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Guy's Australian IFR Renewal > Guy's Renewal Questions > Flashcards

Guy's Renewal Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where would I find what aircraft equipment is required for PART 135 single Pilot IFR operations?

A

PART 135 MOS 11.07

(remember buying backwards equipment in 7/11)

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2
Q

What is PART 135?

A

Part 135 of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations (CASR) covers the air transport rules for smaller aeroplanes.

Part 135 of CASR applies to air transport operations in aeroplanes with a maximum seating capacity of nine and a maximum take-off weight (MTOW) of 8,618 kg or less.

All operators and pilots also need to comply with Part 91 of CASR General operating and flight rules, noting that Part 135 may add to or turn off some Part 91 requirements – either completely or partially.

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3
Q

What is PART 91?

A

Part 91 of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations (CASR) – General operating and flight rules, sets out the general operating rules for all pilots and operators. It consolidates all of the general operating and flight rules for Australian aircraft.

The rules cover:

documentation
flight crew and operator obligations
training
crew member obligations
safety of persons and cargo
classifications of operation
rules to prevent collision
communication
fuel
pre-flight planning and preparation
ground operations
aircraft performance and weight and balance
take-off and landing
cruising levels and minimum heights
navigation
non-controlled aerodromes
icing
special flight operations
aircraft equipment
special certificates and permits
foreign aircraft
minimum equipment list
equipment.

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4
Q

What aircraft equipment is required for PART 135 single Pilot IFR operations, and where can this be found?

A

PART 135 MOS 11.07

Lights

  • Compartment lighting for reading maps and documents
  • Compartment lighting or passengers
  • Landing lights, two, or one landing light with two bulbs or filaments
  • Instruments illumination with standby power and intensity control
  • Nav lights, anti-collision lights (beacon and/or strobes)
  • Torch for each crew member

(Remember CCLINT)

1 ATTitude indicator x2 with alternate power
2 Airspeed indicator
3 Altitude indicator, for flight in CT
4 Alternate static or two balanced flush static ports
5 Autopilot with heading and altitude hold capability. An autopilot can be U/S for flights conducted in VMC by
day.
6 Altitude alerting system.

1 PreSSure altimeter x2
2 Pitot heat
- Direction indicator with alternate power
- Outside air temperature
- GNSS

  • Means of monitoring power supply to gyroscopic instruments, if any
  • Turn (unless AI x3) and slip indicator
  • Vertical speed indicator
    1 VOR or 1 ADF
  • Compass
    -Clock or watch

(REMEMBER LAPDOG MTVC
A6, P2, C2)

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5
Q

What standard applies to the second attitude indicator?

A

The second attitude indicator must continue to work for at least 30 minutes following an electrical failure

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6
Q

What Standard Applies to the Altimeter?

A

Altimeter must be accurate to +/-60ft. Can depart if +/-75ft but check at next landing point must be +/-60ft.

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7
Q

What lights do you require for IFR?

A
  • Compartment lighting for reading maps and documents
  • Compartment lighting or passengers
  • Landing lights, two, or one landing light with two bulbs or filaments
  • Instruments illumination with standby power and intensity control
  • Nav lights, anti-collision lights (beacon and/or strobes)
  • Torch for each crew member

(Remember CCLINT)

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8
Q

The navigation equipment fitted to an aeroplane must be such that, in the event of the failure of any navigation equipment at any stage of a flight,…

A

The navigation equipment fitted to an aeroplane must be such that, in the event of the failure of any navigation equipment at any stage of a flight, sufficient navigation equipment remains to enable the aeroplane to navigate in accordance with the aeroplane’s operational flight plan and the requirements of ATS.

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9
Q

What IFR arcraft must have an altitude alerting system?

A

Pressurised turbine powered aeroplanes or other aeroplanes operating in controlled airspace above FL150
must be fitted with an altitude alerting system.
-Pressurised turbine aircraft or piston aircraft above 5700 which are required to be crewed by two pilots,
carrying pax (or aeromedical) must be fitted with a weather radar.
-Aeroplanes >5700Kg carrying pax (or aeromedical) must be fitted with GPWS (or TAWS <5700Kg).

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10
Q

What documents do you need for an IFR renewal?

A

Instrument Proficiency Check Report
License,
Logbook
Medical,
ASIC/Photo ID,

Flight plan,
fuel plan,
flight notification
weather & NOTAMs,
weight & balance,
maintenance release

(FFFWWM)

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11
Q

What are the privileges and limitations of an IFR rating?

A
  • Fly as PIC of a ME or SE aeroplane under the IFR and NVFR,
    as long as IPC is current and the relevant recency requirements are met.
  • Can only conduct a circling approach if last IPC included a circling approach.
  • IPC expires last day of month +12 months. Can do an IPC up to 3 months before expiry and still conserve
    original expiry date for following year.
  • IPC in a single covers you for SEA AFR (24 months). IPC in a twin covers you for MEA&SEA AFR (24 months).
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12
Q

What are the IFR recency requirements?

