GUM + Breast Flashcards

1
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A

An overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, specifically anaerobic bacteria. It is not a sexually transmitted infection. It is caused by a loss of the lactobacilli “friendly bacteria” in the vagina causing an increase in pH. Bacterial vaginosis can increase the risk of women developing sexually transmitted infections. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.

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2
Q

What is the pathophysiology of BV?

A

Lactobacilli are the main component of the healthy vaginal bacterial flora. These bacteria produce lactic acid that keeps the vaginal pH low (under 4.5). The acidic environment prevents other bacteria from overgrowing. When there are reduced numbers of lactobacilli in the vagina, the pH rises. This more alkaline environment enables anaerobic bacteria to multiply.

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3
Q

Which bacteria cause BV?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis (most common)
Mycoplasma hominis
Prevotella species

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4
Q

What are the RF for BV?

A

Sexual activity – particularly a new partner or multiple sexual partners
The use of a contraceptive intrauterine device (IUD)
Receptive oral sex
Presence of an STI
Vaginal douching, or the use of scented soaps/vaginal deodorant
Recent antibiotic use
Ethnicity – more common in black women
Smoking
Women who have sex with women are more at risk due to shared vaginal flora patterns.

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5
Q

What are the clinical features of BV?

A

Fishy-smelling (especially after sex) watery grey or white homogenous vaginal discharge. Half of women with BV are asymptomatic.

Itching, irritation and pain are not typically associated with BV and suggest an alternative cause or co-occurring infection.

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6
Q

How is BV investigated and diagnosed? What criteria is used?

A

the Amstel criteria are often used. Three out of four features are needed to confer a diagnosis:

Vaginal pH >4.5
Homogenous grey or milky discharge
Positive whiff test (addition of 10% potassium hydroxide produces fishy odour)
Clue cells present on wet mount

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7
Q

What are clue cells?

A

Clue cells are epithelial cells from the cervix that have bacteria stuck inside them, usually Gardnerella vaginalis.

Microscopy may also show reduced numbers of lactobacilli and absence of pus cells

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8
Q

How is BV managed?

A

Asymptomatic does not require treatment

Metronidazole specifically targets anaerobic bacteria. This is given orally, or by vaginal gel. Clindamycin is an alternative but less optimal antibiotic choice.

Assess for additional infections, educate about how to reduce BV in the future and remind patients about how you can’t drink with Metronidazole. It causes “disulfiram-like reaction”, with nausea and vomiting, flushing and sometimes severe symptoms of shock and angioedema.

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9
Q

What does BV in pregnancy increase risks of and how is it managed?

A

Untreated symptomatic BV can increase the risk of pregnancy-related complications such as premature birth or rupture of membranes, miscarriage and chorioamnionitis, low birth weight and postpartum endometritis.

Treatment is the same as for non-pregnant women however if receiving treatment following birth, lactating women are advised to be treated with lower doses of metronidazole which can affect the taste of the breast milk.

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10
Q

What is vaginal candidiasis?

A

It refers to vaginal infection with a yeast of the Candida family. The most common is Candida albicans.

Candida may colonise the vagina without causing symptoms. It then progresses to infection when the right environment occurs, for example, during pregnancy or after treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics that alter the vaginal flora.

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11
Q

What are the RF for thrush?

A

Pregnancy
Diabetes
Use of broad spectrum antibiotics- alters normal vaginal micro-biota
Use of corticosteroids - immunosuppressive action of corticosteroids can allow commensal candida the opportunity to thrive excessively.
Immunosuppression or compromised immune system
For example in HIV or cancer patients.

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12
Q

How does thrush present?

A

itching, white curdy or lumpy discharge, non-offensive or sour milk odour, dysuria, superficial dyspareunia, pruritus, tenderness, burning sensation

Examination - redness, fissuring, swelling, intertrigo, thick white discharge, satellite lesions (red, pustular lesions with superficial white/creamy pseudomembranous plaques that can be scraped off)

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13
Q

How is thrush diagnosed?

A

If uncomplicated then can give empiracal treatment.

Testing the vaginal pH using a swab and pH paper can be helpful in differentiating between bacterial vaginosis and trichomonas (pH > 4.5) and candidiasis (pH < 4.5).

A charcoal swab with microscopy can confirm the diagnosis. May show spores and mycelia which are indicative of candida infection but it is commensal in a lot of women so not always cause of symptoms

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14
Q

How is thrush managed?

A

Oral (-azoles) e.g. fluconazole, itraconazole
Intravaginal e.g. clotrimazole pessary
Vulval e.g. topical clotrimazole cream

Canesten Duo is a standard over-the-counter treatment worth knowing. It contains a single fluconazole tablet and clotrimazole cream to use externally for vulval symptoms. Cream can damage condoms and diaphragms so need to use alternative contraception for at least 5 days

Recurrent infections (more than 4 in a year) can be treated with an induction and maintenance regime over six months with oral or vaginal antifungal medications.

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15
Q

Why is thrush more common in pregnancy?

A

By stimulating increased glycogen production, this provides a more favourable environment for microorganisms to thrive. It is also thought that oestrogen may have a direct influence on the candida organism by promoting its growth and encouraging it to ‘stick’ to the walls of the vagina.

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16
Q

How is thrush treated in pregnancy?

A

Treat infection with intravaginal antifungal (e.g. clotrimazole)
Do not give oral antifungals such as fluconazole and itraconazole
Treat vulval symptoms with topical antifungal
Advise the patient to be careful to avoid physical damage when inserting intravaginal treatment applicator
Return if symptoms have not resolved within 7-14 days

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17
Q

What is chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is a gram-negative bacteria. It is an intracellular organism, meaning it enters and replicates within cells before rupturing the cell and spreading to others. Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK and a significant cause of infertility.

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18
Q

How does the national chlamydia screening programme work?

A

aims to screen every sexually active person under 25 years of age for chlamydia annually or when they change their sexual partner. Everyone that tests positive should have a re-test three months after treatment. This re-testing is to ensure they have not contracted chlamydia again, rather than to check the treatment has worked.

In general, when a patient attends a GUM clinic for STI screening, as a minimum, they are tested for:

Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphilis (blood test)
HIV (blood test)

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19
Q

How does chlamydia present?

A

Asymptomatic
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Pelvic pain
Abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
Painful sex (dyspareunia)
Painful urination (dysuria)

Men:
Urethral discharge or discomfort
Dysuria
Epididymo-orchitis
Reactive arthritis

NB. consider anal chlamydia or LV when someone has anorectal symptoms, such as discomfort, discharge, bleeding and change in bowel habits.

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20
Q

What are the clinical findings of chlamydia on examination?

A

Pelvic or abdominal tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness (cervical excitation)
Inflamed cervix (cervicitis)
Purulent discharge

In men:
Epididymal tenderness
Mucopurulent discharge

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21
Q

What are the Ix for chlamydia?

