufficiency present?

A
  • Irregular menstrual periods
  • secondary amenorrhea
  • symptoms of low oestrogen levels:

Vasomotor: hot flushes, night sweats

Sexual dysfunction: vaginal dryness, reduced libido, problems with orgasm, dyspareunia

Psychological: depression, anxiety, mood swings, lethargy, reduced concentration

328
Q

How is premature ovarian insufficiency diagnosed?

A
  • women younger than 40 years with typical menopausal symptoms plus elevated FSH

The FSH level needs to be persistently raised (more than 25 IU/l) on two consecutive samples separated by more than four weeks to make a diagnosis. The results are difficult to interpret in women taking hormonal contraception.

329
Q

What diseases are women with premature ovarian insufficiency at higher risk of?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Stroke
Osteoporosis
Cognitive impairment
Dementia
Parkinsonism

330
Q

How is premature ovarian insufficiency managed?
What are the benefits of the different options?

A
  • HRT until at least the age at which women typically go through menopause to reduce risk of disease
  • Use either traditional HRT or COCP
  • HRT gives lower BP but COCP has less stigma and provides contraception
  • Still small risk of pregnancy so use contraception
  • HRT gives risk of VTE but may be less transdermally
331
Q

What is Pre-Menstrual Syndrome?

A

Premenstrual syndrome is psychological, physical or behavioural symptoms occurring in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, that are causing distress or disruption to the patient. The symptoms of PMS resolve once menstruation begins. Symptoms are not present before menarche, during pregnancy or after menopause.

332
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind PMS?

A

Caused by fluctuation in oestrogen and progesterone hormones during the menstrual cycle. The exact mechanism is not known, but it may be due to increased sensitivity to progesterone or an interaction between the sex hormones and the neurotransmitters serotonin and GABA.

333
Q

How does PMS present? What is premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

A

Low mood
Anxiety
Mood swings
Irritability
Bloating
Fatigue
Headaches
Breast pain
Reduced confidence
Cognitive impairment
Clumsiness
Reduced libido

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder = When features are severe and have a significant effect on quality of life

334
Q

How is PMS diagnosed?

A

Symptom diary spanning two menstrual cycles. It should demonstrate cyclical symptoms that occur just before, and resolve after, the onset of menstruation.

A definitive diagnosis may be made, under the care of a specialist, by administering a GnRH analogues to halt the menstrual cycle and temporarily induce menopause, to see if the symptoms resolve.

335
Q

How is PMS managed conservatively?

A
  • dietary modification: reduce fat, sugar, caffeine, alcohol and increase fibre, fruit and aim for more frequent snacks.
  • Increasing exercise
  • Vitamin supplementation: some evidence for vitamin B supplementation
  • Stress reduction: relaxation techniques
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy
336
Q

What is the pharmacological management for PMS?

A
  • COCP
  • Danazol
  • Transdermal oestrogen
  • GnRH analogues: effectively induce a menopausal state
  • Antidepressants: particularly SSRIs and SNRIs
337
Q

Which COCP is recommended in PMS?

A

COCPs containing drospirenone first line (i.e. Yasmin). Drospironone as some antimineralocortioid effects, similar to spironolactone. Continuous use of the pill, as opposed to cyclical use, may be more effective.

338
Q

Which drugs can help with the physical symptoms of PMS?

A

Danazole and tamoxifen are options for cyclical breast pain, initiated and monitored by a breast specialist.

Spironolactone may be used to treat the physical symptoms of PMS, such as breast swelling, water retention and bloating.

339
Q

If someone is on continuous transdermal oestrogen, what other medication needs to be given and why?

A

Progestogens are required for endometrial protection against endometrial hyperplasia when using oestrogen. This can be in the form of low dose cyclical progestogens (e.g. norethisterone) to trigger a withdrawal bleed, or the Mirena coil.

340
Q

What is PID?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is inflammation and infection of the organs of the pelvis, caused by infection spreading up through the cervix. It is a significant cause of tubular infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

  • Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium
  • Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes
  • Oophoritis is inflammation of the ovaries
  • Parametritis is inflammation of the parametrium, which is the connective tissue around the uterus
  • Peritonitis is inflammation of the peritoneal membrane
341
Q

What causes PID?

A

Usually STIs but can be others:
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae tends to produce more severe PID
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Mycoplasma genitalium
- Gardnerella vaginalis (associated with bacterial vaginosis)
- Haemophilus influenzae (a bacteria often associated with respiratory infections)
- Escherichia coli (an enteric bacteria commonly associated with urinary tract infections)

342
Q

What are RF for PID?