A

3 instrument approaches in the last 90 days.

1 approach in last 90 days covering required approach type (2D or 3D / CDI or AZI

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13
Q

What is the single pilot IFR recency requirement?

A

A single pilot IFR flight of
- 1h duration,
- which included 1 instrument approach,
- in last 6 months

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14
Q

What is the night IFR recency?

A

Nil. If carrying PAX, 3 TOL at night in 90 days.

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15
Q

What is the Night VFR recency?

A

You can pilot a flight under the NVFR if your IR is current.

If PAX, 3 TOL at night in 90 days

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16
Q

What are the instrument errors with a blocked pitot tube?

A

ASI no longer works as an ASI but reflects the behavior of an altimeter.
- increases in a climb, decreases in a decent.

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17
Q

What are the instrument errors with a blocked static port?

A
  • ASI under reads in climb, overreads in a decent.
  • Altimeter frozen
  • VSI reads zero feet per minute
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18
Q

What are the compass errors?

A
  • SAND

Compass shows apparent turn to the South when Accelerating, and an apparent turn to the North when
Decelerating. The effect is largest on Easterly and Westerly headings, nil on North and South

  • ONUS

To roll out on correct heading, we must Overshoot a turn onto a
Northerly heading and we must Undershoot a turn onto a
Southerly heading. By how much? On North and South, about 30°
at lower latitudes (eg. Sydney) and about 15° at higher latitudes (eg.
Darwin). On East and West, roll out on the desired heading without
correction.

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19
Q

Where can I find take off minima?

A

PART 91 MOS 15.03,

and CASR 135.180, for alternative aerodrome

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20
Q

What is the take-off minima?

A
  • Vis 2000M, Ceiling 300FT.

-With an engine failure at any time after V1, terrain clearance must be assured until reaching LSALT or MSA.

-If a return to land at the departure aerodrome will be necessary in the event of an engine failure, the
meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach landing minima for the aerodrome or
such as to allow a visual approach.

-If a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible, the aeroplane’s performance and fuel availability are
each adequate to enable the aeroplane to proceed to a suitable aerodrome, having regard to terrain,
obstacles and route distance limitations.

  • The takeoff alternate must be within 1h flight time at OEI speed, and
    the forecast for the takeoff alternate must indicate that a landing will be possible for up to 1h after departure.
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21
Q

What information must a pilot study before an IFR flight?

A

Before beginning an IFR flight, the pilot in command shall study all available information appropriate to the
intended operation.

weather forecasts and reports, NOTAMs incl. FIR NOTAMs, airways facilities, and ATC
rules appertaining to the particular flight) for the route flown and any aerodromes to be used.

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22
Q

When a forecast that is required cannot be obtained, what rule applies?

A

The flight can depart provided that the pilot is satisfied
that the weather will allow for a safe return to the departure aerodrome within one hour, and the pilot must
obtain the required forecasts within 30 minutes after departure or turn back.

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23
Q

The weather forecast for the destination and any alternate aerodromes must be valid for how long?

A

30 minutes before
to 60 minutes after the respective ETA.

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24
Q

When do INTER, TEMP and FROM periods begin and end?

A
  • INTER, TEMPO, FROM weather phenomena that introduce an operational requirement are taken to begin 30
    minutes before the time specified on the TAF (ie bad wx on TAFs always extends 30 minutes into the good wx)

-INTER, TEMPO, FROM weather phenomena that remove an operational requirement are taken to begin 30
minutes after the time specified on the TAF (ie bad wx on TAFs always extends 30 minutes into the good wx)

TAF3 are issued every 3 hours and also receive proactive amendments.
Due to increased accuracy, the 30 minute *buffers do not apply during the first 3 hours of a TAF3. Also, any
PROB30 or PROB40 for TS or reduction of visibility need not be considered

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25
Q

What factors determine if an alternative is needed?
(acronym)

A

ALTERNATES NavAids,

COULD Clouds

VERY Visibility,

WELL Wind – crosswind or downwind on runway exceeding the aeroplane’s limitations

PROVE Provisional forecast, or Probability (PROB) of any adverse conditions (see “Savers” below)

LIFE Lights

SAVERS Storms, thunderstorms, icing, fog, smoke, cyclones, dust storms, or any other forecasted wx
phenomena that would impede a safe landing at the destination aerodrome.

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26
Q

What are the alternate / aircraft equipment NavAid requirements for PART 135 operations?

A

The aeroplane should be equipped with two separate receivers (ADF, VOR/ILS, GNSS) that are both capable of
conducting an instrument approach that is available at the destination.

Note: If a TSO C129 GNSS is used and an alternate is required:
1. Navigation to the alternate should be
accomplished by ground-based navaids, and

  1. The alternate should have a suitable approach that uses
    ground-based navaids or the weather must be suitable for a visual approach

Note: If an aerodrome has a particular IAP/navaid but the pilot or aircraft is not capable of using it, for the
purposes of that flight, the aerodrome is taken to not have that IAP/navaid.

