CASA IFR Cheat Sheet Flashcards
– Definition of category of aircraft for Part 61 Each of the following is a category of aircraft:
- What CASR is it?
a) aeroplane;
b) helicopter;
c) powered-lift aircraft;
d) gyroplane;
e) airship.
CASR 61.015
– Definition of class of aircraft for Part 61.
What CASR is this covered by?
(1) Each of the following is a class of aircraft:
(2) For this Part, the single-engine aeroplane class includes:
CASR 61.020
(1),
a) single-engine aeroplane;
b) multi-engine aeroplane;
c) single-engine helicopter;
ca) powered-lift aircraft;
d) single-engine gyroplane;
e) airship
(2),
a) multi-engine centre-line thrust aeroplanes; and
b) multi-engine aeroplanes that are prescribed by a legislative instrument under regulation 61.050 (Prescription of multi-engine aeroplanes included in single-engine class).
Part 61 Manual of Standards CASR 61.035 – Issue of Manual of Standards for Part 61
1) CASA may issue a Manual of Standards for this Part that sets out matters relating to flight crew licences, As stated in paragraph __________________ of the Act?
. (2) In particular, the manual of standards may set out standards for the following:
(1) For paragraph 98(5A)(a) of the Act,
(2)
a) approvals under regulation 61.040;
b) aeronautical and other knowledge required by this Part for the grant of a licence, rating or endorsement;
c) flight training;
d) other training and development requirements;
e) flight tests;
f) aviation and general English language proficiency;
g) general operating competencies for:
(i) aircraft of a particular class or type; and
(ii) activities authorised by operational ratings and endorsements;
h) competency in the use of an airborne collision avoidance system;
(i) flight reviews;
k) instrument proficiency checks;
l) night vision imaging system proficiency checks;
m) aerial application proficiency checks;
n) instructor proficiency checks;
o) competencies for glider pilot licences.
Validity of an Instrument Proficiency Check CASR 61.880 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – instrument proficiency check Paragraph 3 An instrument proficiency check is valid: From & For?
• From the period the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after the month in which the holder passes the flight test. or
• For the period during which the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation in the relevant aircraft. If the holder successfully completes an instrument proficiency check for the relevant aircraft within 3 months before the validity of the existing check expires, then the instrument proficiency check is valid to the end of the 12th month after the validity of the existing check.
CASR 61.855 – Privileges of instrument ratings Subject to Subpart 61.E and regulations 61.860 to 61.880, States that the holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft: ? (a) (b)
(a) under the IFR; or
(b) at night under the VFR.
CASR 61.860 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – general The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to:
• conduct an instrument approach only if the aircraft is equipped for that kind of operation;
• pilot an aircraft in a single-pilot operation under the IFR only if, at some time in the past, the holder has passed an instrument rating flight test in a single-pilot aircraft or has completed an instrument proficiency check in a single-pilot aircraft;
• conduct a circling approach under the IFR only if:
- the holder passed the instrument rating flight test within the previous 12 months and that flight test included a circling approach; or
- the holder’s most recent instrument proficiency check (or operator’s proficiency check that covers IFR operations and is conducted by a flight examiner who holds an instrument rating flight test endorsement) included a circling approach; or
-the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an operation that includes circling approaches;
• conduct an instrument approach only if the holder has completed training in the conduct of that instrument approach and has demonstrated competence to CASA or an examiner.
CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general
Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)
To fly under the IFR Must have conducted?
At least three instrument approach operations within the previous 90 days.
CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general
Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)
To pilot an aircraft of a particular category Must have conducted?
At least one instrument approach operation in an aircraft of the same category (refer to Definitions) within the previous 90 days
CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general
Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)
2D approach Must have conducted?
At least one 2D instrument approach within the previous 90 days
CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general
Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)
3D approach Must have conducted?
At least one 3D instrument approach within the previous 90 days.
CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general
Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)
Azimuth guidance Must have conducted?
At least one 2D instrument approach using azimuth guidance within the previous 90 days.
CASR 61.870 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: general
Requirement (in an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device)
Course deviation indicator Must have conducted?
At least one instrument approach using a CDI within the previous 90 days.
All of the IFR recent experience requirements are considered to be met if the holder: ?
• the holder has successfully completed an operator proficiency check that covers IFR operations within the previous 3 months; or
• the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation.
CASR 61.875 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings – recent experience: single pilot?
1) The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft under the IFR in a single-pilot operation only if the holder has conducted a flight or simulated flight under the IFR in a single-pilot operation within the previous 6 months.
