Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FINALS > GU > Flashcards

GU Flashcards

1
Q

 what cells are found within the seminiferous tubules?

A

Germ cells/ Sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the function of germ cells?

A

Allow the process of spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the steps of spermatogenesis?

A

spermatogonia - spermatocytes - spermatids - spermatozoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the function of Sertoli cells?

A

They are the true epithelium of the seminiferous epithelium/ support germ cell development and secrete inhibin which enhances FSH biosynthesis and secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are Peritubular Miotubular cells?

A

surround the seminiferous tubules and make up part of the smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where our Leydig cells found?

A

Within the interstitium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a function of Leydig cells?

A

Secrete testosterone and other androgens as well as presenting macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the blood supply to the testicles?

A

testicular arteries however it also has collateral blood supplies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe the branching of the testicular arteries?

A

Arise from the abdominal aorta and descend through the inguinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what blood supply supplies the scrotum and the rest of the external genitalia?

A

external Pudinal artery and branches of the internal Ilac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the venous drainage of the testicles?

A

Veins formed from the pump in the form of plexus in the scrotum/ the left testicle drains into the left renal vein the right testicle drains into the inferior VC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what tests are good for imaging the upper urinary tract?

A

CT with contrast or ultrasound scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when our ultrasound scans most commonly used when imaging the urinary tract?

A

in accident and emergency for acute situations as they have a lower sensitivity than CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what investigations are indicated for anyone with haematuria that is unexplained from a simple cause such as UTI?

A

Either CT or ultrasound and cystoscopy of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of CT is used when investigating human Tory or wanting to visualise the urinary tract?

A

CT urogram with IV contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when would you not want to use contrast?

A

If someone has severe kidney failure/ allergies/ or if wanting to view kidney stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does a reducible hernia mean?

A

When the contents of the area can be manipulated back into its original position during the defect from which it emerges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does an irreducible hernia mean?

A

the hernia is compressed by the defect causing it to be irreducible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is an obstructed hernia?

A

mainly refers to hernias containing bowel with the contents of the hernia compressed to the extent that the bowel lumen is no longer patents and causes bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a strangulated hernia?

A

The compression around the hernia prevents blood flow into the hernias content causing ischaemia and tissue pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is one of the most common causes of lump in the groin?

A

Inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the path of the inguinal ligament

A

the inguinal ligament runs between the AAS IIS and the pubic tubercular/ this forms the inguinal canal/ inguinal canal allows for the passage of the spermatic cord and the round ligament as well as the ilioinguinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a direct inguinal hernia?

A

A hernia caused by a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal/ causes abdominal contents to enter the inguinal canal and go to the superficial ring but does not pass through the superficial ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

the abdominal contents passes through both deep inguinal ring through the inguinal canal to the superficial ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is an easy way to distinguish a direct from an indirect hernia?

A

If you press on whether deep inguinal ring is and you can reduce the hernia then it means it is an indirect hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are causes of inguinal hernias?

A

Increased intra-abdominal pressure/ weakness of the abdominal muscles/ chronic cough, constipation, heavy lifting, being elderly and obese also risk factors for hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how would you diagnose an inguinal hernia?

A

Diagnosis is usually clinical with examination but ultrasound scan can be used to aid diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a typical presentation of an inguinal hernia?

A

The development of a painless swelling in the groin over time (although can occur suddenly after heavy lifting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the presentation of a symptomatic inguinal hernia?

A

Pain particularly on increasing intra-abdominal pressure/ change in bowel habits such as constipation/ pain or burning sensation in the groin/ scrotal swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the management of an asymptomatic hernia?

A

If it is small and not increasing in size then it can be left alone otherwise it should be treated on elective surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the management of asymptomatic inguinal hernia?

A

Surgery either open or laparoscopic if anything is strangulated or obstructed then emergency surgery is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what structures are found beneath the inguinal ligament?

A

femoral artery femoral vein femoral nerve femoral canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where would a femoral hernia usually occur?

A

The femoral canal – abdominal contents protrudes through it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

why are femoral hernias particularly problematic?

A

They are at high risk of strangulation and obstruction as it is bordered by the lacuna ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are risk factors associated with femoral hernias?