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27
Q

What Ceiling and Visibility criteria determine if an alternate is required?

A
  • Aerodrome with IAP by day/night with valid TAF: Ceiling and visibility as printed on IAP chart.
  • Aerodrome with IAP by day/night but no TAF available: Alternate required!
  • Aerodrome without IAP by day: No more than SCT cloud below last leg LSALT + 500ft and 8Km visibility (GAF).

Note: If the above non-IAP destination needs an alternate, then the alternate must have a TAF.

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28
Q

When would an alternative be required at night?

A

For an aerodrome without IAP at night.

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29
Q

What is the ceiling and visibility criteria for determining if an alternative is required for night VFR?

A

No more than SCT below 1,500’ AAL and 8Km Vis.

Note: need to be able to navigate to the destination by means of NDB, VOR, or GNSS.

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30
Q

What is Vertical Visibility is equivalent to?

A

Vertical Visibility is equivalent to overcast cloud at the specified ceiling (eg. VV010 = OVC010).

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31
Q

What needs to be in place regarding destination aerodrome lighting, so that an alternative is not required?

A

-If lighting is PAL, a responsible person to be on standby to manually turn on the lights should the system fail.

-If lighting is electrically powered there needs to be standby power to automatically engage in the event of
a power outage, or alternatively have a responsible person with portable lighting in attendance.

-The alternate requirement need not be applied if carrying holding fuel for first light +10 minutes.

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32
Q

If runway lighting is not pilot-activated, when must someone be at the aerodrome to activate the lighting?

A
  • 10 minutes before to 30 minutes after takeoff.
  • 30 minutes before arrival until completion of taxi.
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33
Q

If you require an alternate due to lighting, does the ALTERNATE require SBY PWR ?

A

no

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34
Q

If you require an alternate due to lighting and the alternate has PAL, do you require a responsible person
in attendance?

A

No, so long as you have

a) 2xVHF receivers,

or b) VHF+HF+30min holding fuel.

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35
Q

For a flight where a destination alternate did not need to be planned, if the pilot in flight receives a weather
forecast that indicates that an alternate should have been planned, can the flight continue?

A

No, if the aeroplane is not carrying
sufficient fuel to allow for the new operational requirement.

Yes, if the mentioned adverse weather forecast is received within 30 minutes of the ETA, the flight may
continue to the planned destination, but only if the forecast indicates that the weather at the destination is
above the landing minima.

CASR 135.90

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36
Q

When must a departing IFR aircraft be established on track?

A

Unless instructed by ATC or tracking via a SID, be established on the departure track within 5NM.

When not departing via a SID, terrain clearance is always pilot responsibility. Terrain clearance must be
assured until reaching LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA, including in the event of an engine failure (MEA).

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37
Q

Obstacle Clearance criteria for SID, MAP and MSA is,

A

SID: must climb at minimum 3.3% (including OEI) or as specified on the chart.

MAP: must climb at minimum 2.5% (including OEI). Provides 100ft obstacle clearance. If unable, raise MDA/DA

MSA: provides 1000ft obstacle clearance

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38
Q

Class G VFR Airspace criteria

A
  • VFR Cloud Sep - 1000ft Vertical, 1500m horizontal,
    (under 3000 feet or 1000 AGL - clear cloud and insight of terrain.
  • Visibility 5000m.
  • ATC clearance - not required.
  • ATC Separation - info only
  • VHF - required above 5000ft and at CTAF
  • Transponder required - no

Uncontrolled “General” airspace

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39
Q

Class E VFR Airspace criteria

A
  • VFR Cloud Sep - 1000ft Vertical, 1500m horizontal.
  • Visibility 5000m.
  • ATC clearance - not required.
  • ATC Separation - info only
  • VHF - continuous two way
  • Transponder required - yes

Class E airspace is all the other airspace in the country that is not denoted as Class A, B, C, or D. It fills the gaps between all other classes of airspace and is often referred to as the “Everywhere” airspace. Class E airspace is not necessarily controlled by an active local control tower.

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40
Q

Class D VFR Airspace criteria

A
  • VFR Cloud Sep - 1000ft above the cloud, 500ft below cloud. 600m horizontal.
  • Visibility 5000m.
  • ATC clearance - 2 way coms
  • ATC Separation - info only
  • VHF - continuous two way
  • Transponder required - yes

Class D airspace (for Dense Areas) is controlled airspace above smaller-scale airports, specifically designed for private pilots and smaller aircraft. These airports must have a control tower that offers weather reporting services but not radar services, which separates Class D from higher airspaces.

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41
Q

Class C VFR Airspace criteria

A
  • VFR Cloud Sep - 1000ft Vertical, 1500m horizontal.
  • Visibility 5000m.
  • ATC clearance - yes.
  • ATC Separation - info from VFR, Separation for IFR
  • VHF - continuous two way
  • Transponder required - yes

“City” airports airspace

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42
Q

What is Class A Airspace?