A

Not using barrier contraception
Multiple sexual partners
Younger age
Existing sexually transmitted infections
Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
Intrauterine device (e.g. copper coil)
Instrumentation of the cervix

343
Q

How does PID present?

A

Pelvic or lower bilateral abdominal pain
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Abnormal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
Dyspareunia
Fever
Dysuria
Adnexal tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness (cervical excitation)
Inflamed cervix (cervicitis)
Purulent discharge
Fever + N&V if severe
RUQ pain - 10%

344
Q

How is PID diagnosed?

A
  • Urine pregnancy test
  • Endocervical swabs for gonorrhea and chlamydia, and a high vaginal swab for trichomonas vaginalis and bacterial vaginosis. NAAT done - negative swabs do not exclude the diagnosis.
  • Full STI screen – (HIV, syphilis, gonorrhoea and Chlamydia as a minimum)
  • Urine dipstick +/- MSU
  • ESR + CRP
  • TVUSS
  • Laparoscopy
345
Q

How is PID managed?

A
  • IM Ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole
  • OR ofloxacin + metronidazole
  • analgesia
  • contact tracing
  • no sex until antibiotics finished
346
Q

When may you need to admit a patient with PID to hospital?

A
  • If pregnant and especially if there is a risk of ectopic pregnancy.
  • Severe symptoms: nausea, vomiting, high fever.
  • Signs of pelvic peritonitis.
  • Unresponsive to oral antibiotics, need for IV therapy.
  • Need for emergency surgery or suspicion of alternative diagnosis.
347
Q

What are the possible complications of PID?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Abscess
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Ectopic pregnancy – due to narrowing and scarring of the fallopian tubes
  • Infertility – 10%
  • Tubo-ovarian abscess
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
348
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

A
  • A complication of PID when adhesions form between the anterior liver capsule (Glisson’s) to the anterior abdominal wall or diaphragm.
  • Liver function tests are often normal.
  • An abdominal ultrasound should be used to exclude stones.
  • Laparoscopy is required for a definitive diagnosis and treatment involves adhesiolysis and the use of antibiotics.
349
Q

What is the definition of menopause? What age does it occur at? What causes it?

A
  • The permanent cessation of menstruation - at least 12 months of amenorrhoea in otherwise healthy woman over than age of 45, who are not using hormonal contraception.
  • 45-55, 52 is average
  • Caused by ovarian follicular failure leading to low oestrogen and progesterone levels. LH and FSH levels are high, in response to an absence of negative feedback from oestrogen
350
Q

What is perimenopause?

A

the period from when symptoms of menopause start, until 12 months after the last menstrual period.

351
Q

What is the physiology of the menopause?

A

No. of oocytes is fixed as a foetus, peaks between 20-28 weeks gestation and falls after that. The process of the menopause begins with a decline in the development of the ovarian follicles. Without the growth of follicles, there is reduced production of oestrogen and inhibin. Oestrogen has a negative feedback effect on the pituitary gland, suppressing the quantity of LH and FSH produced. As the level of oestrogen falls in the perimenopausal period, there is an absence of negative feedback on the pituitary gland, and increasing levels of LH and FSH.

The failing follicular development means ovulation does not occur (anovulation), resulting in irregular menstrual cycles. Without oestrogen, the endometrium does not develop, leading to a lack of menstruation (amenorrhoea). Lower levels of oestrogen also cause the perimenopausal symptoms.

352
Q

What are the symptoms of menopause?

A

Hot flushes + night sweats
Emotional lability or low mood
Anxiety
Lethargy
Difficulty concentrating
Premenstrual syndrome
Irregular periods
Joint pains
Heavier or lighter periods
Vaginal dryness and atrophy
Reduced libido
Problems with orgasm & dyspareunia

353
Q

What risks does menopause pose?

A

Cardiovascular disease and stroke
Osteoporosis
Pelvic organ prolapse
Urinary incontinence

354
Q

Does menopause mean that someone is infertile straight away?

A

A woman is considered still fertile for 2 years after her last menstrual period if she is <50, and for 1 year after her last menstrual period if she is over 50 years of age

In general all women are considered no longer fertile after the age of 55.

355
Q

How is menopause diagnosed?

A

A diagnosis of perimenopause and menopause can be made in women over 45 years with typical symptoms, without performing any investigations.

