GUM Flashcards

1
Q

What causes Donovanosis

A

gram -ve klebsiella granulomatosis
intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Characteristics of Donovanosis

A

BEEFY PAINLESS
1) painless ulcers and lymphadenopathy
2) Beefy red, vascular pseudobubae
3) biopsy/dark ground
4) India, South Africa and South America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment of Donovanosis

A

azithromycin po OW 500mg 3/52 and until lesions healed
rx if SI <60/7 before symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes chancroid

A

gram -ve haemophilus ducreyi
gram -ve rods, culture/NAAT
biopsy+ giemsa stain- rod shaped inclusion bodies

chancroid= ducreyi /giemsa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Characteristics of Chancroid

A

SHAGGY PAINFUL
painful ulcers and lymphadenopathy- can last 1-3/12
deep, shaggy, purulent and cotnact bleeding
50% bubae (1-2/52 post ulcer)
africa, south asia, Caribbean and latin america

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chancroid treatment

A

azithromycin 1g PO STAT
or can give cipro/cef/erythro
PN 10/7 prior to symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HSV in pregnancy- transmission

A

neonatal 85%
postnatal 10%
utero 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neonatal HSV presentation

A

1/3- 8 days, skin/eye/mouth (best prognosis)
1/3 - 14 days, CNS disease
1/3- 6 days, disseminated (organs, 1 in 4 mortality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of HSV in pregnancy

A

Primary:
aciclovir 400mg TDS 5/7
valaciclovir 500mg BD 5/7
32/40- as above

risk of preterm- 22/40 aciclovir BD or valaciclovir OD
- then switch at 32/40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1st/2nd Trimester presentation of HSV

A

serology
avoid SI 3rd trimester
vaginal delivery if >6/52 (time of asymp shedding)

shedding higher if PLWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3rd trimester presentation of HSV
(28/40 to 4/52 postpartum)

A

Serology
CS (IV intrapartum if declines)
pp may have shed during delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ulcers in pregnancy

A

Do NAAT to confirm matches serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Presentation in labour- HSV

A

Primary- CS
Recurrence- NVD (0-3% risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HSV and BF

A

recommend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discordant couple

A

serology
avoid SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atripla

A

CONTAINS Efavirenz
enzyme inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Penicillins

A

bactericidal. Inhibit cell wall synthesis. gram +ve/-ve
bind to penicillin binding proteins, inhibit peptide crosslinking= autolytic enzymes

B lactamase-> resistance
benpen is inactivated po

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cephalosporins

A

bactericidal
more resistant to b lactamase than penicillins
-have dihydrothiazine ring on B lactam)
broad spectrum, disturb colonic flora= diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tetracyclines

A

bacteriostatic
uptake into bacteria by active transport system= irreversibly bind to ribosomes
gram +ve/-ve
less uptake= resistance

tertrA
stAtic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

macrolides

A

eg azithro
static/cidal
reversibly bind to ribosomes, prevents translocation along mRNA
ribosome mutation= resistance

bOth

macrO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Metronidazole pharmacology

A

bactericidal
inhibit DNA synthesis
anti protozoal/anaerobes
resistance is rare

400mg BD for 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nitrofurantoin pharmacology

A

uncertain MoA, ?DNA metabolic changes
gram +ve/ e.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aciclovir

MoA

A

selective phosphorylation into infected cells by viral thymidine kinase
inhibit DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

triazole

A

eg fluconazole
resistance is rare
broad spectrum
inhibit fungal lipid synthesis in cell membranes-ergosterol
changes oxidative enzymes- reduced growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

imidazole

A

eg clotrimazole
broad spectrum
inhibit fungal lipid synthesis in cell membranes-ergosterol
changes oxidative enzymes- reduced growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chlamydia microbiology

A

obligate intracellular bacterium
trachoma biovar- epithelial cells of mucuous membranes
LGV biovar- can invade lymphatic tissues (L1-3)

A-C ocular
D-K genital/ocular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Populations with high risks of chlamydia