A

Class A “Altitude” airspace is the airspace from 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), up to and including flight level 600.
All operations must be IFR

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43
Q

What is the VFR visibility minima above 1000ft for all airspace?

A

8000m

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44
Q

What is the Special VFR criteria?

A

Clearance, Visibility 1600m, Clear of cloud. Must see ground/water when below 2000’ AGL

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45
Q

What are the Airspace requirements for IFR flights?

A
  • Transponder ADS-B for all airspace
  • Service - Class G airspace, FIS. Otherwise ACT.
  • Clearance is required in all airspace except G.

Separation
- G, info only
- E, info on VFR, separation from IFR
- D, from IFR and SVFR
- C, from all aircraft
- A, from all aircraft

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46
Q

What is an ADS-B, Mode A and Mode C transponder?

A

ADS-B, or Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast, continuously transmits and/or receives equipped aircrafts’ identification, GPS determined position, altitude, and velocity. No interrogation signal is needed for ADS-B, and this makes it different from usual transponder signals.

Mode A transponders transmit only a four-digit identifying transponder code.

Mode C transponders transmit both the transponder code and pressure altitude information when activated.

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47
Q

What are the IFR transponder codes when no code assigned?

A

OCTA 2000
CTA 3000

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48
Q

What is FSI ?

A

FIS (Flight Information Service) is a form of air traffic service which is available to any aircraft within a flight information region (FIR).

49
Q

What is RVSM airspace

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) from 2000-ft minimum to 1000-ft minimum, only within Class A airspace

50
Q

When must a pilot respond to ATC vector instructions?

A
  • Change of level must be commenced asap but no later than 1 minute of receiving instruction.
  • Change of heading must be commenced immediately (rate 1 turn or 25° whichever is less).
  • When being vectored on headings that could infringe terrain clearance of separation standards, the interval
    between ATC transmissions will not exceed 30 seconds.
51
Q

What is Vat

A

Indicated airspeed at threshold, which is usually equal to the stall speed VS0 multiplied by 1.3 or stall speed VS1g multiplied by 1.23 in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing mass,

52
Q

What is Vref ?

A

Landing reference speed or threshold crossing speed. Must be at least 1.3 VS0.

53
Q

What is Vs

A
  • Vs, stall speed
  • Vso stall in landing configuration
  • Vs1 stall speed in a specific configuration.
54
Q

What is Vmcg ?

A

Minimum control speed ground. The minimum speed that the aircraft is still controllable with the critical engine inoperative while the aircraft is on the ground.

55
Q

What is Vmca

A

Minimum control speed air. The minimum speed that the aircraft is still controllable with the critical engine inoperative while the aircraft is airborne. VMCA is sometimes simply referred to as VMC

56
Q

What is Va

A

Design maneuvering speed. This is the speed above which it is unwise to make full application of any single flight control (or “pull to the stops”) as it may generate a force greater than the aircraft’s structural limitations

57
Q

CAT A speeds

A
  • Vat, below 91 knots
  • initial approach, 90-150 kts
  • Circling, under 100 kts
  • MAP under 100 kts
58
Q

CAT B speeds

A
  • Vat, below 9-120 knots
  • initial approach, 120-180 kts
  • Circling, under 135 kts
  • MAP under 150 kts
59
Q

Capture regions criteria

A
  • Sector entry defined by arrival HEADING. S1 Parallel, S2 Offset, S3 Direct. Can choose sector entry if heading
    within 5° of boundary line.
  • Reversal approaches: Can go straight in to approach if enroute arrival track is within 30° of outbound track.
  • Where the 30° direct entry sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track, the entry sector is
    expanded to include it.
  • For RNP2D approach: 70° each side of the track for the “centre” IAF, or for other IAF, if outside the line parallel
    to final track
60
Q
A

Δ symbol means IAF.
✠ symbol means FAF for 2D approaches and FAP for 3D approaches.

Reversal approaches don’t show ✠ on chart, but the FAF is taken to be when established inbound on appr.

For a reversal approach, descent on the OB leg may commence when established on track, or turned onto a
heading to intercept the OB track. Descent on the IB leg may only commence once established on the IB track.

Straight-in instrument approaches can be offset by up to 30° of RWY centreline (15° for Cat C & D)

61
Q

What is, AAE TDZ RVR IAP

A

Above Aerodrome Elevation
Touch Down Zone
Runway Visual Range
Instrument Approach Procedure

62
Q

What is an approach ban?

A

What applies when ATC reports TDZ RVR has dropped below the IAP landing minima.