2) For subregulation (1), the flight or simulated flight must:
a) have a duration of at least one hour; and
b) include at least one instrument approach or simulated instrument approach.
Part 91 MOS Chapter 26.08 – Equipment – Aeroplane IFR flight
Requirements?
Approved GNSS, AI (1),ASI (2,3), ALT (3), VSI (3), T+S (4,5), DG (6), Compass, OAT, Clock (7).
(1) Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of T+S or a second AI required
(2) Pitot heat required on at least one ASI
(3) With alternate static source or a balanced pair of flush static ports
(4) Slip only if a second AI is available
(5) Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of other gyroscopic instruments or a second AI required
(6) Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of T+S or a second AI required
(7) Can be worn
Part 91 MOS 26.25 – Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator – IFR flights,
1) For an IFR flight, the following aircraft must be fitted with altitude alerting equipment in accordance with subsection (2): ?
a) a piston-engine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL 150;
b) an unpressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL 150;
c) a pressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in any controlled airspace.
Part 91 MOS 26.25 – Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator – IFR flights,
2) For subsection (1), the altitude alerting equipment must: ?
a) include an assigned altitude indicator; and
b) alert the flight crew members if the aircraft approaches a preselected altitude; and
c) alert the flight crew members, including by an aural warning, if the aircraft deviates from a preselected altitude.
Part 91 MOS 26.25 – Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator – IFR flights,
3) If an aircraft, other than an aircraft to which subsection (1) applies, is operating under the IFR in controlled airspace, the aircraft must be fitted with?
Altitude alerting equipment that at least includes an assigned altitude indicator.
Part 91 MOS 26.04 – Flight with inoperative equipment
1) Subject to subsection (2), an aircraft may begin a flight with equipment that is inoperative, despite a requirement under this Chapter that equipment must be fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft for the flight.
2) Subsection (1) only applies if the aircraft is operated: ? a), b) & in accordance with what regulation.
a) in accordance with the MEL for the aircraft for the flight; or
b) if the equipment is inoperative because of a defect that has been approved as a permissible unserviceability for the aircraft for the flight in accordance with regulation 21.007 of CASR — in accordance with the permissible unserviceability.
Part 91 MOS 26.21 – Cockpit and cabin lighting requirement,
Equipment illumination include?
- Checklists and documents Compatible with each item of equipment In a normal position,
- Can read all placards and instrument markings,
- Eyes shielded from direct and reflected light,
- Variable intensity Cabin lighting for seatbelt,
- Oxygen normal and emergency exits,
- Independent portable light for each FCM
Part 91 MOS 26.22 – Anti-collision lights include?
- 1 red beacon, or
- 2 white strobes, or
- A combination of these
Part 91 MOS 26.23 – Landing lights, At least?
- 1 landing light
Part 91 MOS 26.24 – Navigation lights Must be fitted when?
Operating by night.
Speed Definitions,
- VMCA Minimum Control Speed, air (red radial) and includes what aircraft configurations?
- What is the basic definition of VMCA?
- critical engine inoperative
- live engine at take-off power
- landing gear retracted
- maximum of 5 degrees bank towards live engine
- propeller feathered (only for aircraft with automatic feathering devices)
- The minimum speed at which it is possible to maintain directional control of the aircraft with the critical engine inoperative.
VMCG Minimum Control Speed, ground and includes what aircraft configurations?
- critical engine inoperative
- live engine at take-off power
The minimum speed, whilst on the ground, at which it is possible to maintain directional using only aerodynamic controls.
- VSSE Single Engine Safety Speed?
- VSSE is a manufacturer-stated speed intended to?
- The speed below which intentional simulated engine failures should not be conducted.
- Provide a margin above VMCA.
- VYSE Single Engine Best Rate of Climb Speed (blue radial) and includes what aircraft configuration?
- What is the basic definition of VYSE?
- critical engine inoperative
- live engine at take-off power
- landing gear retracted
- The speed at which the best rate of climb can be achieved with the critical engine inoperative.
ERSA EMERG 1.5 – Communication Failure (JEPP EMERG – Emergency Procedures 3) In the event of communications failure, what must be maintained throughout all procedures?
- Maintain terrain clearance throughout all procedures.
Communications Failure
Indications by an Aircraft:
In Flight?
(i) during the hours of daylight?
(ii) during the hours of darkness?
(iii) If not equipped with a landing light?
On the Ground?
(i) during the hours of daylight:
(ii) during the hours of darkness:
(iii) If not equipped with a landing light?
(i)- by rocking the aircraft’s wings; and Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach.