A

75% cases in <25yo
-1.5-4.3% population
3-10% rectal MSM
0.5-2.3% pharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Chlamydia concordance

A

up to 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Chlamydia spontaneous clearance

A

50% at 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chlamydia- proportion asymptomatic

A

50% M and 70% F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Complications of chlamydia

A

SARA <1%
PID 1-30% (16% untreated)
Tubal infertility 1-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vertical transmission of chlamydia

A

5-12 days- ophthalmia neonatorum
1-3/12- pneumonia

direct contact with genital tract

oral erythro 50mg/kg/d QDS 14/7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chlamydia incubation

A

1-3/52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chlamydia testing

A

VVS 96-98%
POCT 82-84%

TOC: (after 5 weeks)
Pregnant
Incorrect treatment
reinfection

PLWH
-test for LGV
-TOC
-rx for 3/52 if not or TOC 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LGV population

A

8.2x more likely in PLWH
Endemic:
South/West Africa
Madagascar
SE asia
India
Caribbean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

LGV Incubation

A

3-30/7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

LGV symptoms

A

Primary:
papule/ulcer
often in the coronal sulcus
haemorrhagic proctitis

Secondary:
lymphadenitis/bubo
groove sign 15-20%

Tertiary:
Genito-anorectal syndrome
-most recover before this
chronic inflammatory tissue destruction (more common F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

LGV rx

A

Doxycycline 100mg BD 3/52
- erythromycin 500mg QDS 3/52
-azithromycin 1g OW 3/52

nil TOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gonorrhoea transmission

A

50-90% M to F
20% F to M (60-80% after 4x SI)

C4 coinfection 19% (25% M 40% F 7% MSM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gonorrhea incubation

A

3-5/7 urethral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Gonorrhea sensitivities

A

smear M
90-95% symp 50-75% asymp
Smear F 20-50%
NAAT >95% (unlicensed if extragenital)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When to do pharyngeal swab for GC

A

Diagnosed genital +
-cef resistant
-asia pacific contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Testing in those with genital reconstruction

A

neovagina/urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Gonorrhoea symptoms

A

M >90% 2-5/7
Discharge 80% > dysuria 50%
<10% asymp (pharyngeal/rectal usually)

F >50% asymptomatic
40% discharge
1 in 4 pain
12% dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gonorrhoea complications

A

5-10% F <1% M
14% PID

disseminate (F 3x more likely)

haematogenous spread, rash, tenosynovitis, arthralgia, endocarditis, meningitis, osteomyelitis
= 7/7 ceftriaxone (po switch if improving 24-48hr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gonorrhoea treatment

A

36.4% resistant to cipro
caution:
>60, steroid, kidney, organ transplant

anaphylaxis to penicillin
-gent 240mg IM
-2g azithro po

TOC 7/7 RNA 14/7 DNA
resistant? report to PHE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Primary Syphilis

A

incubation 9-90 (average 21/7)
-depends on infectious dose

Chancre- resolved 3-8/52
1 in 4>secondary 4-10/52 later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Secondary Syphilis

A

50-70% maculopapular rash
pals/soles/scalp
mucous patches
condylomata lata
hepatitis/glomeurolnephritis/splenomegaly
1-2% neurological

resolves 3-12/52

25% get recurrence of secondary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tertiary Syphilis

A

2-7 years:
Meningovascular

10-20 years:
parenchymous

10-30 years:
Cardiovascular

1-46 years (average 15):
Gummatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Congenital Syphilis

A

Normally associated with RPR >1 in 8

2/3 asymptomatic at birth, signs by 5 weeks

Early <2 years:
rash, rhinitis, lypmhadenopathy, skeletal

Late:
chronic/persistent inflammation causes gummatous lesions
- saddle nose
-hutchinson’s incisors
-mulberry molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Syphilis testing

A

1)
EIA/CLIA/TPPA
Treponemal, test for anti-treponemal IgM
2 to confirm
2) Non-trepenemal
TPHA/RPR
>16 suggestive of active disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Prozone phenomenon