  • The pilot in command must not descend below 1,000 ft AAE where the TDZ RVR is reported by ATC as
    continually less than the landing minima for the IAP.
  • However, if after passing 1,000 ft AAE, the TDZ RVR is reported by ATC as falling below the landing minima, the
    approach may be continued.
63
Q

Where can I find general IFR rules

A

P91 MOS (Manual of Standards) Chapters 14-16

64
Q

QNH sources and validity (landing minima)

A

Before passing the IAF, the pilot in command must set 1 of the following:

(a) the actual aerodrome QNH from 1 of the following (an approved source):

         (i)  AAIS  (automatic aerodrome information service)

        (ii)  ATC 

       (iii)  ATIS  (automatic terminal information service)

       (iv)  AWIS (automatic weather information service) 

        (v)  CA/GRS;

       (vi)  WATIR (weather and terminal information reciter, means a service, provided by an aerodrome operator)

(b) the actual QNH (within 100 NM radius) from an approved source;

(c) the forecast aerodrome QNH;

(d) the forecast area QNH.

    (2)     The pilot in command must not use an actual aerodrome QNH for an instrument approach more than 15 minutes after receiving it.

    (3)     If the forecast area QNH is used, the pilot in command must increase the minima for the instrument approach y 50 ft.
65
Q

What can a pilot do on an ILS if the glide slope drops out?

A

continue with LLZ approach (can switch prior to FAP).

66
Q

For LLZ approach if HIAL is not available…

A

increase Vis by 900m

67
Q

What is RNP, PBN, and RNAV?

A
  • Required Navigation Performance (RNP) is a family of navigation specifications under Performance Based Navigation.
  • PBN permit the operation of aircraft along a precise flight path with a high level of accuracy and the ability to determine aircraft position with both accuracy and integrity.
  • RNAV is a method of navigation which permits the operation of an aircraft on any desired flight path; it allows its position to be continuously determined wherever it is rather than only along tracks between individual ground navigation aids. RNAV includes Performance Based Navigation (PBN)
68
Q

What is VNAV and LNAV ?

A

VNAV - three-dimensional position.
LNAV - two-dimensional.

non-precision approaches. Provides lateral guidance from GPS and/or WAAS and vertical guidance from a barometric altimeter or WAAS. Aircraft without WAAS must have a VNAV altimeter. The decision altitudes on these approaches are usually 350 feet above the runway.

69
Q

What is LPV?

A
  • Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance. The most desired approach.
  • It is similar to LNAV/VNAV except it is much more precise enabling a descent to as low as 200-250 feet above the runway.
70
Q
A
  • LP (Localized Performance.
  • An approach that uses the high precision of LPV for lateral guidance and a barometric altimeter data for vertical.
    -These approaches are needed at runways where a vertically guided approach (LPV or LNAV/VNAV) cannot be published due to obstacles or other infrastructure limitations.
    -LP approaches can only be flown by aircraft equipped with WAAS receivers. The minimum descent altitude for an LP approach is 300 feet above the runway.
71
Q

what is WAAS?

A
  • Wide Area Augmentation System.
  • Accurate to within 1 meter.
  • Utilizes a combination of global positioning satellites and geostationary satellites to improve the GPS navigational service.
  • The WAAS Network uses over 25 precision ground stations to provide corrections to the GPS navigation signal.
  • Was is not worldwide, but regional.
72
Q

ILS CAT 1 or RNP3D Visibility shall be?

A

-The higher of the visibility printed on approach chart or:
-Vis 0.8Km when instrumented RVR not available.
- Vis 1.2Km unless: Coupled autopilot, FD, or HUD, failure warning system for AH/DI, HIREL available.
- Vis 1.5Km when HIAL is not available

73
Q

When must you execute a missed approach?

A

No ROLFS

-Not visual at the MAPT or DA
-RAIM failure or warning after IAF
-Outside tolerance past MAP
-Loss of visual reference during circling
-Failure of navaid, or suspicious navaid
-Straight in landing not possible and circling approach not possible

74
Q

When can you fly below LSALT?

A

MD VIC

  • MSA
  • DME/GNSS arrival
  • Vectors
  • VMC by day
  • Visual approach
  • Instrument approach or holding
  • Climb after takeoff

GEN 3.3 p4.4

75
Q

Visual Circling (descent below MSA) considerations:

A
  • Maintain aircraft in circling area
  • Maintain visual contact with landing runway environment (threshold, lights, etc)
  • Visibility (as per approach chart) along the intended flight path

By day:
- Maintain visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path
- Maintain not less than 300’ abv obstacles (Cat A/B) along intended flight path until aligned with runway on final

By night:
- Can’t descend below MDA until MDA intercepts normal circuit descent profile on downwind, base or final.

ENR 1.5 p1.7, ENR 1.10 p1.4, ENR 1.5 p1.8

76
Q

What are the Cat A and B circling area distances?

A

CAT A 1.68nm,
CAT B 2.66nm

77
Q

What are the Visual Approach situations?

A

By day, by night, in controlled airspace

78
Q

What are the Visual Approach criteria by day?

A

LSALT/MSA/MDA
- In sight of ground or water
- Vis 5000m
- Not below the LSALT/MSA/MDA
- Clear of cloud
- Can maintain minimum altitude as per CASR 91.265/91.267)
- Within 30NM,

IVNCW

79
Q

What are the Visual Approach criteria by night?