A

Elderly women who have had childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the presentation of a femoral hernia?

A

Swelling can be in the groin like an inguinal hernia however it is usually closer to the upper thigh/ can cause hip pain as well as pain at the site of herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what other benefits of laparoscopic surgery, and what are its cons?

A

Involves less pain, less scarring, shorter recovery times but more expensive than open surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what other most common causes of uro sepsis?

A

UTI / obstruction in urinary flow causing urinary stasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Were the most common locations for an obstructed kidney?

A

pelvicureteric junction vericoureteric junctionn ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what investigations do you need to perform in urosepsis?

A

sepsis six and gaining IV access/ taking blood cultures urine cultures/ finding out if there is any obstructive cause using CT (no contrast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the management of urosepsis?

A

starting empirical antibiotics until cultures come back/ if there is obstruction then a ureteric stent can be placed or a nephrostomy until obstruction is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what do you need to ensure in the management of over 65’s?

A

That you ensure gram-negative pseudomonas is covered using penicillin or cephalosporins with gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is a femoral aneurysm?

A

usually classes in a classes ileo femoral aneurysm which can either be on the Ilac or femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the most common cause of of femoral aneurysm?

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how does atherosclerosis lead to aneurysm?

A

Information associated with the atherosclerosis leads to the destruction and thinning of a vascular wall making it weaker/ specifically in the tunica media is weekend and this leads to dilation of the vessels forming an aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the presentation of A femoral aneurysm?

A

usually asymptomatic until there is embolisation or rupture however sometimes a pulsatile mass may be felt at the groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is an easy way to distinguish between an aneurysm and a hernia?

A

They may feel very similar but there aneurysm you would hear bruit and vascular flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

patient presents with acute groin pain and signs of tachycardia what should be one of your initial diagnoses?

A

ruptured femoral aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

apart from groin pain what other symptoms can a ruptured femoral aneurysm cause?

A

Weakness of the leg swelling and numbness due to compression of nerves and obstructions nearby / those of acute limb ischaemia / pain paraesthesia paralysis pulse list nurse pallor perishing with cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

if you suspect a ruptured femoral artery what investigations should you perform?

A

Duplex ultrasound scan looking at proximal and distal arteries/ CT angiography is then used/ bloods for shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is blue toe syndrome?

A

tissue ischaemia secondary to cholesterol or greater in bottle embolus/ can occur if a clot forms due to an aneurysm and then dislodges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the management of a femoral aneurysm?

A

it is indicated if symptomatic or if larger than 3 cm , rapidly expanding, coexisting AAA, any complications present -give surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is testicular torsion?

A

and emergency caused by the twisting of testicles on the spermatic cord/ leads to constriction of the vascular supply/ causes rapid ischaemia and necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the presentation of testicular torsion?

A

sudden onset of severe scrotal pain/ associated nausea and vomiting/ no relief of pain upon elevation of scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what can cause testicular torsion?

A

Trauma or inflammatory/infective causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what symptoms would indicate that infection/inflammation has caused testicular torsion

A

fever dysuria frequency pain discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what features in the history of testicular torsion would support your diagnosis( apart from symptoms)?

A

history of intermittent or acute on and off pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how would testicular torsion present in a patient with undescended testes?

A

sudden abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what features might you find on examination of testicular torsion?

A

Severe tenderness/ test is higher than the unaffected testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what physical features may be present in a delayed presentation of testicular torsion?

A

Erythema and oedema and reactive hydrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how would you diagnose testicular torsion?

A

any indication of testicular torsion means that the patient should be rushed for all exploratory laparoscopy surgery do not waste time with ultrasound and Doppler’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the management of testicular torsion?

A

aim to treat within 4 to 6 hours/ immediate urological consultation for emergency scrotal exploration/ than surgery of all Kiddo plexi however if there is no reperfusion orchidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is epididymitis?

A

Inflammation of the epididimis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the most common agents which cause epididymitis?

A

Chlamydia nessieria gonorrhoea Mycoplasma genitalium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the presentation of epididymitis?

A

unilateral pain and swelling/ erythema and tender enlargement of the epididymis / systemic features may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is an important differential to exclude in epididymitis?

