Gynaecological pathology Flashcards
DX:
CIN II
NB: cytoplasmic maturation in upper 1/3 and abrupt transition from dysplastic sqamous epithelium to benign columnar epithelium.
DX:
Histol features:
DX: CIN II/HSIL
Histo features: diffuse nuclear enlargement, hyperchromasia, and membrane irregularities with persistent cytoplasmic maturation at the upper 1/3 of the epithelium, consistent with HSIL/CIN II. Note the increased mitotic activity in the lower and middle thirds.
DX:
Histo features:
DX: CIN III
Histo features: A low magnification showing HSIL/CIN III involving the underlying endocervical glands. Notice that the involved glands have smooth, round borders and lack a desmoplastic stromal reaction, features not typical of invasive SCC.
Dx:
Key histol features?
Dx: HSIL/CIN III
Histo: Lacks maturation
DX:
Histo features:
DX: CIN III
Histo features: HSIL with superficial keratinization. Note the diffuse nuclear atypia and increased mitotic activity throughout all layers of the epithelium.
DX:
Features:
DX: HSIL/CIN II (upper half) and invasive SCC lower half.
Histo features:
- Diffuse basaloid appearance (CIN III)
- Reverse maturation (invasive SCC)
A lesion looks like HSIL/LSIL. Name other Ddx.
Reactive squamous epithelium
Immature squamous metaplasia and atrophy
Pseudostratified mucinous intraepethilial lesion
Adenosquamous carcinoma in situ
Placental implantation site/plaque
Early invasive SCC
Dx:
Histo features:
Dx: LSIL
Features: Hyperchromatic nuclei and perinuclear halos with irregular contours in the upper layers
DX:
Histo features:
Dx: HSIL
Histo: full thickness loss of maturation and atypia. Mitoses seen across all layers. Apoptoses seen (arrow)
Cervix
Dx:
Dx: Immature exophytic LSIL
Slender Papillae and Surface Maturation
Immature exophytic LSIL is composed of slender papillae with some surface maturation.
Dx:
Dx: basal atypia with abnormal mitoses indicative of HSIL
DX:
Hx:
Dx: Pseudostratified Mucinous Intraepithelial Lesion (SMILE)
Histo:
- involves the full thickness epithelium.
- at medium or high power, cells contain abundant pale cytoplasm, some with intracytoplasmic vacuoles.
Dx
Adenosquamous carcinoma
DDX for endometrial hyperplasia with atypia?
Technical artifacts
Endometrial polyp
Atypical polypoid adenomyoma
Endometrial hyperplasia without atypia
Endometrioid adenocarcinoma
Endocervical adenocarcinoma in situ (“colonization of endometrial glands”)
Serous endometrial glandular carcinoma
Describe molecular/genetic mutations wrt atypical endometrial hyperplasia?
Monoclonal expansion
Inactivation of PTEN (TSG), most frequent
Microsatellite instability (20-25%) (Lynch and Cowden syndrome)
KRAS activating mutations (~15%)
CTNNB1 mutations ( 25-30%)
MLH1 epigenetic activation (15-20%)
Dx:
Histo feature exemplified:
Dx: atypical endometrial hyperplasia with squamous metaplasia
Histo feature: Morules (squamous metaplasia)
50F bx from left ovary.
Dx?
Histo features:?
Bonus: common genetic mutation?
Dx: granulosa cell tumour
Histo: Microfollicular growth pattern (Call–Exner bodies) composed of monotonous tumour cells with nuclear grooves and folds and scant cytoplasm disposed around spaces filled with hyalinized material.
Bonus: Nearly all adult granulosa cell tumours harbour a recurrent somatic FOXL2 missense mutation
25F
Incidental finding of 1.5cm RIF well-circumscribed mass.
Dx? histo features?
Dx: Brenner tumour
Benign epithelial-stromal tumor with nests of transitional-type epithelium embedded in fibromatous stroma. The transitional type epithelium shows abundant pale to clear cytoplasm.
Which stain could you use to differentiate adult granulosa cell tumour from fibroma or thecoma?
Reticulin
Which gene is commonly mutated in adult granulosa cell tumour?
Nearly all adult granulosa cell tumours harbour a recurrent somatic FOXL2 missense mutation
Uterine lesion
Dx? IHC?
PEComa is most commonly composed of epithelioid cells with variable eosinophilic to clear cytoplasm. Shows myomelanocytic differentiation.
IHC: HMB45 (99%); SMA (80%); desmin (80%); caldesmon (76%).
TFE3 translocated associated PEComa: HMB45 and TFE3 strong and diffuse staining.
3 main algorithms have been proposed for predicting behavior Nongynecologic specific criteria (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1558): Benign: < 5 cm, noninfiltrative, no high grade atypia, mitoses ≤ 1/50 high power fields (HPFs), no necrosis, no lymphovascular invasion (LVI) Uncertain malignant potential: nuclear pleomorphism / multinucleated giant cells or > 5 cm Malignant: 2+ features (> 5 cm, noninfiltrative, high grade atypia, mitoses > 1/50 HPFs, necrosis, LVI) Gynecologic specific criteria (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:176): Benign / uncertain malignant potential: < 4 features (≥ 5 cm, high grade atypia, mitoses > 1/50 HPFs, necrosis, LVI) Malignant: ≥ 4 features Modified gynecologic specific criteria (adopted by the WHO 2020) (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:1370) Uncertain malignant potential: < 3 features (> 5 cm, high grade atypia, mitoses > 1/50 HPFs, necrosis, LVI) Malignant: ≥ 3 features Recurrences can occur years after original diagnosis
Ovarian lesion
Dx?