A
  • Clear of cloud
  • In sight of ground or water
  • Vis 5000m
  • Not below the LSALT/MSA/MDA until the circling area (or 3NM if AD with no instrument app), or:
  • Within 5NM (7NM if ILS runway) of aerodrome, established not below T-VASIS or PAPI, aligned with runway.
  • Within 10NM if established not below ILS GS and less than full scale deflection of LOC

IVNCWW

80
Q

What are the Visual Approach criteria in controlled airspace?

A
  • Clear of cloud,
  • Vis 5000m,
  • can maintain continuous visual reference to ground or water to aerodrome
  • Descend not below CTA LL +500’ and not below CAR157.
  • Maintain last cleared track/heading until within 5NM (or circling area at night), then manoeuvre for landing
    runway.
  • If on a STAR and subsequently cleared for visual approach, follow STAR lateral profile, including any visual or instrument termination route.
81
Q

Can substitute ground navaids with GNSS

A
  • yes, GNSS may be used as a substitute to a ground-based navaid for NDB, VOR, DME, and OM/MM.
  • This includes for tracking during NDB and VOR approaches, as well as for distance information during an ILS/LLZ or GNSS arrival.
  • This does not include for tracking during a DME/GNSS Arrival.
  • If a GNSS is used to substitute a ground-based navaid for NDB or VOR, the IAP must be loaded into the GNSS receiver to ensure the receiver will transition to RNP APCH with CDI sensitivity of ≤0.3NM by the FAF.
82
Q

When does icing occur?

A

With visible moisture and temperature below 0°C.

83
Q

Describe icing types:

A

Clear ice: Large water droplets or freezing rain strike the leading edge and do not freeze instantly but flow aft along the aerofoil before freezing. Visually, it appears as a transparent, often invisible layer of ice on the aerofoil. Apart from changing the shape of the aerofoil, it can add enormous weight to the aeroplane, both
of which increase stall speed. Most likely to occur at temperatures 0° to -15°.

Rime ice: Small supercooled water droplets instantly freeze on impact. Rough and opaque white appearance on the aerofoil leading edge. Severely disturbs airflow, degrading performance and increasing stall speed.
Most likely to occur at temperatures -10° to -25°.

Mixed ice: A combination of Clear ice and Rime ice. Most likely to form at temperatures -10° to -15°

84
Q

What are some practical ways to minimise icing?

A
  • Due to temperature variations at the low pressure areas on the aerofoil, as well as a potential inaccuracy of the OAT gauge, consider icing conditions as possible any time OAT falls below 3°C.
  • To exit icing conditions encountered in stratiform clouds, change altitude by at least 3000’ up or down.
  • To exit icing conditions in cumuliform clouds, divert laterally and vertically to exit clouds.
    Plan to cross cold fronts on a perpendicular track to shorten the duration of the potential icing encounter
85
Q

What are the general things you should do if your coms fail?

A
  • Squawk 7600
  • Listen out on ATIS and/or voice modulated NAVAIDs.
  • Transmit intentions and make normal position reports (prefix calls with “TRANSMITTING BLIND”).
86
Q

What should you do if your coms fail in VMC?

  • Squawk 7600, Liston on ATIS/NAVAIDs, Transmit blind
  • If in VMC and are certain of maintaining VMC
    a. Stay in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome (note special procedures if proceeding to a Class D)
A
87
Q

What should you do if your coms fail in IMC?

A
  • If in IMC or are uncertain of maintaining VMC
  • If no clearance limit received and acknowledged, proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance
    acknowledged and climb to planned level.
  • If a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction has been received and acknowledged:
    i. maintain last assigned level, or MSA if higher, for three minutes and/or
    ii. hold at nominated location for three minutes, then
    iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned
    level.
88
Q

What should you do if your coms fail in IMC and if receiving an ATS surveillance service

A
  • climb to MSA/LSALT, and,
  • if being vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes, then
  • proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
89
Q

What should you do if your coms fail in IMC and if holding?

A
  • Fly one more complete holding pattern, then
  • Proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
90
Q

What are the destination procedures, if your coms fail?

A
  • Track to the destination in accordance with flight plan (amended by the latest ATC clearance acknowledged,
    if applicable).
  • Commence descent in accordance with standard operating procedures or flight plan.
  • Descend to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid in accordance with the published
    procedures.
  • Carry out the approach to the prescribed minima (and if the tower is open, look for light signals)
91
Q

What circumstance determines what you should do if you have a Coms failure?

A
  • VMC
  • IMC
  • Receiving an ATS surveillance service
  • Holding
  • Destination Procedures
92
Q

How do you vary takeoff and landing distances for IFR?

A
  • Multiply by a factor of 1.15 for aeroplanes below 2000kg unless the performance
    charts already include it.
  • Between 2000kg and 4500kg, linear interpolation between 1.15 and 1.43.
93
Q

What are the Climb gradients?