A

nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT):
Women: Vulvo-vaginal swab (first choice), endocervical swab or first catch urine sample.
Men: first catch urine sample (first choice) or urethral swab.
If indicated, swabs may also need to be taken from the rectum, eye(s) and throat.

Patients recommended to have full STI screen to check for co-infection

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22
Q

How is chlamydia managed?

A

Doxycycline 100mg 2x day for 7 days, abstain during treatment, contact tracing, screen and treat other STIs, advise on how to prevent in the future and screen for safeguarding and abuse

Contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding, other options are azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin

Test of cure only needed if rectal, pregnant or persistant symptoms

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23
Q

What are the complications of chlamydia?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Chronic pelvic pain
Infertility
Ectopic pregnancy
Epididymo-orchitis
Conjunctivitis
Lymphogranuloma venereum
Reactive arthritis

Pregnancy-related complications include:
Preterm delivery
Premature rupture of membranes
Low birth weight
Postpartum endometritis
Neonatal infection (conjunctivitis and pneumonia)

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24
Q

What infections do the different serotypes of chlamydia cause?

A

Serotypes A-C – cause ocular infection.
Serotypes D-K – responsible for classical genitourinary infection.
Serotypes L1-L3 – cause lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), an emerging infection in men who have sex with men, often resulting in proctitis.

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25
Q

How does chlamydia spread within the body to infect you?

A

C. trachomatis enters the host cell as an elementary body (infectious form). Once inside the cell it becomes a reticular body, the non-infectious form capable of replication. Following replication, these reticular bodies mature back to elementary bodies, and following cell rupture the elementary bodies infect other cells resulting in inflammation and tissue damage.

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26
Q

What is Lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

a sexually transmitted infection caused by serovars L1, L2 or L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis. L2 is most common

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27
Q

Which patients have the highest incidence of LGV?

A

Men who have sex with men
99% of cases are in this group
Often co-infection with HIV

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28
Q

What are the stages of LGV?

A

The primary stage involves a painless ulcer (primary lesion). This typically occurs on the penis in men, vaginal wall in women or rectum after anal sex.

The secondary stage involves lymphadenitis. This is swelling, inflammation and pain in the lymph nodes infected with the bacteria. The inguinal or femoral lymph nodes may be affected. If they’re matted together or suppurative, which is termed a buboe.

The tertiary stage involves inflammation of the rectum (proctitis) and anus. Proctocolitis leads to anal pain, change in bowel habit, tenesmus and discharge. Tenesmus is a feeling of needing to empty the bowels, even after completing a bowel motion.

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29
Q

How does LGV present?

A

Typically identified on the coronal sulcus of the glans penis in men or posterior vaginal wall and/or vulva in women.

Painless papule
Painless pustule
Painless shallow ulcer
Proctitis
Rectal pain
Rectal bleeding
Rectal discharge
Tenesmus

Secondary stage:
Lymphadenopathy: inguinal/femoral, typically unilateral and painful
Lymphadenitis: infected lymph nodes
Buboes: marked lymphadenitis that becomes suppurative. At risk of chronic fistulae formation
Groove sign (15-20%): femoral and inguinal lymphadenopathy are separated by the inguinal ligament
Systemic upset: rarely fever, pneumonitis, hepatitis, aseptic meningitis or arthritis can occur

Tertiary stage:
Proctitis/proctocolitis: bleeding, pain, tenesmus
Fistulae
Strictures
Chronic lymphoedema

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30
Q

How is LGV diagnosed?

A

NAAT:
Genital swab: ideally taken from base of an ulcer
Rectal swabs
Urethral swab
First-catch urine
Aspiration from lymph nodes: often utilised in presence of buboes

Also refer to GUM for full STI screen

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31
Q

How is LGV managed?

A

Oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days or tetracycline 2g daily for 21 days (2nd line is azithromycin or erythromycin)

Abstinence and all sexual contacts within 4 weeks of symptomatic LGV or 3 months of asymptomatic carriage of LGV will need to be contacted, screened and receive empirical treatment.

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32
Q

What causes gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus bacteria. It infects mucous membranes with a columnar epithelium, such as the endocervix in women, urethra, rectum, conjunctiva and pharynx. It spreads via contact with mucous secretions from infected areas. Common in MSM.

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33
Q

How does gonorrhoea present?

A

Infection with gonorrhoea is more likely to be symptomatic than infection with chlamydia.

Odourless purulent discharge, possibly green or yellow
Abnormal bleeding
Tender lymph nodes
Dysuria
Dyspareunia
Pelvic pain
Testicular pain or swelling

Rectal, pharyngeal and conjunctival infection can also occur

Rarely there is disseminated infection - tendinitis, tenosynovitis, septic arthritis, meningitis and endocarditis

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34
Q

How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) - endocervical, vulvovaginal or urethral swabs, or in a first-catch urine sample. Rectal and pharyngeal swab are recommended in all men who have sex with men (MSM), and in those with risk factors

Charcoal endocervical swab should be taken for microscopy, culture and antibiotic sensitivities before initiating antibiotics.

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35
Q

What would you see on microscopy for someone with a gonorrhoea infection?

A

presence of monomorphic Gram-negative diplococci within polymorphonuclear leukocytes

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36
Q

How is gonorrhoea managed?

A

A single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone 1g if the sensitivities are NOT known
A single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if the sensitivities ARE known

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37
Q

When and how do you do a test of cure for gonorrhoea?

A

NAAT testing if they are asymptomatic, or cultures where they are symptomatic

72 hours after treatment for culture
7 days after treatment for RNA NAAT
14 days after treatment for DNA NAAT

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38
Q

Other than prescribing antibiotics, what else must you do when a patient is diagnosed with gonorrhoea?

A

Advise to abstain from sex for seven days of treatment of all partners to reduce the risk of re-infection
Test for and treat any other sexually transmitted infections
Provide advice about ways to prevent future infection
Consider safeguarding issues and sexual abuse in children and young people

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39
Q

What are the complications of gonorrhoea?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Chronic pelvic pain
Infertility
Epididymo-orchitis (men)
Prostatitis (men)
Conjunctivitis
Urethral strictures
Disseminated gonococcal infection
Skin lesions
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Septic arthritis
Endocarditis
Higher risk of getting HIV
Neonatal conjunctivitis - emergency

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40
Q

What is mycoplasma genitalium?

A

Mycoplasma genitalium (MG) is a bacteria that causes non-gonococcal urethritis. It is a sexually transmitted infection. There are developing problems with antibiotic resistance, particularly with azithromycin.

Most cases of MG do not cause symptoms. The presentation is very similar to chlamydia, and patients may be infected with both organisms. Urethritis is a key feature.

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41
Q

What are the complications of M. Gen?

A

Urethritis
Epididymitis
Cervicitis
Endometritis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Reactive arthritis
Preterm delivery in pregnancy
Tubal infertility

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42
Q

How is M.Gen diagnosed?

