Gut Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

surface area of the GI tract

A

200m^2

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2
Q

antigen load of the GI tract

A

massive antigen load
resident microbiota
dietary antigens
exposure to pathogens

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3
Q

GI state ‘restrained activation’

A

tolerance vs active immune response

dual immunological role

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4
Q

GI has tolerance for?

A

food antigens

commensal bacteria

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5
Q

GI has immunoreactivity to?

A

pathogens

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6
Q

is the presence of the bacterial microbiota required?

A

yes

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7
Q

what makes up the gut microbiota?

A

4 major phyla of bacteria: bacteroidetes, firmicutes, actinobacteria, proteobacteria
viruses
fungi

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8
Q

what is dysbiosis?

A

altered microbiota composition

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9
Q

causes of dysbiosis

A
infection and inflammation
diet
xenobiotics
hygiene
genetics
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10
Q

disease development of dysbiosis - brain

A

stress
autism
MS

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11
Q

disease development of dysbiosis - lung

A

asthma

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12
Q

disease development of dysbiosis - liver

A

NAFLD

NASH

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13
Q

disease development of dysbiosis - adipose tissue

A

obesity

metabolic disease

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14
Q

disease development of dysbiosis - intestine

A

IBD

coeliac disease

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15
Q

disease development of dysbiosis - systemic

A

T1DM
atherosclerosis
rheumatoid arthritis

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16
Q

anatomical physical barriers to pathogens in GI tract

A

epithelial barrier

peristalsis

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17
Q

chemical physical barriers to pathogens in GI tract

A

enzymes

acidic pH

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18
Q

immunological barriers to pathogens in GI tract

A

following invasion
MALT
GALT

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19
Q

epithelial barrier is made up of?

A

mucus layer - goblet cells
epithelial monolayer - tight junctions
Paneth cells - bases of crypts, secrete antimicrobial peptides (defensins) and lysozymes

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20
Q

how do commensal bacteria act as mucosal defense?

A

occupy ecological niche

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21
Q

where is MALT found?

A

Found in the submucosa below the epithelium, as lymphoid mass containing lymphoid follicles

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22
Q

follicles in MALT are surrounded by?

A

HEV postcapillary venules, allowing easy passage of lymphocytes

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23
Q

what cavity is rich in immunological tissue?

A

oral

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24
Q

GALT consists of what?

A

Consists of B & T lymphocytes, macrophages, APC (dendritic cells), and specific epithelial & intra-epithelial lymphocytes

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25
GALT - non-organised
intraepithelial lymphocytes e.g. T cells, NK cells | lamina propria lymphocytes
26
GALT - organised
Peyer's patches (small intestine) Caecal patches (large intestine) Isolated lymphoid follicles Mesenteric lymph nodes (encapsulated)
27
where are Peyer's patches found?
submucosa small intestine mainly distal ileum
28
peyer's patches consist of?
Aggregated lymphoid follicles covered with follicle associated epithelium (FAE)
29
what is not included in FAE (follicle associated epithelium)?
goblet cells secretory IgA microvilli
30
peyer's patches have an organised collection of what cells?
naive T cells | B cells
31
development of the Peyer's patches requires what?
exposure to bacterial microbiota
32
how does antigen uptake occur in peyer's patches?
via M (microfold) cells within FAE
33
M cells express what receptors?
IgA receptors
34
expression of IgA receptors on cells facilitates what?
uptake of IgA-bacteria complex in the Peyer's patches
35
mature naive B cells express which immunoglobulin on its surface in Peyer's patches?
IgM
36
when does the immunoglobulin on the surface of mature naive B cells switch class? to what?
on antigen presentation | IgA
37
what cells influence B cell maturation and via what?
T cells and epithelial cells | via cytokines
38
B cells can further mature into?
IgA secreting plasma cells
39
what cells secrete IgA?
90% of gut B cells
40
what does secretory IgA do?
binds luminal antigen > prevents adhesion and consequent invasion
41
formation of secretory IgA
plasma cell in submucosa secretes dimeric IgA > binds to polyIg receptor > enters cell in vesicle w/ receptor > enzymatic cleavage > secretory IgA
42
lymphocyte homing and circulation
Peyer's patch (antigen presentation and activation) > mesenteric lymph node (lymphocyte proliferation) > thoracic duct > circulation > lamina propria/skin, tonsils, BALT
43
𝝰4β7 Integrin/MAdCAM-1 Adhesion is a crucial pathway for?
B cell migration
44
why is the turnover of enterocytes so rapid?
lesions are short lived, effects of agents that interfere w/ cell fx, metabolic rate is diminished, enterocytes maybe directly affected by toxic substances in diet
45
what is cholera?
acute bacterial disease caused by Vibrio cholerae serogroups O1 & O139
46
mechanism of cholera
Bacteria reaches small intestine > contact with epithelium & releases cholera enterotoxin
47
transmission of cholera
faecal oral route | spreads via contaminated water and food
48
main symptoms of cholera
``` severe dehydration watery diarrhoea vomiting nausea abdominal pain ```
49
diagnosis of cholera
bacterial culture from stool sample on selective agar is the gold standard, rapid dipstick tests also available
50
treatment of cholera
oral-rehydration is the main management | vaccine (Dukoral, oral, inactivated)
51
viral causes of infectious diarrhoea
rotavirus (children) | norovirus (winter vomiting virus)
52
protozoal/parasitic causes of infectious diarrhoea
Giardia lamblia | Entamoaeba histolytica
53
bacterial causes of infectious diarrhoea
``` Campylobacter jejuni E.coli Salmonella Shigella Clostridium difficile ```
54
description of rotaviruses
RNA virus, replicates in enterocytes. | 5 types A – E, type A most common in human infections
55
epidemiology of rotavirus
Most common cause of diarrhoea in infants & young children worldwide
56
treatment of rotavirus
Oral rehydration therapy
57
vaccine against rotavirus
Live attenuated oral vaccine (Rotarix) against type A
58
description of norovirus
RNA virus | Incubation period 24-48 hours
59
transmission of norovirus
Faecal-oral transmission. Individuals may shed infectious virus for up to 2 weeks Outbreaks often occur in closed communities
60
symptoms of norovirus
Acute gastroenteritis, recovery 1 – 3 days
61
treatment of norovirus
not usually required
62
diagnosis of norovirus
sample PCR
63
most common species of campylobacter
campylobacter jejuni | campylobacter coli
64
transmission of campylobacter
``` Undercooked meat (especially poultry), untreated water & unpasteurised milk Low infective dose, a few bacteria (<500) can cause illness ```
65
treatment of campylobacter
Not usually required | Azithromycin (macrolide) is standard antibiotic
66
what is problematic in the treatment of campylobacter infections?
resistance to fluoroquinolones
67
campylobacter infection is the commonest cause of what illness in the UK?
food poisoning
68
description of E.coli
Diverse group of Gram-negative intestinal bacteria
69
how many pathotypes of E.coli are associated with diarrhoea?
6
70
list pathotypes of E.coli are associated with diarrhoea
``` Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) Enterohaemorrhagic or Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (EHEC/STEC) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC) Diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) ```
71
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) causes what? has what type of toxin?
Cholera like toxin | Watery diarrhoea
72
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) causes what?
Shigella like illness | Bloody diarrhea
73
5-10% of people with Enterohaemorrhagic or Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (EHEC/STEC) have what negative consequence?
haemolytic uraemic syndrome > loss of kidney function
74
management of clostridium difficile
isolation, stop current antibiotics, Metronidazole, Vancomycin, faecal microbiota transplantation
75
recurrence rate of clostridium difficile after initial infection
15-35%