A
  • Takeoff configuration (with gear down at Vtoss): 6%
  • Landing climb performance (ie go-around config, at 1.3 Vs): 3.2%
  • Enroute climb at 4.5% up to 5000‘ for single engine aircraft only
  • IFR AWK and Charter: With OEI ability to climb at 1% up to 5000‘
  • VFR, PVT IFR: With OEI ability to maintain height at all altitudes up to 5000

In the case of an engine failure after takeoff, the PIC must have a plan to return to land or proceed to a takeoff alternate, whilst remaining clear of obstacles. If any drift-down procedures are planned, the aeroplane must remain clear of obstacles by 2000ft within 5NM of track until established in the circuit area

94
Q

What is Vtoss?

A

The minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical engine inoperative, the remaining engines operating within approved operating limits.

95
Q

How do you calculate LSALT?

A
  • RNP2: Highest obstacle within 5NM either side of track +1000’ or +1360’
    A - Man-made obstacle >360’ then obstacle height plus 1000feet.
    B - Man-made obstacle <360’ then
  • NVFR: Highest obstacle within 10NM either side of track +1000’ or +1360’ (see below).
  • A LSALT can never be lower than 1500’ AMSL
96
Q

Describe Vmca

A
  • The IAS below which it’s not possible to maintain directional control of the aeroplane with OEI. Marked with a red line on the ASI.
  • Vmca is a speed that depends on the aeroplane configuration (just like Vs does) and it’s measured in the following conditions: - critical engine inoperative
  • live engine at take-off power
  • landing gear retracted
  • maximum of 5 degrees bank towards live engine
  • propeller windmilling (for aircraft with autofeather, propeller feathered)

Recovery: close both throttles, pitch down, then smoothly re-apply power whilst pitching up to maintain Vyse

97
Q

What is the critical engine?

A
  • The engine whose failure will have the most detrimental effect on control and performance.
  • For clockwise rotating props, the LH engine is critical. For counter-rotating props (BE76, PA44) there is no critical engine
98
Q

why would you raise the MDA/DA and by how much?

A
  • You must be able to clear obstacles in the MAP even if you suffer an engine failure.
  • The standard 2.5% MAP
    gradient only ensures 100ft obstacle clearance, so you definitely need to ensure you’ll achieve at least 2.5%.
  • If you can’t, the MDA (or DA) must be raised in accordance with your “shortfall”.

𝑆ℎ𝑜𝑟𝑡𝑓𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑡𝑜 𝑏𝑒 𝑎𝑑𝑑𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑀𝐷𝐴 = (𝑀𝑆𝐴 − 𝑀𝐷𝐴) − ((𝑀𝑆𝐴 − 𝑀𝐷𝐴) 𝑥
𝑂𝐸𝐼 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 2.5)

If the AFM gives a rate of climb but not a gradient, use table DAP 2-1 or this approximation ROC = GS * GR(%)

99
Q

General formulas.
PNR
CP/ETP
AOB

A

𝑃𝑁𝑅 =
𝑆𝐸 𝑥 𝐺𝑆𝐻
𝐺𝑆𝑂+𝐺𝑆𝐻
= 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠

𝐶𝑃/𝐸𝑇𝑃 =
𝐷𝐼𝑆𝑇 𝑥 𝐺𝑆𝐻
𝐺𝑆𝑂+𝐺𝑆𝐻
= 𝑚𝑖𝑙𝑒𝑠

𝐴𝑂𝐵 (𝑅1 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛) =
𝐼𝐴𝑆
10 + ℎ𝑎𝑙𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑢𝑙

100
Q
A
  • Taxi aeroplane within 1.5m of centreline
  • Climb airspeed -0 +5kt
  • Level off from climb or descent, as well as level flight +/-100ft
  • Nominated heading +/-5°
  • Straight and level flight IAS +/-10kt and not below minimum approach speed
  • Powered descent +/-10kt, Glide descent -0 +5kt
  • Turns AOB +/-5°, turn onto nominated HDG +/-5° (for steep turns +/-10°)
  • Final approach speed -0 +5kts
    -Landing within 60m of aiming point, within 2m of centreline
    -Asymmetric: engine failure maintain heading initially +/-20°, continued flight +/-5°, IAS -0 +5kts
  • Limited panel: HDG +/-15°
  • Navigation and instrument approach tolerance 5° (for Azimuth) or half scale deflection (for CDI and GS)
  • Minimum altitude (LSALT, MSA, MDA) 0 +100ft
  • For 3D approaches, missed approach initiated not below the DA
101
Q

Describe PBN and RNP

A

PBN: Performance Based Navigation. The concept by which the different navigational capabilities are defined.

RNP: Required Navigation Performance. It defines what level of accuracy the aircraft’s navigation system is expected to perform to.

For the purposes of GA within continental Australia, the following RNP are defined:

▪ RNP2 (RNP ENR) full scale CDI deflection is 2NM, and is used in the cruise phase of flight.
▪ RNP1 (RNP TERM) full scale CDI deflection is 1NM, and is used within 30NM of departure & destination AD.
▪ RNP0.3 (RNP APCH) is used for IAP. Transition from TERM to APCH is completed before the FAF.