(ii) - by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or,
(iii)If not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.
(i) by waggling the aircraft’s ailerons or rudder;
(ii) by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or,
(iii) if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.
Communications Failure,
If VFR in Class G Airspace, what procedures should be followed?
What is the SAR phone number?
a. Remain in VMC.
b. Broadcast Intentions (prefix “TRANSMITTING BLIND”).
c. Remain VFR in Class G airspace and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
d. Report arrival to ATS if on SARTIME or reporting schedules.
- (SAR 1800 815 257).
Communications Failure,
If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace?
a. Squawk 7600
b. Listen out on ATIS and/or voice modulated NAVAIDs.
c. Transmit intentions and make normal position reports (assume transmitter is operating and prefix calls with “TRANSMITTING BLIND”).
Communications Failure,
If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace?
if in VMC and are certain of maintaining VMC?
What note: If proceeding to a Class D airspace?
a. Stay in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome.
Note: Special procedures if proceeding to a Class D.
Communications Failure,
If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace?
If in IMC or are uncertain of maintaining VMC?
b. If no clearance limit received and acknowledged, proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
c. If a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction has been received and acknowledged:
i. maintain last assigned level, or MSA if higher, for three minutes and/or
ii. hold at nominated location for three minutes, then
iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
d. If receiving an ATS surveillance service:
i. climb to MSA/LSALT, and,
ii. if being vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes, then
iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
e. If holding:
i. fly one more complete holding pattern, then
ii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
Communications Failure,
If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace?
Destination Procedures: ?
a. Track to the destination in accordance with flight plan (amended by the latest ATC clearance acknowledged, if applicable).
b. Commence descent in accordance with standard operating procedures or flight plan.
c. Descend to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid in accordance with the published procedures.
d. Carry out the approach to the prescribed minima.
Communications Failure,
If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace?
Actions at Minima?
a. If visual at the minima at an uncontrolled aerodrome, continue to land provided that a safe landing can be accomplished If visual at the minima at a controlled aerodrome continue to land provided that a clearance to land is received via a voice modulated NAVAID and/or light signal from the Tower.
b. If not visual at the minima, depart for a suitable alternate aerodrome.
c. If insufficient fuel is carried to divert to a suitable alternate, the pilot may hold or carry out additional approaches until visual.
d. Certain Class D aerodromes have specific communications failure procedures which are shown at each aerodrome entry in the FAC section
Take-off performance for aeroplanes CASR 91.795
– Take-off performance Part 91 MOS 24.02
– Take-off performance for aeroplanes Part 91 Plain English Guide
– Take-off performance For small aeroplanes, the AFM take-off performance charts are normally unfactored and often do not contain performance information for the effects of runway slope, various surface conditions or wind effect. In some cases, they do not provide information on the effects of pressure and temperature variation.
- It is your responsibility to be satisfied that the runway is long enough so you can take off safely (91.410). To account for various levels of pilot competency or aircraft degradation of performance due to age, it is recommended for aeroplanes with landing performance charts which are unfactored, that the following factors are applied to the landing distance required:
- What are these factors for Aircraft <2000kg, aircraft >3500kg and aircraft between 2000kg & 3500kg?
(a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less;
(b) 1.25 for MTOW of 3,500 kg or greater; and
(c) Between 2,000 kg and 3,500 kg, use linear interpolation
Landing Distance Required CASR 91.800
– Landing performance Part 91 MOS 25.02
– Landing performance for aeroplanes Part 91 Plain English Guide
– Landing performance For small aeroplanes, the AFM landing performances charts are normally unfactored and often do not contain performance information for the effects of runway slope, various surface conditions or wind effect. In some cases, they do not provide information on the effects of pressure and temperature variation.
- It is your responsibility to be satisfied that the runway is long enough so you can land safely (91.410). To account for various levels of pilot competency or aircraft degradation of performance due to age, it is recommended for aeroplanes with landing performance charts which are unfactored, that the following factors are applied to the landing distance required:
-What are these factors for Aircraft <2000kg, aircraft >4500kg and aircraft between 2000kg & 4500kg?
a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less;
b) 1.43 for MTOW of 4,500 kg or greater;
c) Between 2,000 kg and 4,500 kg, use linear interpolation
Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07
Class G,
Visibility = ?
Clearance from clouds = ?
When below 3000FT AMSL or 1000 AGL ?
- Visibility = 5000m or (above 10,000’ 8km)
- Clearance from clouds = 1500m Horizontally & 1000’ Vertically.