A

Secondary/early latent
assay overwhelmed to unable to cross link to form blue colour

repeat 6-12/52 or 2 weeks after chancre
15% of those with chancre have negative serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Syphilis treatment- key points

A

Abstain:
lesion healed
2 weeks after completed

Follow up:
3, 6, 12 months until -ve/serofast
>4 fold increase= failure

longer in later as treponemes divide more slowly
steroids in neuro/cv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Syphilis treatment

A

benzathine penicillin 2.4MU
>14/7 late= restart course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

JH reaction

A

Keep on site 15 minutes after first dose

acute febrile/headache/myalgia
-resolves in 24hrs, supportive rx only
-common in early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Steroids in Syphilis

A

40-60mg OD 3/7
start 24hr prior to rx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Presentation of Syphilis in pregnancy

A

usually late infection
-polyhydramnios
-miscarriage
-PTB
-Stillbirth
-hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Management of syphilis in pregnancy

A

> 26/40- refer to fetal medicine
2 doses in 3rd trimester

May have contractions with JH (?CTG)
pen allergy- desensitisation, if macrolides fetus needs penicillin at birth

Rx >4/52 before delivery:
monitor neonate
<4/52:
treat neonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

MGen background

A

No cell wall- no gram stain
Too slow to culture

FCU 98-100%
VVS 100%

1-2% prevalence in population
15-25% NGU
10-13% PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MGen in pregnancy

A

a/w PTB/miscarriage
if possible avoid rx until after pregnancy
if not possible, 3/7 aizthro (uncertain effectiveness, cannot use moxifloxacin/doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

MGen treatment- principles of

A

abstain 14/7 from starting and until asymptomatic
TOC all

macrolide resistance ~40%
doxy improves effectiveness of azithro by reducing load and resistance mutations

Asia-pacific- emerging resistance to moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

MGen PID/EO treatment

A

14/7 moxifloxacin 400mg OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

MGen treatment

A

MRAM+
Moxifloxacin 400mg PO OD 10/7
Risk:
tendon rupture
hepatotoxicity
c dif

MRAM-
Doxycycline 100mg PO BD 7/7, then azithromycin 3/7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

NSU rx

A

doxycycline 7/7
azithro 3/7 if allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MGen and pregnancy/breastfeeding

A

azithromycin only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

TV key points

A

flagellated protozoan- read slide within 10 mins
associated with preterm birth/low birthweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

TV symptoms

A

10-50% asymptomatic (M+F)
-frothy yellow discharge 10-30%
-strawberry cervix 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

TV Testing

A

microscopy from posterior fornix 40-60% sensitive
-read within ten minutes

NAAT 88-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

TV treatment

A

20-25% spontaneous cure rate
10% disulfuram reaction

allergy?- desensitisation

treatment failure:
-repeat course (40% respond)
-increase dose
-increase dose with gel/cream

TOC if still symptomatic 4 weeks after treatment

1) Metronidazole 400-500mg PO BD 7/7
2) 2g OD (STAT, 5-7/7 for failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

HSV frequency

A

<1/2 symptomatic at acquisition (1/3 HSV2)

4/year HSV2 1 in 18/12 HSV1

Common cause of proctitis but only 1/3 will have ulcers

DSDNA

Suppression is >6 year

71
Q

HSV episodic Treatment

A

If within five days of symptoms/new lesions forming
- reduces severity and duration (1-2/7)
first episode= 5 days

Aciclovir 400mg TDS 5/7
valaciclovir 500mg BD 5/7
famciclovir 250mg TDS 5/7
5% lidocaine ointment