You can do an FSH blood test if:
- Women under 40 years with suspected premature menopause
- Women aged 40 – 45 years with menopausal symptoms or a change in the menstrual cycle

356
Q

Even though fertility declines after 40 it is important to still use contraception because pregnancies after 40 have more risks. How long should women use contracpetion for?

A
  • 2 years after the last menstrual period in women under 50
  • 1 year after the last menstrual period in women over 50
357
Q

Why should you not offer the Depot injection in women over 45?

A

two key side effects of the progesterone depot injection (e.g. Depo-Provera): weight gain and reduced bone mineral density (osteoporosis).

These side effects are unique to the depot and do not occur with other forms of contraception. Reduced bone mineral density makes the depot unsuitable for women over 45 years.

358
Q

What are UKMEC1 methods of contraception in women approaching the menopause?

A

Barrier methods
Mirena or copper coil
Progesterone only pill
Progesterone implant
Progesterone depot injection (under 45 years)
Sterilisation

359
Q

Why is the COCP UKMEC2 after 40?

A

COCP is UKMEC2 after aged 40, and can be used up to age 50 years if there are no other contraindications.

Consider COCPs containing norethisterone or levonorgestrel in women over 40, due to the relatively lower risk of VTE compared with other options.

360
Q

What can be used to manage perimenopausal symptoms?

A

Usually resolves after 2-5 years

  • HRT
  • Tibolone, a synthetic steroid hormone that acts as continuous combined HRT (only after 12 months of amenorrhoea)
  • Clonidine, which act as agonists of alpha-adrenergic and imidazoline receptors
  • CBT and SSRI antidepressants, such as fluoxetine or citalopram
  • Testosterone can be used to treat reduced libido (usually as a gel or cream)
  • Vaginal oestrogen cream or tablets, to help with vaginal dryness and atrophy (can be used alongside systemic HRT)
  • Vaginal moisturisers, such as Sylk, Replens and YES
361
Q

What are endometrial polyps?
How do they present?

A
  • Endometrial and endocervical polyps are focal proliferations of glandular, vascular, fibromuscular, and connective tissue
  • Can cause intermenstrual bleeding in particular. Many are asymptomatic and do not cause AUB
  • Prevalence is 10% to 15%
  • Incidence increases with age and the vast majority of symptomatic polyps are benign.
362
Q

What is the definition of infertility?

A

a disease of the reproductive system defined by the failure to achieve a pregnancy after 12 months or more of regular unprotected sex (without contraception) between a man and a woman

363
Q

What are the causes of infertility?

A

Sperm problems (30%)
Ovulation problems (25%)
Tubal problems (15%)
Uterine problems (10%)
Unexplained (20%)
40% of infertile couples have a mix of male and female causes.

364
Q

What are some genetic causes of infertility?

A

Turner’s syndrome (XO)
Kleinfelter’s syndrome (XXY)

365
Q

What are some ovarian or endocrine causes of infertility?

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome
Pituitary tumours
Sheehan’s syndrome (pituitary infarction due to haemorrhagic shock during labour)
Hyperprolactinaemia
Cushing’s syndrome
Premature ovarian failure

366
Q

What tubal abnormalities can cause infertility?

A

Congenital anatomical abnormalities
Adhesions following pelvic inflammatory disease - secondary to chlamydia or gonorrhoea

367
Q

Which uterine abnormalities can cause infertility?

A

Bicornate uterus
Fibroids
Asherman’s syndrome
Endometriosis
Cervical damage from biopsy or LLETZ

368
Q

Which testicular and ejaculatory abnormalities can cause infertility?

A

Cryptorchidism
Varicocele
Testicular cancer
Congenital testicular defects
Obstruction of the ejaculatory system (either congenital or acquired)
Disorders of ejaculation e.g. retrograde ejaculation, premature ejaculation

369
Q

What are modifiable risk factors for infertility

A

Increasing age
Obesity
Smoking
Tight-fitting underwear (males)
Excessive alcohol consumption
Anabolic steroid use
Illicit drug use

370
Q

What advice should you give couples trying to conceive?

A

The woman should be taking 400mcg folic acid daily
Aim for a healthy BMI
Avoid smoking and drinking excessive alcohol
Reduce stress as this may negatively affect libido and the relationship
Aim for intercourse every 2 – 3 days
Avoid timing intercourse

371
Q

What Ix would you order to to investigate infertility in primary care?