A

Traditional cultures are not helpful in isolating MG, as it is a very slow-growing organism. Therefore, testing involves nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

First urine sample in the morning for men
Vaginal swabs (can be self-taken) for women

Check for macrolide resistance and do test of cure

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43
Q

How is M.Gen managed?

A

Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days then Azithromycin 1g stat then 500mg once a day for 2 days (unless it is known to be resistant to macrolides)

Moxifloxacin is used as an alternative or in complicated infections. Azithromycin alone is used in pregnancy and breastfeeding (remember doxycycline is contraindicated).

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44
Q

What is trichomaniasis?

A

Trichomoniasis is a curable sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis (TV).

Trichomonas has four flagella at the front and a single flagellum at the back, giving a characteristic appearance to the organism. The flagella are used for movement, attaching to tissues and causing damage.

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45
Q

What is the epidemiology of trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomoniasis is the most common non-viral sexually transmitted infections worldwide but it’s relatively rare in the UK

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46
Q

What is the pathophysiology of trichomoniasis?

A

infect squamous cells of the urogenital epithelium. It most commonly infects areas of the vagina and urethra. Other sites of infection include the cervix, bladder, Bartholin glands, and prostate.

Humans are the only known reservoir for T. vaginalis and it is almost always sexually transmitted. The Protozoa can be transmitted between women and men, women and women, but rarely between two men. Co-infection with other conditions is common

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47
Q

What are the RF for Trichomoniasis?

A

Multiple sexual partners
Unprotected sexual intercourse
A history of other STIs
Older women are more at risk of TV

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48
Q

How does Trichomoniasis present?

A

Asymptomatic
Vaginal discharge: frothy, green-yellow
Vulval itching or soreness
Malodorous
Dysuria
Dyspareunia
Urethral discharge in men
Urethral irritation
Abdominal pain
Cervical inflammation (often described as ‘strawberry cervix’ = colpitis macularis, caused by tiny haemorrhages on the cervix)
Rarely balanitis or balanoposthitis (inflammation of glans penis and foreskin)

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49
Q

How is Trichomoniasis diagnosed?

A
  • pH > 4.5
  • The diagnosis can be confirmed with a standard charcoal swab with gram staining, microscopy and culture from the posterior fornix of the vagina in women. A self-taken low vaginal swab may be used as an alternative.
  • NAAT
  • Rapid antigen test
  • Cytology - can be incidental on smears
  • A urethral swab or first-catch urine is used in men

Screen for other STIs

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50
Q

What is the management for trichomoniasis?

A

Oral metronidazole. Either 400–500mg twice a day for 5–7 days, or 2g as a single oral dose
Advise abstinence for at least one week, and until the person and all partners have completed treatment
Screening for other sexually transmitted infections
Contact tracing

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51
Q

What conditions does trichomoniasis infection increase the risk of?

A

Contracting HIV by damaging the vaginal mucosa
Bacterial vaginosis
Cervical and prostate cancer
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Pregnancy-related complications such as preterm delivery.

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52
Q

What is genital herpes?

A

a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Herpes simplex virus 1&2. 1 also affects mouth and nose and is the most common in the UK. It is transmitted via skin-to-skin contact through vaginal, anal or oral sex. Once infected people may be asymptomatic for a long period of time, until the first flare up. Following the primary symptomatic infection, the virus can lie dormant until it recurs later in life causing recurrent outbreaks.

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53
Q

What is the pathophysiology of genital herpes?

A

HSV enters the body through small cracks in the skin or through the mucous membranes of the mouth, vagina, rectum, urethra or under the foreskin. After infecting the surface, the virus travels up the nearest nerve to the ganglion and remains there.

Asymptomatic shedding is also an important cause of transmission as many people can shed and transmit the virus even if they are unaware they have the infection.

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54
Q

Which ganglia do the different types of HSV normally lie dormant in?

A

Oro-labial herpes: trigeminal ganglia
Anogenital herpes: sacral nerve root ganglia

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55
Q

How does genital herpes present?

A

Asymptomatic
Painful vesicle, pustule or ulceration: usually multiple lesions of different ages
Vaginal/urethral discharge
Dysuria
Systemic symptoms: fever, headache, malaise, myalgia (more common in primary infection)
Proctitis: bleeding, tenesmus, pain, discharge (more common in MSM)
Vesicles
Pustules
Ulceration: usually evidence of crusting over
Lymphadenopathy/lymphadenitis (inguinal): usually tender and bilateral. Seen in around 30%. Unilateral more common in recurrent infection
Urinary retention: if pelvic autonomic nerves affected

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56
Q

Describe recurrent herpes

A

Once primary infection has cleared the virus remains dormant in the body. It can reactivate causing recurrent outbreaks. These are shorter and less severe and over time reduce in severity and length bcos of antibody production. Usually presents with burning, itching and painful red blisters around the genitals.

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57
Q

What are complications of herpes?

A

Superinfection (lesions may become infected by bacteria or fungi), Autonomic neuropathy (urinary retention), Autoinoculation (lesions can be passed to other areas of skin through direct contact), CNS complications (aseptic meningitis and encephalitis but more likely in patients with HIV co-infection or marked immunosuppression), hepatitis, oesophagitis, keratitis, etc

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58
Q

What Ix do you do for herpes?

A

NAAT from base of the ulcer
Other STI screen
Serology for antibodies

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59
Q

How is herpes managed?

A

Acyclovir
Abstain
Salt baths
Analgesia (topical lidocaine 2% gel e.g. Instillagel and paracetamol)
Loose clothing
Refer to GUM

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60
Q

Does maternal herpes affect pregnancy? How is herpes managed in pregnancy?

A

No but there is a worry of transmission causing neonatal herpes simplex infection through delivery. Management depends on whether it is first episode or recurrent.

Primary before 28 weeks = aciclovir then regular prophylactic aciclovir starting from 36 weeks gestation onwards to reduce the risk of genital lesions during labour and delivery. Women that are asymptomatic at delivery can have a vaginal delivery (provided it is more than six weeks after the initial infection). Caesarean section is recommended when symptoms are present.

Primary after 28 weeks = aciclovir during the initial infection followed immediately by regular prophylactic aciclovir. Caesarean section is recommended in all cases to reduce the risk of neonatal infection.

Recurrent carries a low risk of neonatal infection (0-3%), even if the lesions are present during delivery. Regular prophylactic aciclovir is considered from 36 weeks gestation to reduce the risk of symptoms at the time of delivery.

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61
Q

What causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum. This bacteria is a spirochete, a type of spiral-shaped bacteria. The bacteria gets in through skin or mucous membranes, replicates and then disseminates throughout the body. It is mainly a sexually transmitted infection. The incubation period between the initial infection and symptoms is 21 days on average.

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62
Q

How is syphilis spread?