72
Q

HSV suppression

A

aciclovir 400mg BD (TDS from 32 weeks in pregnancy)
>6 per year

High risk preterm- BD from 22 weeks then step up

stop and r/v at 1 year- give two rescue packs- two episodes gives clue on frequency of future recurrences

reduce transmission by 80-90%

73
Q

HSV retention

A

pain

autonomic neuropathy

74
Q

HSV and condoms

A

reduce transmission by 50%
disclosure reduces transmission by 50%

75
Q

Gardasil

A

90% AGW are 6 and 11
most Ca are 16 and 18

gardasil 9= 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52 and 58

76
Q

Genital Warts natural history

A

incubation 3/52 to 8/12
condoms reduce risk by 30-60%

77
Q

Genital Warts in pregnancy- risk to neonate

A

recurrent respiratory papillomatosis 4 in 100,000

78
Q

Genital Warts treatment

A

30% clearance at 6 months

soft, non-keratinised- podyphyllotoxin/imiquimod

79
Q

Contact tracing- Chancroid

A

10 days prior to symptom onsent

80
Q

Contact tracing- chlamydia

A

M- 4 weeks prior to symptoms
F/asymp- six months

81
Q

Contact Tracing- EO

A

as per C4/GC if tested positive
if nil +ve- six months

82
Q

Contact Tracing- GC

A

M- 2/52 prior to symptoms
F/asymp- 3/12

GC 2 and 3
C4 4 and 6

83
Q

Contact Tracing- HAV

A

2/52 prior of jaundice
or estimate time of acquisition

84
Q

Contacting Tracing- HBV

A

2/52 prior to jaundice
children/household

85
Q

Contact tracing- LGV

A

4/52 prior to symptoms

86
Q

Contact Tracing- NGU

A

4/52 prior to symptoms

87
Q

Contact Tracing- PID

A

6/12
or as per infection if any identified

88
Q

Contact tracing- scabies

A

2/12 prior
household

89
Q

Contact tracing- lice

A

3/12

lice=thrice

90
Q

Contact tracing- syphilis

A

primary- 3/12 before symptoms
secondary- 2 years
late- everyone

91
Q

Contacting tracing- TV

92
Q

Pathophysiology of HIV

A

Single stranded RNA retrovirus
HIV attached to CD4 and enters cell
proteins and enzymes released
revers transcriptase- DSDNA
Integrase- HIV DNA joins cell DNA, making new HIV genetic material
Protease- cuts and assembles new HIV
each cell produces new virions

93
Q

Natural History of HIV

A

Enters and infects cells
infected cells travel to lymph nodes (hours)
HIV multiplies in lymph nodes ad they explode, releasing HIV enter blood (days- weeks)
HIV antibodies formed

80% seroconversion illness

94
Q

Stages of HIV

A

Primary <6/12
Secondary >6/12

Late- CD4 <350 or 200 (WHO definition)

95
Q

HIV Testing

A

WP= 45 days

4th generation- IgG/M of p24 antibody
POCT- antibody

96
Q

HIV time to progression to late disease

A

25% 1-2 years
50% 2-10 years
25% 10-15 years

<1%= slow

97
Q

Action of ARVs

A

NRTI/NNRTI- stop HIV RNA to dsDNA conversion
II- stop HIV integration into cell DNA
PI- block new HIV being assembled into virions

98
Q

When to treat ARV

A

within 2 weeks of diagnosis

if active TB, treat that first and then wait 2 weeks, then treat
If meningitis, delay treatment 4-6 weeks

99
Q

Criteria for U=U

A

VL undetectable
taking ARVs daily for 6 months

100
Q

1st line ARVs

A

TDF, emtricitabine, dolutegravir
or
TDF, emtricitabine, bictegravir (Biktarvy)

101
Q

Monitoring after starting ARVs

A

VL every 1-2 months until undetectable
CD4 aim >500 (25-65%)
high risk CVD/metabolic changes due to persistent inflammation
resistance- new diagnosis/blips

102
Q

Ison Hay

A

1= high levels of lactobacilli
2= mixed flora, some lactobacilli but also mobiluncus
3= predominantly gardnerella, mobiluncus, few lactobacilli

103
Q

Amsel’s

A

3 of 4:
thin white homogenous
clue cells
ph >4.5
fishy smell on addition of alkali (gold standard)

104
Q

What is BV?