Criteria for subtype?
Micropapillary serous borderline tumour.
Need a minimum of 5mm to qualify as micropapillary (or cribriform subtype). Micropapillae - lining stromal cores, 5 x as long as they are wide.
What are the SET patterns of ovarian HGSC.
Describe the demographic.
Significance.
Solid, endometrioid-like, transitional.
Cases are much more frequently a/w germline BCRA 1/2 mutations (50% of cases).
These patients are generally younger (c.f conventional HGSC), are a/w lower frequency of STICK, and have more favourable prognosis.
Serous borderline tumour
Define stromal microinvasion
stromal microinvasion < 5 mm in greatest dimension in any single focus with small cell clusters / individual cells with abundant dense eosinophilic cytoplasm or small papillae within clear lacunar spaces, cytologically similar to the non-invasive component of SBT.
peritoneal bx.
Dx and description of criteria.
Epithelial-type non-invasive implants associated with ovarian serous borderline tumour
Complex papillary architecture is present within an epithelium-lined space. Non-invasive implants that display hierarchically branching papillae or detached clusters of cells not associated with stroma are designated as epithelial implants.
Name the two types of implants a/w ovarian SBT?
Epithelial and desmoplastic.
Non-invasive implants that display hierarchically branching papillae or detached clusters of cells not associated with stroma are designated as epithelial implants.
Desmoplastic implants consist of single cells or clusters of cells embedded in reactive-appearing (granulation tissue–like or fasciitis-like) or desmoplastic stroma that predominates over the epithelial component and appears tacked on to the peritoneal surface. The epithelium frequently blends into the surrounding stroma. If a desmoplastic implant is present on the ovarian surface or within the cyst of an ovarian SBT, the term “autoimplant” is used.
peritoneal biopsy. Ovarian mass.
Dx?
Criteria
Desmoplastic non-invasive implants associated with ovarian serous borderline tumour. (Low-grade simple glands with slight epithelial stratification are present within abundant desmoplastic stroma.)
How to diagnose partial hydatiform molar pregnancy?
When 3 of the following 4 features are well developed.
1. Two populations of villi (large hydropic and smaller fibrotic)
2. Enlarged, irregular, dysmorphic villi with trophoblast inclusions
3. Enlarged villi with cisterns (at least 3mm)
4. Syncytiotrophoblast hyperplasia/atypia
Partial hydatiform moles
Genetic composition?
Usually diandric triploidy (2 paternal, one maternal) or digynic (2 maternal, one paternal)
complete mole, microscopic features
No direct or indirect evidence of fetus
All villi are enlarged with central cisterns
Mixed trophoblast proliferation is circumferential but may be discontinuous
Implantation site with markedly abnormal invasive trophoblasts
Very early complete mole. Microscopic features.
No direct or indirect evidence of fetus
All villi are enlarged with central cisterns
Mixed trophoblast proliferation is circumferential but may be discontinuous
Implantation site with markedly abnormal invasive trophoblasts
Describe the silva classification and what it is use.
Subepidermal bulla
Discuss the ddx with eosinophils
Bullous pemphigoid
What does the antibody target?
BP230 (protein in hemidesmosome)
Pemphigoid gestationis
Antibody directed against which protein?
BP180 (in hemidesmosome)
Epidermolysis bullosa aquisita
antibody against which protein?
collagen VII
Subepidermal bulla with neutrophils
DDx
Bullous SLE
type of antibody against which protein
IgG against collagen VII
Cx biopsy.
Dx?
Adenocarcinoma in situ.
Essential: pseudostratified, hyperchromatic nuclei with easily identified apical mitotic figures and karyorrhexis.
P16
Which gene encodes this protein.
Mechanism of action?
Gen: Tumor suppressor protein encoded by CDKN2A gene (9p21.3)
MOA: Prevents progression into S phase of cell cycle.
Protein expression often increased in aging cells, which eventually drives cell death and apoptosis
Negative IHC in tumors with loss of p16 protein function / expression
Immunohistochemical positivity commonly considered a surrogate marker for oncogenic HPV infection
Inactivation of Rb by the viral E7 oncoprotein following viral integration into host genome leads to overexpression of p16
serous borderline ovarian tumour
Criteria for microinvasion?
Stromal microinvasion defined as < 5mm in any largest dimension.
Patterns of microinvasion include: small clusters of cells or individual cells within stroma, small papillae within clear lacunar spaces cytologically similar to the non-invasive component. No desmoplasia should be present. These cells may sometimes be within lymphatic spaces -> This pattern is diagnosed as SBT with microinvasion.
LGSC
Who dx criteria?
Essential: invasive serous tumour with small nests, glands, papillae or micropapillae, and inverted macropapillae, frequently free-floating within unlined clear spaces; low-grade cytological atypia (< 3-fold variation in nuclear size); low mitotic activity.