A

Testicular torsion - consider if there is a sudden and severe onset with initial examination showing no evidence of inflammation or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what conditions usually accompany epididymitis?

A

Epididymoorchitis or urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how would you investigate Epididymitis?

A

Urine dipstick/ first void urine sample for N AAT (chlamydia and gonorrhoea) urethral swab for Gram stain if there is accompanying urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the management of epididymitis?

A

Once the cultures come back, with antibiotics stop and discontinue amiodarone if used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

patient presents with a hot swollen erythema to Hemi Scruton the testicle and the epidermis is very tender to touch there is discharge and some symptoms of El UTS he reported having had a fever in party days what is most likely diagnosis?

A

epididimoorchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is Epididimoorchitis?

A

an infection of both the epididymitis and the testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what pathogen is usually because epididymal orchitis?

A

E. coli or STIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how would you investigate epididymoorchitis?

A

full STI screen with urine dipstick and urine cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what antibiotics would you give to cover E. coli?

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how long should you give antibiotics to cover epididymo orchitis?

A

10 – 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

a patient presents with L UTS dysuria and urinary frequency perineal or genital pain some signs of urinary obstruction – urinary stream diminished or slowing stream as well as a low-grade fever what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

as well as pain in the perineal or genital regions where else can prostatitis cause pain?

A

Scrotum testes suprapubic lower back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the most common cause for prostatitis?

A

E coli or STIs if untreated and ascend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what findings would be present on DRE in a patient with prostatitis?

A

Intensely tender prostate gland which may also feel abnormally soft and boggy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what investigations need to be performed in prostatitis?

A

urinalysis urine cultures blood cultures- in febrile patients with acute symptoms PSA may be performed- raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the management of prostatitis?

A

Antibiotic therapy – quinolone PO, if signs of sepsis then gave Paran Terrell antibiotics of broad-spectrum penicillin cephalosporins all quinolone with gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the name of the pathogen that causes chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what are the symptoms of chlamydia in women?

A

85% of women are asymptomatic/ post coital or inter menstrual bleeding/ odourless vaginal discharge/ dysuria/ pelvic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what are symptoms of chlamydia which goes untreated in females?

A

Complications of untreated STI’s can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease as it assigns into the urogenital tract causing fever myalgia nausea and vomiting pelvic or abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what are the symptoms of chlamydia in a male?

A

Dysuria clear white urethral discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the symptoms of untreated chlamydia in males?

A

can cause epididymitis prostatitis epididimoorchitis and some systemic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

how do you test for chlamydia?

A

First pass urine test swabs from high vagina or urethra and NAHT testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the management of chlamydia?

A

If there is a high index of suspicion you don’t have to wait until test results to begin antibiotics/ doxycycline is used for seven days (azithromycin is another option)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is involved in a full STI screen?

A

First pass urine/ high vagina charcoal swab endocervical charcoal swab endocervical NAHT test/ swab or urethral in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what pathogen causes gonorrhoea?

A

Gram-negative diplo coccus Neisseria gonorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the presentation of gonorrhoea in a male?

A

Thick green yellow discharge muco purulent/ dysuria + urethral pruritus (sx of urethritis)/ and if it ascends can cause symptoms of prostatitis and epididimoorchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the symptoms of gonorrhoea in females?

A

Yellow green vaginal discharge pelvic pain fever pain on urination and intermenstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What would be the rectal presentation of gonorrhoea?

A

rectal pruritus muco purulent discharge usually with bowel movements/ rectal pain and sometimes rectal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is a common complication of untreated gonorrhoea?

A

PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is disseminated gonococcal infections?

A

where skin and siyovium the manifestations occur as well as systemic features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is the management of gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what is the pathogen which causes syphilis?

A

Trepenema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How is syphilis spread?

A

Contact with a syphilitic lesion on the genitals or mucous membrane it can also be passed on congenitally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is the presentation of syphilis and which is the main symptom to be aware of?

A

Solitary painless genital ulcer! In the anogenital or cervical area mouth ulcers may also be present and regional lymphadenopathy are all features of primary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what does a painful lesions suggestive of syphilis indicate?

A

Coinfection with genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what do multiple alterations in primary syphilis indicate?