A

Offer after 1 year of unsuccessful conception or after 6 months in women over 35
- Mid-luteal phase progesterone – to assess ovulation, 7 days before period
- Chlamydia screening
- Testing for susceptibility to rubella
- Semen testing

The following investigations may be considered:
Serum progesterone in women with prolonged irregular menstrual cycles
FSH and LH – may help identify ovulation disorders
TFTs
Anti-Mullerian hormone
Prolactin

372
Q

What tests for infertility can you order in secondary care?

A
  • Ultrasound pelvis to look for polycystic ovaries or any structural abnormalities in the uterus
  • Hysterosalpingogram (xray with contrast) to look at the patency of the fallopian tubes (do in first 10 days of cycle and do chlamydia test before)
  • Laparoscopy and dye test to look at the patency of the fallopian tubes, adhesions and endometriosis
373
Q

How are sperm problems causing infertility managed?

A

Surgical sperm retrieval is used when there is a blockage somewhere along the vas deferens preventing sperm from reaching the ejaculated semen.

Surgical correction of an obstruction in the vas deferens may restore male fertility.

Intra-uterine insemination involves collecting and separating out high-quality sperm, then injecting them directly into the uterus to give them the best chance of success.

Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) involves injecting sperm directly into the cytoplasm of an egg. These fertilised eggs become embryos, and are injected into the uterus of the woman.

Donor insemination

374
Q

What are the benefits of HRT?

A

Symptomatic relief of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, headaches, vaginal atrophy and dryness
Decreases the risk of osteoporosis and colorectal cancer

375
Q

What are the risks of HRT?

A

Breast and endometrial cancer (no endo Ca in people without uterus), VTE and stroke, coronary artery disease (no CAD risk in osetrogen only) and some minimal evidence suggesting increased risk of ovarian cancer (patches reduce risk of VTE)

376
Q

What are the contraindications for using HRT?

A

Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
Pregnancy
Breastfeeding
Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
Endometrial cancer
Acute liver disease
Uncontrolled hypertension
History of breast cancer or venous thromboembolism (VTE)
Recent stroke, myocardial infarction or angina

377
Q

How does clonidine improve symptoms of HRT and what are its side effects?

A

agonist of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors and imidazoline receptors in the brain. It lowers BP and reduces HR, and is also used as an antihypertensive medication. Helps vasomotor symptoms and hot flushes, particularly where there are contraindications to using HRT.

Common side effects of clonidine are dry mouth, headaches, dizziness and fatigue. Sudden withdrawal can result in rapid increases in blood pressure and agitation.

378
Q

What are the indications for HRT?

A
  • Premature ovarian insufficiency, even without symptoms
  • Vasomotor symptoms such as hot flushes and night sweats
  • Low mood, decreased libido, poor sleep and joint pain
  • Reducing risk of osteoporosis in women under 60 years
379
Q

How is the risk of endometrial cancer in women with a uterus posed by HRT minimised?

A

The risk of endometrial cancer is greatly reduced by adding progesterone in women with a uterus

380
Q

What 3 steps do you take in deciding HRT planning?

A
  1. Local or systemic symptoms? If local then prescribe oestrogen cream
  2. Is there a uterus? No uterus = continuous oestrogen-only HRT, if they have a uterus then use combined
  3. Have they had a period in the last 12 months? Yes = cyclical combined, No = continuous combined
381
Q

When are oestrogen patches more appropriate than oral in HRT?

A

Patches are more suitable for women with poor control on oral treatment, higher risk of venous thromboembolism, cardiovascular disease and headaches

382
Q

How is progesterone given for HRT?

A
  • Cyclical progesterone, given for 10 – 14 days per month, is used for women that have had a period within the past 12 months
  • Continuous progesterone is used when the woman has not had a period in the past: 2 years if under 50 years, 1 year if over 50 years
  • You can switch from cyclical to continuous HRT after at least 1 yr of treatment in women over 50, and 2 yrs in women under 50. Switch from cyclical to continuous HRT during the withdrawal bleed.
383
Q

What are the different methods for delivering progesterone in HRT?

A

Oral (tablets)
Transdermal (patches)
Intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena coil) licensed for 4 years

384
Q

What are the 2 chemical forms of progestogens?

A

C19 and C21 progestogens, referring to the chemical structure and number of carbon atoms in the molecule.

C19 progestogens are derived from testosterone, and are more “male” in their effects. Examples are norethisterone, levonorgestrel and desogestrel. These may be helpful for women with reduced libido.