A

Oral, vaginal or anal sex involving direct contact with an infected area
Vertical transmission from mother to baby during pregnancy
Intravenous drug use
Blood transfusions and other transplants

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63
Q

What is primary syphilis?

A

a papule will appear before ulcerating into a chancre. A chancre is a painless ulcer and typically develops 9-90 days post infection on a genital site. Usually singular, hard and non-itchy. However, chancres may be atypical in that they can appear at other sites e.g. oral, be multiple and painful. Classically chancres heal within 3-10 weeks with or without symptoms but may persist during secondary syphilis.

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64
Q

What is secondary syphilis?

A

Occurs 4-10 weeks after primary infection. It typically presents with a maculopapular symmetrical rash on the palms, legs, soles and face which is not itchy or painful. There also may be fever, malaise, arthralgia, weight loss, headaches and painless lymphadenopathy. Other less common features include malaise, fever, hepatitis, glomerulonephritis and neurological complications.

Condylomata lata- elevated plaques like warts at moist areas of skin e.g. inner thighs, anogenital region, axillae
Moth eaten alopecia
Mucus patches (snail tract lesions)
Silvery-gray mucous membrane lesions – oral, pharyngeal, genital

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65
Q

What is latent syphilis?

A

Latent syphilis occurs after the secondary stage of syphilis, where symptoms disappear and the patient becomes asymptomatic despite still being infected. Early latent syphilis occurs within two years of the initial infection, and late latent syphilis occurs from two years after the initial infection onwards.

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66
Q

What is tertiary syphilis?

A

Can occur many years after the initial infection and affect many organs of the body as gummatous, cardiovascular or neurological syphilis.

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67
Q

What is gummatous syphilis?

A

Granulomas can form in bone, skin, mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract, mouth and viscera or connective tissue e.g. lung, liver, testis. Patients at this stage are non-infectious. Signs and symptoms vary according to the tissue affected.

68
Q

How does neurosyphilis present?

A

Tabes dorsalis – ataxia, numb legs, absence of deep tendon reflexes, lightning pains, loss of pain and temperature sensation, skin and joint damage.
Dementia – cognitive impairment, mood alterations, psychosis.
Meningovascular complications – cranial nerve palsies, stroke, cerebral gummas.
Argyll Robertson pupil – pupil is constricted and unreactive to light, but reacts to accommodation.

69
Q

How does cardiovascular syphilis present?

A

Aortic regurgitation due to aortic valvulitis (diastolic murmur), also aortic root dilatation.
Angina due to stenosis of the coronary ostia.
Dilation and calcification of the ascending aorta.

70
Q

How does congenital syphilis present?

A

Early: presenting < 2 years after birth. Typically presents with rash, haemorrhagic rhinitis (‘bloody snuffles’), lymphadenopathy, skeletal changes and hepatosplenomegaly. Many other features can be present.

Late: presenting > 2 years after birth. Persistent inflammation predominantly affects bones and teeth leading to characteristic features.

71
Q

What are the characteristic features of late presenting congenital syphilis?

A

Saddle nose: nasal septum destruction
Saber shins: bowing of tibia from chronic inflammation
Clutton’s joints: symmetrical joint swelling. Most commonly the knees
Hutchinson’s teeth: widely spaced and notched upper incisors
Mulberry molars: molar teeth with too many cusps

72
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

Dark ground microscopy of chancre fluid- detects spirochaete in primary syphilis

PCR testing of swab from active lesion

Serology:
- Treponemal tests – assess for exposure to treponemes (NB not necessarily syphilis)
1. Treponemal ELISA (IgG/IgM) – remains positive for life
2. TPPA or TPHA – remain positive for life

  • Non-treponemal tests:
    RPR/VDRL: rises in early disease; falling titres indicate successful treatment or progression to late disease. False positives can occur in inflammatory conditions or during pregnancy.
  • Lumbar puncture: CSF antibody tests in neurosyphilis
73
Q

How do rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) work?

A

non-specific but sensitive tests used to assess for active syphilis infection. These tests assess the quantity of antibodies being produced by the body to an infection with syphilis. A higher number indicates a greater chance of active disease. These tests involve introducing a sample of serum to a solution containing antigens and assessing the reaction. A more significant reaction suggests a higher quantity of antibodies. The tests are non-specific, meaning they often produce false-positive results.

74
Q

How are the tests for syphilis interpreted?

A

A positive EIA with a non reactive RPR and a non reactive TPPA is a most likely a false positive EIA result. If clinical history suggests a risk for syphilis the EIA should be repeated in 3-4 weeks.

A positive EIA with a non reactive RPR and a positive TPPA is consistent with treated syphilis.

The diagnosis should not be made on the basis of one clinical test result. The entire clinical picture should be considered, including symptoms and history.

75
Q

How is syphilis managed?

A

Full screening for other STIs
Advice about avoiding sexual activity until treated
Contact tracing
Prevention of future infections

A single deep intramuscular dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin) is the standard treatment for syphilis.

Other drugs may need to be added depending on the stage.

76
Q

What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction?

A

The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is a potential reaction to penicillin treatment in syphilis infection, characterised by fever, rash, rigors and tachycardia.

It is thought that as the bacteria are lysed by the antibiotic, they secrete an endotoxin which can cause an inflammatory response

77
Q

How is a Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction managed?

A

Supportive measures are all that is required, unless a patient has cardiovascular or neurosyphilis, in which case oral steroids should be administered prior to antibiotics to reduce the risk of an acute localised inflammatory reaction.

78
Q

What is chacroid and what causes it?

A

Chancroid is an infection of the genital skin caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is a highly infective gram negative bacilli and typically produces a painful, potentially necrotic genital lesion. Associated symptoms include painful lymphadenopathy and bleeding on contact.

79
Q

How does chancroid present?

A
  • Painful papules: early lesion that deteriorates into pustule then ulcer.
  • Ulcers: typically deep, painful and purulent with a ragged edge. Easily bleed when touched
  • Painful and unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy
  • Buboe: infected, painful lymphadenitis that ulcerates and becomes suppurative. Can cause chronic draining sinuses.
80
Q

How is chancroid diagnosed?

A

Microscopy and culture
NAAT
Serology
Ask about travel history to tropical areas and greenland

81
Q

How is chancroid managed?

A

GUM referral
Abstain
Contact tracing

Single dose of Azithromycin 1 g orally or Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM. In HIV patients ciprofloxacin or erythromycin are preferred.

82
Q

What causes genital warts?

A

Genital warts are caused by human papilloma virus, with 90% being caused by serotypes 6 and 11. They are spread by skin to skin contact causing cauliflower-like lesions known as condylomata, which are typically painless and occur on moist surface

83
Q

How do genital warts present?

A

painless lumps which are either keratinised or non-keratinised. They present on areas that are traumatised during sexual intercourse.