A

imbalance of vaginal flora, increased number of commensals, reduced number of lactobacilli
-gardnerella, clostridia, leptotrioma

discharge + pH>4.5

105
Q

Treatment of BV

A

metronidazole 400mg BD PO 5-7/7
or metronidazole 0.75% gel OD for 5 days/clindamycin/tinidazole

metronidazole can increase warfarin levels

relapse- 30% at 1/12, 60% 6/12

if symptomatic in pregnancy/RF for PTB/miscarriage

treat before gynae procedures including abortion

106
Q

Recurrent candida- diagnostic criteria

A

4 per year, 2 confirmed on microscopy

107
Q

Candida treatment failure

A

no better in 7-14/7, 10-20%

108
Q

Candida- most common species

A

80-89% albicans, then glabrata/krusei

109
Q

Candida on microscopy

A

blastosphores and neutrophils
pseudohyphae- albicans only

110
Q

Hep B characteristics

A

Hepadna DNA virus
incubation 4-160/7 (average 60-90)

acute- <6 months
chronic- >6 months

18% of partners

HbEAg= acute phase, very infectious
IgM= MAN that’s acute
HbeSAg->IgM->symptoms->IgG

111
Q

Hep B symptoms

A

often asymptomatic in children (up to 50% adults)

Prodrome:
1-3/52 (malaise/anorexia/nausea/taste changes)

Icteric:
2-24/52 (rash->2/52->jaundice)
bruising, myalgia, fever, headache, RUQ pain
raised ALT/bili/INR in liver failure

112
Q

Fulminant hepatitis

A

1% hep a/b
1 in 2 die if no transplant
encephalopathy

113
Q

Outcomes of Hep B

A

90% resolve after acute phase

1% go to fulminant

HbSAG >6/12
<5% adults
90% neonates, 5% by 5yo
resolution
or
asymptomatic carrier
or
chronic
-extrahepatic (PAN/glomerulonepritis)
-cirrhosis (50%, then 20% of these go to failure)
-carcinoma 25%

114
Q

Chronic hepatitis B

A

HbSAg >6 months
may have similar symptoms to acute:
cirrhosis, carcinoma, cryoglobulinemia, glomerulonephritis, failure
M>F

115
Q

Bloods for HBV- infection

A

HBSAg +
HBV Core Ab +
HBV antigen +/-

116
Q

Bloods for HBV- cleared

A

HBSAg -
Core Ab +
Surface Ab +

117
Q

Bloods for HBV- immunised

A

surface antibody + only

118
Q

HBV Seroconversion

A

developing antibodies against surface antigen

119
Q

Who to vaccinate for HBV

A

MSM
IVDU
CSW
PEPSE
HCV/HIV
partner <6/52
babies to infected mothers

Immunoglobulin- <7/7

120
Q

HBV vaccine schedules

A

Ultrarapid- 0, 7/7, 21/7, 12/12
Response- 4-12/52 in 80%
12/12 in 95%

Normal:
0, 1, 3, 12/12

up to 6 weeks after exposure

121
Q

Treatment of HBV

A

> 30 years old, DNA >2000 IU/ml with deranged ALT x 2 3 months apart

<30 and fibrosis

cirrhosis
if about to have immunosuppression, treat before starting and continue for 6 months

1) Peginterferon alpha 2a
2) TDF/entacavir

122
Q

HBV and the neonate

A

Can BF if baby immunised

HBSag+ but EAg-ve = vaccine
SAG+ and EAg +ve- vaccine and HBIG

can vaccinate mum in pregnancy

123
Q

CHC and acute hepatitis

124
Q

HAV characteristics

A

picorna RNA virus

incubation 15-40/7 (average 28 days)

contaminated food/water/travel to areas

no chronic state but may have a relapse

suPportive, Picorna

125
Q

HAV clinical features

A

3-6 week incubation
<6 years old likely asymptomatic
severity increases with age

126
Q

HAV symptoms

A

Prodrome
flu-like + RUQ pain
3-10/7

Icteric
Jaundice, anorexia, fatigue, nausea (1-3 weeks)