C21 progestogens are derived from progesterone, and are more “female” in their effects. Examples are progesterone, dydrogesterone and medroxyprogesterone. These may be helpful for women with side effects such as depressed mood or acne.

385
Q

What are side effects of oestrogen?

A

Nausea and bloating
Breast swelling
Breast tenderness
Headaches
Leg cramps

386
Q

What are the side effects of progesterone?

A

Mood swings
Bloating
Fluid retention
Weight gain
Acne and greasy skin

387
Q

How can you avoid progestogenic side effects when giving HRT?

A

By using a Mirena coil for endometrial protection

388
Q

What lifestyle factors affect the quality of sperm?

A

Hot baths
Tight underwear
Smoking
Alcohol
Raised BMI
Caffeine

389
Q

What do the following terms mean?

Polyspermia (or polyzoospermia)
Normospermia (or normozoospermia)
Oligospermia (or oligozoospermia)
Cryptozoospermia
Azoospermia

A

Polyspermia (or polyzoospermia) refers to a high number of sperm in the semen sample (more than 250 million per ml).

Normospermia (or normozoospermia) refers to normal characteristics of the sperm in the semen sample.

Oligospermia (or oligozoospermia) is a reduced number of sperm in the semen sample. It is classified as:

Azoospermia is the absence of sperm in the semen.

390
Q

What are some pre-testicular causes of male factor infertility?

A

Pathology of the pituitary gland or hypothalamus
Suppression due to stress, chronic conditions or hyperprolactinaemia
Kallman syndrome

391
Q

What are some testicular causes of male factor infertility?

A

Mumps
Undescended testes
Trauma
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Cancer

Genetic/congenital diseases affecting sperm production:
Klinefelter syndrome
Y chromosome deletions
Sertoli cell-only syndrome
Anorchia (absent testes)

392
Q

What are some post-testicular causes of male factor infertility?

A

Damage to the testicle or vas deferens from trauma, surgery or cancer
Ejaculatory duct obstruction
Retrograde ejaculation
Scarring from epididymitis, for example, caused by chlamydia
Absence of the vas deferens (may be associated with cystic fibrosis)
Young’s syndrome (obstructive azoospermia, bronchiectasis and rhinosinusitis)

393
Q

What investigations would you do when assessing male factor infertility?

A

Hormonal analysis with LH, FSH and testosterone levels
Genetic testing
Further imaging, such as transrectal ultrasound or MRI
Vasography, which involves injecting contrast into the vas deferens and performing xray to assess for obstruction
Testicular biopsy

394
Q

What is Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a complication of ovarian stimulation during IVF infertility treatment. It is associated with the use of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to mature the follicles during the final steps of ovarian stimulation.

395
Q

What is the pathophysiology of OHSS?

A
  • increase in vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) released by the granulosa cells of the follicles.
  • VEGF increases vascular permeability, causing fluid to leak from capillaries.
  • This results in oedema, ascites and hypovolaemia.
  • Using LH and FSH during ovarian stimulation results in the development of multiple follicles.
  • OHSS is provoked by the “trigger injection” of hCG 36 hours before oocyte collection. HCG stimulates the release of VEGF from the follicles. The features of the condition begin to develop after the hCG injection.
  • RAAs also stimulated- raised renin level correlates with the severity of the condition.
396
Q

What are the RF for OHSS?

A

Younger age
Lower BMI
Raised anti-Müllerian hormone
Higher antral follicle count
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Raised oestrogen levels during ovarian stimulation

397
Q

What monitoring and management do they do for high risk of OHSS?

A

During stimulation with gonadotrophins, they are monitored with: Serum oestrogen levels (higher levels indicate a higher risk) and USS monitor of the follicles (higher number and larger size indicate a higher risk)

High risk:
Use of the GnRH antagonist protocol (rather than the GnRH agonist protocol)
Lower doses of gonadotrophins
Lower dose of the hCG injection
Alternatives to the hCG injection (i.e. a GnRH agonist or LH)

398
Q

How does OHSS present?

A

Abdominal pain and bloating
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhoea
Hypotension
Hypovolaemia
Ascites
Pleural effusions
Renal failure
Peritonitis from rupturing follicles releasing blood
Prothrombotic state (risk of DVT and PE)

399
Q

How is OHSS managed?

A

supportive with treatment of any complications:
Oral fluids
Monitoring of urine output
Low molecular weight heparin (to prevent thromboembolism)
Ascitic fluid removal (paracentesis) if required
IV colloids (e.g. human albumin solution)

Mild/moderate = outpatient. Severe cases require admission, and critical cases may require admission to the intensive care unit (ICU).