A

Coinfection of HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

when does secondary syphilis occur?

A

4 to 8 weeks after primary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the presentation of secondary syphilis ?

A

Systemic features /arthralgia/generalised lymphadenopathy/symmetrical maculopapular rash on palms and soles of feet also on trunk and scalp which may ulcerate/mucosal ulceration causing snail track pulses ulceration on genitals/patchy alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is neuro syphilis?

A

Uncommon to have in primary or secondary syphilis however specific organ involvement of the brain can cause headaches meningismus hearing loss and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what are some areas of specific organ involvement which can occur in secondary syphilis?

A

Neurological/ ophthalmological - iritis uveitis and choridoretinitis / vasculitis - causing nephrotic syndrome or hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is the definition of latent syphilis?

A

A patient is seropositive with the absence of any clinical features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

how do you diagnose syphilis?

A

swab testing and PCR from lesion and additional serological testing / if anyone is presenting with neurological symptoms than a CSF PCR should be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is management syphilis?

A

IM benzylpenicillin unless is neurological involvement in which case give IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is trichomoniasis?

A

Infection caused by protozoan parasitic infection called trichomonal vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is the presentation of trichomonas in women??

A

Usually asymptomatic but can cause: itching burning redness or soreness of the genitals/ discomfort urinating/ changing vaginal discharge- pain or increased volume which can be clear white yellow or green/ unusual fishy smell/ discomfort during sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is the presentation of trichomonas in men?

A

usually is asymptomatic: Itching or irritation inside the penis burning after urinating or ejaculating/ discharge/ soreness and swelling and redness of the head of the penis or the foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

how do you diagnose trichomonas?

A

swabbing either the penis or the vagina and looking for the parasite under the microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How do you manage trichomonas?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the presentation of Thrush in women?

A

white dial discharge – cottage cheese appearance/ no unusual smell/ itching and irritation around the vagina and vulva/ soreness and stinging during sex or when you Pee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is a presentation of Thrush in men?

A

irritation or burning and redness around the head of the penis and under the foreskin/ white discharge like cottage cheese/ unpleasant smell/ difficulty pulling back the foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what are some signs of severe vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

erythema which can extend to the labia majora and perineum/ vaginal for showing or oedema/ excoriation of the vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

is thrush an STI?

A

Technically no but can still be spread from sexual partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what investigations are necessary in thrush?

A

high vaginal carbon swab/ can be a swab taken from patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is the management of thrush?

A

pessary- clotramiozloe or fluconazole - PO/ if younger than 15 prescribed topical cream only/ if there are only vulval symptoms then prescribed topical only - top clotramidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what should you check in a patient who has recurrent or severe infections of thrush?

A

HbA1c and offer STI screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is a hypospadias?

A

Abnormality of the penis where the ureteric opening is not in its normal position- it is a congenital condition

122
Q

on newborn examination of the male genitals you notice that the urethra has its opening on the mid shaft what is this?

A

ventral urethral meatus – hypospadias

123
Q

on newborn examination of male genitalia you noticed that there is failure of the foreskin to fuse ventrally - what is this?

A

hooded dorsal foreskin hypospadias

124
Q

a 16 year old patient presents to you worried because they noticed that on erection there is a severe ventral curvature of the shaft of their penis what is this??

A

Chordee hypospadias

125
Q

what are some complications of hypospadias?

A

Inability to make traits in a normal direction/ erectile dysfunction/ deformity

126
Q

What is the management of a hypospadias??

A

corrective surgery in patients younger than two years for the best outcome if possible aims of surgery to get a terminal urethral meatus a straight urinary flow and straight erection as well as a normal cosmetic appearance

127
Q

what are storage symptoms of LUTS?

A

Frequency/ urgency/ nocturia

128
Q

Watts are voiding systems of LUTS

A

weak stream/hesitancy/intermittency/straining/incomplete emptying/ post void dribbling

129
Q

a 60-year-old man presents to you complaining of LUTS- what are the most likely diagnoses?

A

BPH / UTI / Prostate cancer

130
Q

what is benign prostatic enlargement/hyperplasia?