Can also be asymptomatic, new growth or lump, local irritation, bleeding and discomfort around the lesion

84
Q

How are genital warts diagnosed?

A

Usually a clinical diagnosis after examination
Refer to GUM for full STI screen
Atypical lesions that do not respond to treatment should be biopsied in case of malignancy

85
Q

How are genital warts managed?

A

Advise to use condoms, stop smoking, get current partner tested but contact tracing isn’t needed, psychological counselling may be needed

  • Topical agents: Podophyllotoxin cream 0.15%, Imiquimod cream 5%, trichloroacetic acid (TCA)
  • Surgical intervention: Cryotherapy, Electrocautery, Excision
  • Other: 5-Fluorouracil, interferon therapy, laser or photodynamic therapy
86
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

Molluscum contagiosum is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV), a member of the the poxvirus family. It is transmitted by skin to skin contact.

87
Q

How does molluscum contagiosum present?

A

The lesions can be described as small, smooth, pearly coloured papules with a central area of umbilication

They can occur anywhere on the body, but commonly occur on the genitals. In immunocompromised patients, lesions can be found to be extra-genital, particularly on the face

Diagnosis is made using visual inspection plus full STI screen.

88
Q

How is molluscum contagiosum managed?

A

It is usual for the infection to clear spontaneously within 18 months, however if the patient is caused distress due to cosmetic reasons, the patient may be offered cryotherapy to remove the lesions.

89
Q

What is granuloma inguinale caused by? What is the epidemiology? How does it present? How is it diagnosed and managed?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis, higher incidence in tropical countries like Papua New Guinea.

Beefy red papules/nodules, ulcers, lymphadenopathy and lymphoedema

Usually a clinical diagnosis but can be confirmed with a tissue sample showing Donovan bodies. Plus full STI screen.

Managed with 3 week course of Azithromycin

90
Q

What is Pediculosis pubis?
How is transmitted?
How does it present?
How is it diagnosed?
How is it managed?

A

Pubic lice infection by Phthirus pubis (crab louse), usually seen in teens and young adults

Direct contact with an infected areas (genital region or contaminated clothing) leads to transmission.

Pruritus, visible lice, small bluish macules due to prolonged infestation and injection of natural anticoagulant from lice saliva during feeding and lymphadenopathy (rarely)

Ix - direct visualisation with naked eye or microscopic exam plus full STI screen

Mx - nit comb, abstain, contact tracing, wash bedding and use permethrin 1% cream.

91
Q

What is the epidemiology of breast cancer?

A

It is the most common malignancy in women, affecting 1 in 8 women

92
Q

What are the RF for breast cancer?

A

Female gender
Age
Family history
Personal history of breast cancer
Genetic predispositions (e.g. BRCA 1, BRCA 2)
Early menarche and late menopause
Nulliparity
Increased age of first pregnancy
Multiparity (risk increased in period after birth, then protective later in life)
Combined oral contraceptive (still debated, effect likely minimal if present)
Hormone replacement therapy
White ethnicity
Exposure to radiation

93
Q

What genetic mutations increase risk of breast cancer?

A

BRCA 1: Caused by a mutation on chromosome 17 that predisposes patients to breast cancer amongst other malignancies. The lifetime risk of breast cancer is approximately 65-80% whilst the risk of ovarian cancer is 40-45%. More likely to give high grade triple -

BRCA 2: Caused by a mutation on chromosome 13 that predisposes patients to breast cancer amongst other malignancies. The lifetime risk of breast cancer is approximately 45-70% whilst the risk of ovarian cancer is 11-25%. More likely to give oestrogen and progesterone receptor tumours. Men w BRCA 2 have higher risk than men w BRCA 1. Also increases risk of other cancers; peritoneal, endometrial, fallopian, pancreatic and prostate cancer.

Others: TP53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome). PTEN, MLH1, MLH2, and STK11.

94
Q

What is ductal carcinoma?

A

Most common form of breast tumour (75%)
Abnormal proliferation of ductal cells
The grade is considered higher as the ductal cells lose their acinar structure and their nuclei become abnormally large
If the basement membrane is NOT BREACHED then it is considered ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) - good prognosis

95
Q

What are the 5 histological types of DCIS?

A

comedo, cribriform, micropapillary, papillary, and solid types, however most lesions are mixed.

96
Q

What is lobular carcinoma?

A

Just as with ductal carcinomas, it can be in situ or invasive

Makes up about 15% of breast cancers
More likely to be bilateral and multi-centric
Abnormal proliferation of lobular cells, which arrange themselves in single rows.
Due to the sparse distribution of the tumour cells, they are frequently impalpable or not appreciable as a discrete lump
If the basement membrane is NOT BREACHED then it is considered lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS). These are frequently multifocal and impalpable. Not very common.

97
Q

What molecular subtypes can invasive breast cancers be split into?

A

Luminal A
Luminal B
Basal
HER2

98
Q

What is medullary breast cancer?

A

More common in younger patients and those with BRCA1 mutations
Composed of solid sheets of anaplastic cells with large pleomorphic nuclei, prominent nucleoli and frequent mitoses
There is also often significant lymphocytic infiltration surrounding the tumour
Often has a better prognosis than ductal tumours.

99
Q

What is a phyllodes tumour?

A

This is rare (1% of breast tumours)
Composed of epithelial and stromal tissue which grows in a “leaf-like” pattern
Also called cystosarcoma phyllodes
Can mimic fibroadenoma but grows faster and is seen in older women
Most (75%) are benign, with 25% being malignant

100
Q

What is a phyllodes tumour?

A

This is rare (1% of breast tumours)
Composed of epithelial and stromal tissue which grows in a “leaf-like” pattern (fibroepithelial tumour)
Also called cystosarcoma phyllodes
Can mimic fibroadenoma but grows faster and is seen in older women (40/50)
Most (75%) are benign, with 25% being malignant

101
Q

How does a malignant phyllodes tumour present?

A

Commonly present with a smooth, hard, palpable breast mass which may sometimes be seen as a smooth bulge under the skin of the breast
In advanced cancer, may present with an ulcer on the breast
Can be aggressive and can grow quickly to a very large size (although they rarely metastasise).

102
Q

What features differentiate fibroadenoma from phyllodes tumour?

A

Phyllodes affects older women and progresses more rapidly

103
Q

What is inflammatory breast cancer?

A

1-3% of breast cancers
Presents similarly to a breast abscess or mastitis
Swollen, warm, tender breast with pitting skin (peau d’orange)
Does not respond to antibiotics
Worse prognosis than other breast cancers

104
Q

What is Paget’s Disease of the Nipple?