102
Q

What satellite numbers does GNSS require?

A
  • 4 Satellites required for 3D navigation solution
  • 5 Satellites required for FD (Fault Detection)(TSO C129 certified GPS)
  • 6 Satellites required for FDE (Fault Detection and Exclusion)(TSO C145/C146 certified GPS)
  • RAIM Failure: RAIM not available ie. less than 5 satellites in range [“INTEG” message]
  • RAIM Position Warning: Unresolved discrepancy [“WARN”], CDI will be automatically disable
103
Q

What is a RAIM failure and warning?
What a is a RAIM failure and warning on a RNP2D Approach?

A

RAIM Failure: RAIM not available ie. less than 5 satellites in range [“INTEG” message]

RAIM Position Warning: Unresolved discrepancy [“WARN”], CDI will be automatically disabled.

RNP2D Approach: Past the FAF, RAIM failure messages are inhibited (for up to 5 minutes), ie if there are only 4
satellites the unit will continue to operate as normal even though FD is unavailable.
However if the GPS can’t determine the position or there is an unresolved discrepancy, a Position Warning will
still be displayed, the CDI disabled, and a missed approach must be initiated.

104
Q

Describe ADS-B and traditionally transponders

A

ADS-B stands for “Automatic Dependant Surveillance Broadcast”.

Traditionally transponders waited to be interrogated by a radar station and then replied with very simple data
that consisted of a 4 digit transponder code (Mode A), a barometric altitude (Mode C), and more recently the
aircraft’s callsign (Mode S).
The interrogating station then had to figure out 1) which direction the signal came
from and 2) how long it took for the signal to do the round trip. With all that information (including the
reported altitude) it could then determine the aeroplane’s relative position and plot its coordinates.

ADS-B transponders require a GPS input and send the aircraft’s real-time coordinates to the interrogating
station (as well as a transponder code, altitude, rate of climb/descent, track, groundspeed, callsign, etc.).
These GPS coordinates are still received by dedicated ground stations but are orders of magnitude more
accurate than traditional radar-transponder systems. The ground stations are also simpler/cheaper to run which is why they have been deployed throughout Australia, covering most of the country.

There are different types of ADS-B transponder. ADS-B OUT transponder broadcasts data every half second.
The ADS-B IN function is optional and is used in conjunction with TCAS systems to display the position of other aircraft to the pilots.

Most GA aeroplanes only have 1090MHz ADS-B OUT and will therefore select E B1 on the flight notification

105
Q

What is Part 61 ?

A

Part 61 of Civil Aviation Safety Regulations (CASR) sets out the requirements and standards for the issue of flight crew licences, ratings and other authorisations.

The rules cover what flight crew need to do to obtain and maintain licences, ratings and endorsement and the limitations that apply to exercising their privileges.

106
Q

Memory Aid number associations

A

0 — Donut
1 — me
2 — bicycle
3 — tree
4 — whore
5 — dive or fingers
6 — dicks
7 — heaven
8 — gate
9 — a cat — nine lives
10 — hen

11 — soccer team
12 — the sun (12 noon)
13 — Freddy Cruger (Friday the 13th
14 — Death, Black death in 14th Century
15 — Columbus / Sailing ships, 15th century
16 — candles
17 —shamrock or leaf - this St. Patrick’s Day (March 17th)
18 — golf green, golf course has 18 holes
19 — Queen Victoria (1900s)
20 — binoculars (20-20 vision)

61 — a wall (Berlin wall 1961)

91 — a sunflower (9 is the flower, 1 is a stick supporting it)

107
Q

Regulation reference for Privileges and limitations of the rating and each endorsement assessed:

A

61.855
61.860

108
Q

Regulation reference Proficiency check requirements

A

61.880

109
Q

Regulation reference for IFR and approach recency
requirements

A

61.870
61.875 ???

110
Q

Regulation reference for interpreting operational and
meteorological information

A

AIP GEN 3.5
Part 91 MoS Chapter 7

111
Q

Regulation reference for Take-off minima

A

Part 91 MoS 15.06

112
Q

Regulation reference for Holding and alternate requirements

A

Part 91 MoS Chapter 8

113
Q

Regulation reference for IFR procedures for all airspace classifications

A

Word Doc Airspace Structure

114
Q

Regulation reference for Departure and approach instrument procedures

A
115
Q

Regulation reference for IFR Operations below LSALT and MSA for day and night operations

A

91.305; 91.277
MoS 12.03

116
Q

Regulation reference for GNSS and PBN standards

A

91.660
MOS 22.01

117
Q

Regulation reference for Circling approaches

A

AIP ENR 1.5 1.6

118
Q

Regulation reference for Adverse weather operations

A

Part 91 MoS Chapter 8

119
Q

Regulation reference for IFR planning

A

Part 91 MoS Chapter 9

Guy's Australian IFR Renewal (3 decks)

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