Haematocrit assesses intravascular fluid volume, raised = dehydration

400
Q

What does a single cycle of IVF involve?

A

a single episode of ovarian stimulation and collection of oocytes (eggs). A single cycle may produce several embryos. Each of these embryos can be transferred separately in multiple attempts at pregnancy, all during one “cycle” of IVF.

401
Q

What steps are involved in IVF?

A

Suppressing the natural menstrual cycle
Ovarian stimulation
Oocyte collection
Insemination / intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
Embryo culture
Embryo transfer

402
Q

In IVF how is the natural menstrual cycle supressed?

A

GnRH agonist protocol, an injection of a GnRH agonist (e.g. goserelin) is given in the luteal phase 7 days before the expected onset of the menstrual period (usually day 21 of the cycle). This stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete a large amount of FSH and LH. After this surge there is negative feedback to the hypothalamus, and the natural production of GnRH is suppressed. This causes suppression of the menstrual cycle.

For the GnRH antagonist protocol, daily subcutaneous injections of a GnRH antagonist (e.g. cetrorelix) are given, starting from day 5 – 6 of ovarian stimulation. This suppresses the body releasing LH and causing ovulation to occur.

403
Q

Why is it important to suppress the natural menstrual cycle in IVF?

A

Without suppression of the natural gonadotropins (LH and FSH) using one of the above protocols, ovulation would occur and the follicles that are developing would be released before it is possible to collect them

404
Q

Describe the process of ovarian stimulation in IVF?

A

Ovarian stimulation promotes the development of multiple follicles in the ovaries. This starts at the beginning of the menstrual cycle with subcutaneous injections of FSH over 10 to 14 days. Monitored with TVUSS.

When enough follicles have developed to an adequate size, the FSH is stopped, and an injection of hCG is given 36 hours before collection of the eggs. The hCG works similarly to LH does naturally, and stimulates the final maturation of the follicles, ready for collection. This is referred to as a “trigger injection”.

405
Q

How does oocyte collection work in IVF?

A

The oocytes are collected from the ovaries under the guidance of a TVUSS. A needle is inserted through the vaginal wall into each ovary to aspirate the fluid from each follicle. This fluid contains the mature oocytes from the follicles. The procedure is usually performed under sedation (not a general anaesthetic). The fluid from the follicles is examined under the microscope for oocytes.

406
Q

How does oocyte insemination work in IVF?

A

The sperm and egg are mixed in a culture medium. Thousands of sperm need to be combined with each oocyte to produce enough enzymes (e.g. hyaluronic acid) for one sperm to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida and fertilise the egg.

Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is a treatment used mainly for male factor infertility. The highest quality sperm are isolated and injected directly into the cytoplasm of the egg.

407
Q

What is embryo culture in IVF?

A

Dishes containing the fertilised eggs are left in an incubator and observed over 2 – 5 days to see which will develop and grow. They are monitored until they reach the blastocyst stage of development (around day 5).

408
Q

What happens during embryo transfer in IVF?

A

After 2 – 5 days, the highest quality embryos are selected for transfer. A catheter is inserted under ultrasound guidance through the cervix into the uterus. A single embryo is injected through the catheter into the uterus, and the catheter is removed. Generally, only a single embryo is transferred. Two embryos may be transferred in older women (i.e. over 35 years). Any remaining embryos can be frozen for future attempts at transfer.

409
Q

After embryo transfer what other measures are taken?

A

A pregnancy test is performed around day 16 after egg collection. When this is positive, implantation has occurred. Even after a positive test, there is still the possibility of miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy.

Progesterone vaginal pessaries is used from the time of oocyte collection until 8 – 10 weeks gestation to mimic the progesterone that would be released by the corpus luteum during a typical pregnancy. From 8 – 10 weeks the placenta takes over production of progesterone, and the suppositories are stopped.

An ultrasound scan is performed early in the pregnancy (around 7 weeks) to check for a fetal heartbeat, and rule out miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. When the ultrasound scan confirms a health pregnancy, the remainder of the pregnancy can proceed with standard care, as with any other pregnancy.

410
Q

What are the complications of IVF?

A

Failure
Multiple pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

There is a small risk of complications relating to the egg collection procedure:
Pain
Bleeding
Pelvic infection
Damage to the bladder or bowel