Severe
Liver failure (more likely if also chronic HBV/HCV)
less than 0.1% mortality

almost all recover with lifelong immunity but small risk relapse

IgM +ve 45-60/7

127
Q

HAV treatment

A

Supportive (avoid paracetamol)

follow up weekly until LFTs normalise

notifiable disease
1% fulminant

give vaccine up to 14 days from exposure

128
Q

HAV vaccination

A

0 and 6-12 months
give as PEP if less than 14 days since exposure

129
Q

PrEP dose

A

TDF 245mg + emtricitabine 200mg

ok if pregnant/BF
86-97% efficacy

130
Q

PrEP dosing

A

Same biological efficacy:
-2 tablets 24-48hr before sex and then daily until 48hrs after last sex

-daily OD (7 day lead in, 7 days after)
only option for RVI

131
Q

PrEP side effects

A

nausea and vomiting/GI
dizziness
headache
non-progressive and reversible damage to proximal convoluted tubule (TAF if eGFR <60)
BMD- small risk, only of concern if other risk factors

132
Q

PrEP- high risk <4/52

A

add VL to bloods

133
Q

HBV immunity- bloods

A

HbSAb
>100 immune
10-100 ?booster
<10 resume (first test for infection)

10-15% non responders
only test for response if CKD or occupational exposure

134
Q

GFR and PrEP

A

> 90 and age >40= annual
60-90 and >40 or RF= 6 months

135
Q

PrEP missed pill rules

A

frontal sex- <6 doses in 7 days
anal sex- <4 doses in 7 days

136
Q

PEP dose

A

TDF 245mg + emtricitabine 200mg + raltegravir 400mg BD

137
Q

When to initiate PEP

A

72 hours

Risk source is PLWH and +ve VL x risk exposure

> 1 in 1000= give
1 in 10000 = consider

otherwise not recommended

138
Q

High risk PEP

A

concomitant STI
trauma/bleeding
group sex
transgender

139
Q

Type of sex/PEP

A

Known HIV + and unknown VL or high risk group:
RAI offer
IAI consider

Known HIV + and unknown VL
RVI offer
IVI consider
(not if high risk group)

140
Q

OI and PEP

A

Not recommended

141
Q

Needlestick and PEP

A

PLWH + unknown VL
offer

Unknown HIV status
not recommended

142
Q

Risks of PEP

A

TDF- tubular nephropathy
mild ALT increase (reversible)

nausea, vomiting, GI, dizziness
-take at night
-anti-emetics

BASHH Recommends-
LFT at initiation and 4 weeks
U+Es at 2 and 4 weeks
HIV at 4-6 weeks

143
Q

PEP missed pills

A

1= continue
2= efficacy lost, consider stopping

144
Q

Factors affecting raltegravir absorption

A

Mg
Fe
Ca
Gaviscon

145
Q

BV new study

A

150 couples
recurrence lower in partner treatment group (35% v 63%)

oral metronidazole and topical clindamycin 50% men had s/e

-2.6 AR difference

146
Q

Most common cause of discharge in F

147
Q

BV treatment

A

metronidazole 400mg PO BD 5-7 days
metronidazole 2g STAT
PV gel 0.5% OD 5/7

clindamycin cream (2%) once daily for 7 days

148
Q

Candidiasis treatment

A

1st line= fluconazole 150mg PO STAT (avoid if risk of pregnancy)
2nd line= clotrimazole 500mg PV STAT

80% cure rate, no difference in outcomes, fluconazole 7-30x cheaper

consider asymptomatic colonisation (30-40%)

can trial cetirizine 10mg OD for itch

149
Q

Resistant candida

A

azole resistance=100,000 nystatin pessaries for 14 nights

Nystatin resistance= 600mg boric acid PV 14 nights

150
Q

acute VVC in pregnancy

A

clotrimazole 500mg PV ON for up to 7 nights

four day course cures 40%
7 day course cures >90%

BF- avoid fluclox, ok if one singular dose but avoid if repeated

151
Q

Gonorrhoea treatment

A

Ceftriaxone 1g IM STAT
ciprofloxacin 500mg PO (if susceptibility known prior to treatment)
-resistance around 36%