- When below 3000FT AMSL or 1000 AGL = can remain clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water if radio carried and used on appropriate frequency
Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07
Class E,
Visibility = ?
Clearance from clouds = ?
- Visibility = 5000m or (above 10,000’ 8km)
- Clearance from clouds = 1500m Horizontally & 1000’ Vertically.
Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07
Class C,
Visibility = ?
Clearance from clouds = ?
- Visibility = 5000m or (above 10,000’ 8km)
- Clearance from clouds = 1500m Horizontally & 1000’ Vertically.
Visual Meteorological Conditions Part 91 MOS Section 2.07
Class D,
Visibility = ?
Clearance from clouds = ?
- Visibility = 5000M 600M
- Clearance from clouds = 600m Horizontally, 1000’ above & 500’ below
Transponder codes AIP ENR 1.6 Para 7.1.4 – Operation of SSR Transponders (Jepp ATC – ATS Surveillance Services and Procedures 7.1.4),
Operation Code VFR in Class E or OCTA?
IFR OCTA?
IFR in Class E or civil flights in CTA?
- 1200
- 2000
- 3000
VHF Theoretical Maximum Range To determine the theoretical maximum range of VHF transmissions, the following formula can be used: ?
d = 1.23 (√(Htx) + √(Hrx))
- Where: d = distance in NM
- Htx = elevation in feet of transmitter
- Hrx = height in feet above ground level of receiver
Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4)
Steady green,
- In Flight?
- On Airport?
- Authorised to land if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists
- Authorised to take-off if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists
Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4)
Steady Red,
- In Flight?
- On Airport?
- Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
- Stop
Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4)
Green flashes!
- In Flight?
- On Airport?
- Return for landing.
- Authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists
Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4)
Red flashes!
- In Flight?
- On Airport?
- Airport unsafe – do not land
- Taxi clear of landing area in use
Light Signals to Aircraft AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4)
White flashes!
- In Flight?
- On Airport?
- No significance
- Return to starting point on airport
Light Signals to Aircraft
AIP ENR 1.5 Para 12 – Signals for the Control of Aerodrome Traffic (JEPP ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 4)
Acknowledgements by aircraft: In flight:
1. during the hours of daylight: ?
2. during the hours of darkness: ?
Acknowledgement of aircraft On the ground:
1. during the hours of daylight:
2. during the hours of darkness:
Acknowledgements by aircraft: In flight:
1. by rocking the aircraft’s wings Note: this signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach
2. by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights
Acknowledgement of aircraft On the ground:
1. by moving the aircraft’s ailerons or rudder
2. by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights
Phraseology
Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7)
- Taxi,
- Brisbane Centre
- ABC
- Cessna 310
- POB 2 (for IFR flights other than RPT)
- IFR
-Taxiing Roma - For Archerfield
- RWY 18
Phraseology
Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7)
Departure Report In ADS-B or SSR Coverage?
- Brisbane Centre
- ABC
- 3 miles east of Longreach
- Passing 2000
- Climbing to 9000
- Estimating MOVBA at 25
Phraseology
Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7)
Departure Report Outside ADS-B or SSR Coverage?
- Brisbane Centre
- ABC
- Departed Blackall 51
- Tracking [to intercept] 236
- Climbing to 10000
- Estimating EXXON at 21
Phraseology
Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7)
Departure Report Where radio contact was unable to be established on the ground and a SARWATCH needs to begin?
- Brisbane Centre
- ABC
- Airborne Blackall 51
- Tracking [to intercept] 305
- Climbing to 10000
- Estimating Longreach at 26
Phraseology
Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7)
Inbound If leaving CTA on descent?
- Brisbane Centre And all stations Longreach
- ABC
- Cessna 310
- 35 miles northwest of Moranbah
- Leaving 10000
- Estimating the circuit 55
- Centre and all stations Longreach
Phraseology
Class G Airports AIP GEN 3.4 Para 6 – Phraseologies (Jepp ATC – Communications 7)
Cancel SAR?
- Brisbane Centre
- ABC
- Landed Longreach
- Cancel SARWATCH
Class D Airports
Airways Clearance Delivery Where a Delivery frequency is specified?
- Tamworth Delivery
- ABC
- To Wagga
- Request clearance
Phraseology!
Class D Airports,
Airways Clearance Delivery Where no Delivery frequency is specified?
- Mackay Ground
- ABC
- To Townsville
- Request clearance
Phraseology!
Class D Airports,
Taxi?
- Mackay Ground
- ABC
- POB 2 (for IFR flights other than RPT)
- Information Alpha
- IFR
- Request taxi