A

Looks like eczema of the nipple/areolar
Erythematous, scaly rash
Nipple discharge which may be bloody
Burning sensation, increased sensitivity or pain
Nipple changes such as nipple retraction or inversion
In some cases there may be a palpable breast lump
There may be a skin ulcer which does not heal

Indicates breast cancer involving the nipple
May represent DCIS or invasive breast cancer
Requires biopsy, staging and treatment, as with any other invasive breast cancer

105
Q

Describe the UK Breast Screening Programme

A

Every woman (including transwomen on hormones) and trans men who have breast tissue are invited for screening every 3 years from 50-70 years of age, can self refer every 3 years after 70. A mammogram is taken (x-ray) and will be classed as satisfactory, abnormal or unclear. X rays taken in the caudal-cranial (CC) and mediolateral oblique (MLO) views.

106
Q

What are the benefits of breast screening?

A

Early detection of cancers
Approximately 20% reduction in relative risk of death from breast cancer
Can provide peace of mind for some patients

107
Q

What are the risks of breast screening?

A

Mammograms are painful and felt to be undignified by some
Screening is not 100% sensitive and some cancers are missed (i.e. false negatives)
Some research suggests that for every 2000 women screened for 10 years, 1 life is saved and 10 healthy patients are treated unnecessarily
False positive results can be emotionally distressing for patients

108
Q

Do women with high risk of breast cancer go through the normal breast screening programme?

A

No there are different recommendations for women with a high genetic/familial risk. The following may be reason to refer for genetic screening:

One first degree relative with breast cancer diagnosed before 40 years old
Any male first degree relative with breast cancer (any age)
One first degree relative with bilateral breast cancer the first of which was diagnosed <50 years old
Two first degree, or one first and one second degree relative with breast cancer at any age
One first/second degree relative with breast cancer and another first/second degree relative with ovarian cancer (any age)
Three first/second degree relatives with breast cancer (any age)

If positive then they may be offered annual screening, genetic counselling, chemoprevention or risk reducing surgery

109
Q

How does breast cancer present?

A

Breast and/or axillary lump (irregular, hard, fixed)
Breast pain
Breast skin changes (tethering, oedema, Peau d’orange)
Nipples changes (Inversion, discharge, especially if bloody, dilated veins)
Lymphadenopathy

Signs of metastatic disease

110
Q

When would you refer a patient for a 2WW referral for breast cancer?

A

An unexplained breast or axillary lump in patients aged 30 or above
Unilateral nipple changes in patients aged 50 or above (discharge, retraction or other changes)
Skin changes suggestive of breast cancer

The NICE guidelines suggest considering non-urgent referral for unexplained breast lumps in patients under 30 years.

111
Q

When a referral has been made to breast services for suspected cancer, how are patients reviewed?

A

Triple assessment
1. Clinical examination: of the breast and surrounding lymph nodes
2. Radiological examination: most commonly mammography but can also involve breast ultrasound and MRI
3. Biopsy: typically a core needle biopsy or fine needle aspirate (FNA)

If there’s suspicion on the imaging then may opt for core needle over fine needle because it gives histology as well as cytology

112
Q

When may ultrasound be used instead of mammograms for imaging the breasts?

A

Younger women generally have more dense breasts with more glandular tissue. Ultrasound scans are typically used to assess lumps in younger women (e.g., under 30 years). They are helpful in distinguishing solid lumps (e.g., fibroadenoma or cancer) from cystic (fluid-filled) lumps. However mammograms are better at picking up on calcifications.

113
Q

How is breast cancer staged?

A

TNM

T 0-4
N 0-3
M 0-1

114
Q

If someone is diagnosed with breast cancer, what management options are they offered?

A

Ultrasound scan and biopsy of axillary lymph nodes

Gene expression profiling suggested for women with early breast cancers that are ER positive but HER2 and lymph node negative.

Surgical - WLE, Sentinel node biopsy, axillary node clearance, mastectomy, reconstruction

Radiotherapy - Almost all patients with WLE will have adjuvant radiotherapy and also mastectomy patients with higher cancer stages (i.e. T3 or 4 or positive nodes)

Chemotherapy - can be given to hormone receptor negative and HER2 over-expressing patients and sometimes neoadjuvant chemotherapy given to downstage tumours before surgery.

115
Q

Where does breast cancer normally metastasise to?

A

L – Lungs
L – Liver
B – Bones
B – Brain

2Ls 2 Bs

116
Q

What are non-surgical management options for lymphoedema?

A

Massage techniques to manually drain the lymphatic system (manual lymphatic drainage)
Compression bandages
Specific lymphoedema exercises to improve lymph drainage
Weight loss if overweight
Good skin care

117
Q

What medication is given to a premenopausal women with ER positive breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen = Pro-drug that is metabolised into active compounds (afimoxifene and endoxifen) which are competitive oestrogen receptor antagonists. Current recommendation is 5 years of Tamoxifen therapy following surgical treatment of oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer in premenopausal women.

118
Q

What medication is given to a postmenopausal woman with ER + breast cancer?

A

Letrozole or Anastrozole = aromatase inhibitors which prevent the synthesis of oestrogen. Take this for 5 years following surgical treatment of oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer for postmenopausal women.

119
Q

What are the side effects of Tamoxifen?

A

Hot flushes
Nausea
Vaginal bleeding and discharge
Weight gain
Increased risk of DVT/PE
Increased risk of endometrial cancer – the drug is a weak agonist on endometrial tissue
Other inadvertent beneficial effects includes reduced risk of cardiovascular disease and osteoporosis.

120
Q

What are the side effects of Letrozole and Anastrozole?

A

Hypo-oestrogenism – hot flushes, fatigue, osteoporosis

121
Q

What medication is given to women with HER2 + breast cancer?

A

Transtuzumab (Herceptin) = A monoclonal antibody against the HER2 receptor. Often given weekly with chemotherapy or 3-weekly following surgery.

122
Q

What are the side effects of Herceptin?

A

Cardiac dysfunction – including heart failure
Teratogenicity

123
Q

What other treatments can be offered to someone with ER+ cancer other than tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors?

A

Fulvestrant (selective oestrogen receptor downregulator)
GnRH agonists (e.g., goserelin or leuprorelin)
Ovarian surgery

124
Q

Which medications may be given to women with HER2 + cancer other than Herceptin?

A

Pertuzumab (Perjeta) is another monoclonal antibody that targets the HER2 receptor
Neratinib (Nerlynx) is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor

125
Q

What follow up is recommended after breast cancer treatment?

A

Yearly mammograms for 5 years, longer if they are younger than the screening age

126
Q

What are the options for reconstruction after breast surgery?

A

Implants, lattisimus dorsi flaps, Transverse Rectus Abdominis Flap (TRAM Flap), Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator Flap (DIEP Flap)

127
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A
  • common benign tumours of stromal/epithelial breast duct tissue. T
  • small and mobile within the breast tissue. They are sometimes called a “breast mouse”, as they move around within the breast tissue.
  • They are more common in younger women, aged between 20 and 40 years bcos they respond to oestrogen and progesterone and regress after menopause
128
Q

How do fibroadenomas present?