Ideally only treat those who test positive, within 14 days of exposure may be able to offer epidemiological treatment

152
Q

Primary v Non Primary HSV

A

Primary: First infection HSV-1 or 2 with no antibodies to either

Non-Primary- infection of one type with only antibodies to the other type

30% tender inguinal lymphadenitis

153
Q

CS for HSV

A

If primary or non primary in 3rd trimester (>28 weeks)
-delivery within 6 weeks of acquisition

If lesions present at birth can offer NVD if confident lesions are that of reccurence
0-3% risk

154
Q

aciclovir-safety in pregnancy

A

not licensed
no reports of abnormalities
small amount in breast milk

overall considered safe

155
Q

HSV 4 weeks postpartum

A

Likely shedding at time of delivery
consider baby as very high risk

156
Q

Management of clinically discordant couples

A

avoid SI in 2nd trimester and 2 weeks prior
recommend abstinence of all sexual activity, if decline:
condoms
suppressive rx to partner

157
Q

HAV in pregnancy

A

supportive rx only
increased risk PTB/miscarriage

158
Q

HBV in pregnancy

A

vaccinating newborn reduces transmission by 90%
increased risk PTB/miscarriage
consider TDF from 3rd trimester

159
Q

HCV treatment in pregnancy

A

Ribavirin is teratogenic, avoid treatment in pregnancy

160
Q

phthirus pubis in pregnancy

A

1% permethrin, keep on for ten minutes and then rinse

161
Q

Phthirus pubis management

A

incubation 5 days to 7 weeks

  • Malathion 0.5%. Apply to dry hair and wash out after at least 2 butpreferably, 12 hours ie overnight
  • Permethrin 1% cream rinse. Apply to damp hair and wash out after 10 minutes (can be use on lashes)

retreat 5-7 days, re-examine at 1 week
examine sexual partners
avoid close contact in this time

162
Q

Scabies management

A

incubation 3-6 weeks

permethrin 5% cream8-12 hours,
malathion aqueous 0.5% liquid 24 hours

Bedding, clothing, and towels used by infested persons or their close contacts during the four days before treatment - wash over 60 degrees or seal in a bag 72 hours

repeat treatment at 1 week
current partners and household contacts need rx

itch worse at night, may persist up to 2 weeks, beyond this consider reinfection

163
Q

FCU

A

> 1 hour
first 20ml

164
Q

VVS

A

2-3 inches
10-30s

165
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Doxycycline 100mg BD PO 7/7
abstain until finished course
azithroymycin 1g PO STAT then 500mg PO OD 2/7
abstain until 7 days after rx

166
Q

Quinolones pharmacology

A

inhibit DNA gyrase
bactericidal

167
Q

Recurrent BV- first line

A

0.75% gel twice weekly for 4–6 months

168
Q

hep e

A

test everyone with unexplained hepatitis
25% mortality 3rd trimester

169
Q

HBIG

A

Given within 48hrs of exposure, with vaccine

if at high risk of complications (ie non responder, old, unwell)

if previous vaccine just give a booster dose

170
Q

HBV advice

A

avoid alcohol
avoid SI until HBsAG -ve/partner vaccinated
avoid donation
PN

infectious 2 weeks before jaundice until 1 week after

171
Q

HCV

A

RNA flaviviridae
PLWH/PWID
incubation 4-20 weeks
>60% asymp

up to 9 months for serology to be +ve

> 90% cure at 8-12 weeks

172
Q

HCV sequelae

A

up to 45% clear
50-85% untreated= chronic hep c
-very few resolve
10-20% cirrhosis (20-30 years)
-Ca 1-% decomp 3-6%

173
Q

HCV treatment

A

DAA

cure if HCV RNA -ve 12 weeks after rx

PN to time of infection
vacc against other
alcohol- avoid
notifiable

Sjorgren’s, GN, athritis

174
Q

HSV in PLWH

A

HSV activated HIV replications (increased chance of acquisition)
recurrence more common, as is rx failure
continue rx until lesions re-epithelialized
double dose in advanced HIV