A

Painless, smooth, round, well circumscribed, firm, mobile and up to 3cm diameter

129
Q

Are fibroadenomas pre-cancerous?

A

not cancerous or associated with an increased risk of developing breast cancer. Complex fibroadenomas and a positive family history of breast cancer may indicate a higher risk.

130
Q

How are fibroadenomas investigated and managed?

A

Often referred for triple assessment to rule out more sinister pathology. Can be managed conservatively as they will regress after menopause or can be excised.

131
Q

What is fibrocystic breast disease?

A
  • Most common benign breast disease
  • 20-50 year olds
  • Breast tissue responds to oestrogen and progesterone becoming fibrous and cystic and fluctuate with the menstrual cycle.
  • Symptoms often occur prior to menstruating (within 10 days) and resolve once menstruation begins. Symptoms usually improve or resolve after menopause.
132
Q

How does fibrocystic breast disease present?

A

Bilateral “lumpy” breasts – most commonly in upper outer quadrant, mastalgia and symptoms which worsen with the menstrual cycle – normally peaking 1 week before menstruation

133
Q

If a diagnosis of fibrocystic disease has been confirmed then what management options are there?

A

Wearing a supportive bra
NSAIDs
Avoiding caffeine
Applying heat to the area
Hormonal treatments (e.g., danazol and tamoxifen) under specialist guidance

134
Q

What are breast cysts?
How do they present?
How are they assessed?
How are they managed?
Do they increase risk of cancer?

A
  • benign, individual, fluid-filled lumps
  • most often between ages 30 and 50, more so in the perimenopausal period.
  • Can be painful and may fluctuate in size over the menstrual cycle. They’re smooth, well-circumscribed, mobile
  • Need to exclude cancer, with imaging and aspiration or excision.
  • Aspiration can resolve symptoms in patients with pain. - Having a breast cyst may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.
135
Q

What is fat necrosis?
How does it present?
How is it diagnosed?
How is it treated?

A
  • a benign lump caused by localised trauma, radiotherapy or surgery, with an inflammatory reaction resulting in fibrosis and necrosis. May be due to oil cyst.
  • Painless, firm, irregular, fixed in local structures, skin dimpling or nipple inversion, overlying skin may be inflamed or bruised
  • Need triple assessment to rule out cancer as it can appear cancerous on imaging
  • Usually treated conservatively, can spontaneously resolve or be excised
136
Q

What are lipomas?
How do they present?
How are they managed?

A
  • Benign tumours of adipose tissue that can occur anywhere on the body where there is fat
  • Typically soft, painless, mobile, do not cause skin changes
  • They are typically treated conservatively with reassurance. Alternatively, they can be surgically removed if rapidly growing, causing symptomatic compressive symptoms or aesthetic concerns.
137
Q

What is a galactocele?

A
  • occur in women that are lactating often after stopping breastfeeding.
  • They are breast milk filled cysts that occur when the lactiferous duct is blocked, preventing the gland from draining milk.
  • Firm, mobile, painless lump, usually beneath the areola.
  • Benign and usually resolve without any treatment. You can drain them with a needle. Rarely, they can become infected and require antibiotics.
138
Q

What is cyclical mastalgia?

A
  • Common and related to hormonal fluctuations, usually happens 2 weeks before period and settles during
  • Presents with bilateral and generalised heaviness and aching and possibly other symptoms of PMS such as low mood, bloating, fatigue or headaches
139
Q

What is non-cyclical breast pain?

A
  • Non-cyclical breast pain is more common in women aged 40 – 50 years.
  • More likely to be localised than cyclical breast pain.
  • Often no cause is found but can be caused by medications (hormonal contraceptive medications), infection (mastitis) or pregnancy
  • May be originating from chest wall (costochondritis) or skin (shingles or post-herpetic neuralgia)
140
Q

How is breast pain diagnosed?

A

A breast pain diary can help diagnose cyclical breast pain.
Need to exclude cancer (perform a thorough history and examination), infection and pregnancy (perform a pregnancy test)

141
Q

What is mastitis?

A

Mastitis describes inflammation of the breast tissue, both acute or chronic. Usually caused by S. Aureus, but can occasionally be granulomatous.

142
Q

What are the types of mastitis?

A

Lactational mastitis (more common) in 1/3 breastfeeding women; it usually presents during the first 3 months of breastfeeding or during weaning. Presents with cracked nipples and milk stasis (often caused by poor feeding technique), and is more common with the first child

Non-lactational mastitis (less common) can also occur, especially in women with other conditions such as duct ectasia, as a peri-ductal mastitis. Tobacco smoking is an important risk factor, causing damage to the sub-areolar duct walls and predisposing to bacterial infection

143
Q

How does mastitis present?

A

Breast pain and tenderness (unilateral)
Erythema in a focal area of breast tissue
Local warmth and inflammation
Nipple discharge
Systemic e.g. fever, rigors, myalgia, fatigue, nausea and headache
May be development of a breast abscess which presents as a fluctuant, tender mass with overlying erythema

144
Q

How is mastitis managed?

A
  • Reassure lactating women that they can continue to breastfeed
  • Advise on methods to facilitate milk removal e.g. manual expression
  • Analgesia
  • Consider a course of oral antibiotics according to local protocol if they do not improve after 12-24 hours.
  • Those which have developed into a breast abscess may require needle aspiration (or less commonly incision and drainage)
  • Cessation of breastfeeding using dopamine agonists (such as Cabergoline) can be considered in women with persistent or multiple areas of infection.
145
Q

What antibiotics should you prescribe for mastitis?

A

Lactational - flucloxacillin or erythromycin/clarithromycin where there is penicillin allergy

Non-Lactational - Broad spec e.g. Co-amoxiclav
Erythromycin/clarithromycin (macrolides) plus metronidazole (to cover anaerobes)

146
Q

What is a complication of non-lactational abcess?

A

An important complication of drainage of a non-lactational abscess is the formation of a mammary duct fistula (a communication between the skin and a subareolar breast duct), which, whilst they can be managed surgically with a fistulectomy and antibiotics, can often recur.

147
Q

What is candida of the nipple?
How does it present?
How is it managed?

A

Candidal infection of the nipple often happens after a course of antibiotics. This can lead to recurrent mastitis, as it causes cracked skin on the nipple that creates an entrance for infection. It is associated with oral thrush and candidal nappy rash in the infant.

Sore nipples bilaterally, particularly after feeding
Nipple tenderness and itching
Cracked, flaky or shiny areola
Symptoms in the baby, such as white patches in the mouth and on the tongue, or candidal nappy rash

Topical miconazole 2% to the nipple, after each breastfeed
Treatment for the baby (e.g., oral miconazole gel or nystatin)

148
Q

How does a breast abscess present?

A

The key feature that suggests a breast abscess is a swollen, fluctuant, tender lump within the breast.

Nipple changes, purulent nipple discharge (pus from the nipple), localised pain, tenderness, warmth, erythema (redness), hardening of the skin or breast tissue, swelling

Systemic symptoms = muscle aches, fatigue, fever, signs of sepsis (e.g., tachycardia, raised respiratory rate and confusion)

149
Q

How is a breast abscess diagnosed and managed?

A

A suspected abscess can be confirmed via an ultrasound scan if there is any doubt regarding the diagnosis.

Referral to the on-call surgical team in the hospital for management
Antibiotics
Drainage (needle aspiration or surgical incision and drainage)
Microscopy, culture and sensitivities of the drained fluid

150
Q

What is mammary duct ectasia?

A

A palpable, peri-areolar breast mass caused by inflammation and dilation of the large breast ducts. It commonly presents with thick yellow, green or brown nipple discharge bilaterally. It may mimic the appearance of cancer on mammography.

Occurs most frequently in perimenopausal women. Smoking is a significant risk factor.

151
Q

How does mammary duct ectasia present?

A

Nipple discharge
Tenderness or pain
Nipple retraction or inversion
A breast lump (pressure on the lump may produce nipple discharge)
It may be picked up incidentally on a mammogram, leading to further assessment and investigations.

152
Q

How is mammary duct ectasia diagnosed?

A

Triple assessment - Microcalcifications are a key finding on a mammogram but not specific to mammary duct ectasia. May show multiple plasma cells on biopsy.

Other Ix:
Ductography – contrast is injected into an abnormal duct, and mammograms are performed to visualise the duct
Nipple discharge cytology – examining the cells in a sample of the nipple discharge
Ductoscopy – inserting a tiny endoscope (camera) into the duct

153
Q

How is mammary duct ectasia?

A
  • Mammary duct ectasia may resolve spontaneously
  • Not associated with an increased risk of cancer.

Management depends on the individual:
- Reassurance after excluding cancer may be all that is required
- Symptomatic management of mastalgia (supportive bra and warm compresses)
- Antibiotics if infection is suspected or present
- Surgical excision of the affected duct (microdochectomy) may be required in problematic cases

154
Q

What is a radial scar?

A

Radial scar is a benign sclerosing breast lesion which presents as a stellate pattern of central scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue on mammogram.

155
Q

What is intraductal papilloma?

A

A warty lesion that grows within one of the ducts in the breast usually growing in the sub-areolar region. It is the result of the proliferation of epithelial cells. The typical presentation is with clear or blood-stained nipple discharge in a woman in her 40/50s

Intraductal papillomas are benign tumours; however, they can be associated with atypical hyperplasia or breast cancer.

156
Q

How does intraductal papilloma present?

A

Intraductal papillomas can occur at any age, but most often occur between 35-55 years.

  • Often asymptomatic, may be picked up incidentally on mammograms or ultrasound.
  • Nipple discharge (clear or blood-stained)
  • Tenderness or pain
  • A palpable lump
157
Q

How is intraductal papilloma diagnosed and managed?

A
  • Triple assessment
  • Ductography = injecting contrast into the abnormal duct and performing mammograms to visualise that duct. The papilloma will be seen as an area that does not fill with contrast (a “filling defect”).

Mx = Intraductal papillomas require complete surgical excision. After removal, the tissue is examined for atypical hyperplasia or cancer that may not have been picked up on the biopsy.

158
Q

What is gynaecomastia?

A

Gynaecomastia refers to the enlargement of the glandular breast tissue in males. Male breast enlargement is relatively common, particularly in adolescents and older men (aged over 50 years). It may also be present in newborns due to circulating maternal hormones, resolving as the maternal hormones are cleared.

159
Q

What are the causes of gynaecomastia?

A

High prolactin - dopamine antagonists + prolactinoma

Idiopathic
Drug induced

High oestrogen:
Obesity (aromatase is an enzyme found in adipose tissue that converts androgens to oestrogen)
Testicular cancer (oestrogen secretion from a Leydig cell tumour)
Liver cirrhosis and liver failure
Hyperthyroidism
Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) secreting tumour, notably small cell lung cancer
Physiological in teens when oestrogen is high

Low Testosterone:
Testosterone deficiency in older age
Hypothalamus or pituitary conditions that reduce LH and FSH levels (e.g., tumours, radiotherapy or surgery)
Klinefelter syndrome (XXY sex chromosomes)
Orchitis (inflammation of the testicles, e.g., infection with mumps)
Testicular damage (e.g., secondary to trauma or torsion)

160
Q

What drugs can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Anabolic steroids (raise oestrogen levels)
Antipsychotics (increase prolactin levels)
Digoxin (stimulates oestrogen receptors)
Spironolactone (inhibits testosterone production and blocks testosterone receptors)
Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (e.g., goserelin used to treat prostate cancer)
Opiates (e.g., illicit heroin use)
Marijuana
Alcohol

161
Q

How is gynaecomastia investigated?

A

Simple gynaecomastia in an otherwise healthy adolescent may be managed with watchful waiting. Unexplained rapid-onset gynaecomastia in a 30 year old male with no apparent cause may require in-depth investigations.

Blood tests:
Renal profile (U&Es)
Liver function tests (LFTs)
Thyroid function tests (TFTs)
Testosterone
Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)
Oestrogen
Prolactin (hyperprolactinaemia)
Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Alpha-fetoprotein and beta-hCG (testicular cancer)
Genetic karyotyping (if Klinefelter’s syndrome is suspected)

Imaging:
Breast ultrasound (may help assess the extent of gynaecomastia)
Mammogram (if cancer is suspected)
Biopsy (if cancer is suspected)
Testicular ultrasound (if cancer is suspected)
Chest x-ray (if lung cancer is suspected)

162
Q

How is gynaecomastia managed?

A

Treta cause

Treatment options in problematic cases (e.g., pain or psychological distress) include:
Tamoxifen (a selective oestrogen receptor modulator that reduces the effect of oestrogen on the breast tissue)
Surgery

163
Q

What is galactorrhoea?

A

Galactorrhoea refers to breast milk production not associated with pregnancy or breastfeeding.

164
Q

What are the causes of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Idiopathic (no cause can be found)
Prolactinomas (hormone-secreting pituitary tumours)
Endocrine disorders, particularly hypothyroidism and polycystic ovarian syndrome
Medications, particularly dopamine antagonists (i.e., antipsychotic medications)

165
Q

How is galactorrhea investigated?

A

A pregnancy test in women of childbearing age

Bloods:
Serum prolactin
Renal profile (U&Es)
Liver function tests (LFTs)
Thyroid function tests (TFTs)

MRI for pituitary tumours

166
Q

How is galactorrhea managed?

A

Treat underlying cause

Dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine or cabergoline) block prolactin secretion and improve symptoms.

Trans-sphenoidal surgical removal of the pituitary tumour is the definitive treatment of prolactinoma.