A

There is smooth muscle hyperplasia causing prostatic enlargement symptoms also arise because of central nervous system dysfunction and blood flow dysfunction

131
Q

describe the pathophysiology of benign prostatic enlargement

A

Increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells within the prostate gland usually within the transitional zone of the prostate/ testosterone is converted to dihydrotestosterone by five alpha reductase where it binds to receptors inside the prostate cells causing them to increase their secretions and increase cell division eventually resulting in gland enlargement

132
Q

what is the main hormone that drives BPH? And what enzyme is involved?

A

dihydrotestosterone (testosterone converted by five alpha reductase)

133
Q

which area of the prostate is most affected by BPH?

A

The transitional zone

134
Q

what examination should you perform on a male presenting with L UTS and what is the result for BPH?

A

DRE will reveal soft enlarged gland

135
Q

what investigations should you perform in someone with LUTS?

A

PSA / U+E - check for renal causes of LUTS (may also want to do urine dipstick)

136
Q

why is the PSA not very specific for prostate cancer?

A

Because it can be raised in normal BPH as well as UTIs prostatitis urinary retention catheterisation and ejaculation

137
Q

what is the most important risk factor for developing BPH?

A

Being over 50

138
Q

describe a diagnostic questionnaire which can be used for LUTS?

A

the international prostate scoring symptom score: questionnaire which helps assess the severity of symptoms from mild (0 – 7) moderate (8 – 19) severe (20 – 35)

139
Q

how would you manage mild L UTS?

A

Managed conservatively with lifestyle factors

140
Q

how would you manage moderate L UTS?

A

Alpha blockers (tamsulosin) +/- five alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride)/if any storage symptoms are present add an antique cholinergic drug (oxybutanine)

141
Q

What are side effects of alpha blockers?

A

Anterograde ejaculation dizziness hypertension

142
Q

how do alpha blockers work in terms of BPH?

A

Is an alpha one adrenoceptor antagonist so relaxes smooth muscles

143
Q

how do five alpha reductase inhibitors work?

A

inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone thus reducing prostatic growth it takes six weeks to 6 months to work

144
Q

what are side effects of five alpha reductase inhibitors?

A

Erectile dysfunction reduced libido ejaculatory disorders

145
Q

what is the management of severe L UTS?

A

surgical intervention TURP if this is not possible long term catheter

146
Q

what type of cancer is prostate cancer?

A

Glandular cancer

147
Q

apart from LUTS what other symptoms may be present in prostate cancer and when with these be present ?

A

In more advanced disease the symptoms such as haematuria lethargy bone pain palpable lymph nodes and weight loss

148
Q

what are the indications for referring men for a two-week wait pathway in terms of prostate cancer?

A

Abnormal/malignant DRE or elevated PSA above age specific range

149
Q

when should you offer PS a and D R E testing?

A

any man with L UTS erectile dysfunction or visible haematuria

150
Q

what investigations are done in the 2 week wait pathway? (prostate cancer)

A

MRI is offered before biopsy in order to limits invasive tests But the biopsy is diagnostic/confirms diagnosis

151
Q

what is the management of prostatic cancer?

A

low risk: watchful waiting / elective prostectomy Intermediate risk: radical prostectomy or watchful waiting High risk: NO WATCHFUL WAIT radical prostectomy or chemo + long term androgen deprivation therapy (also needs cancer scores T3/4 or PSA > 40 and NO co morbidities), radio therapy also offered.

152
Q

what are side effects of androgen deprivation therapy?

A

hot flushes sexual dysfunction gynaecomastia and more

153
Q

a young adult male (25) presents to GP with a palpable lump in the testicle which is painless on examination there is no discharge no erythema the lump is non-trans illuminable - what is the most likely diagnosis

A

Testicular cancer

154
Q

what type of cancer is testicular cancer?

A

can be in germ-cell (90%) or non-germ-cell tumours

155
Q

what are examples of germ-cell tumours?

A

seminomas / teratoma/ choriocarcinoma / yolk sac

156
Q

what are red flags for testicular cancer?

A

Haemoptysis / bone or back pain / weight loss/ fatigue / night sweats / loss of apetite

157
Q

what are risk factors associated with testicular cancer?

A

Aged 20 – 45/Caucasian/cryptoorchidism/previous testicular cancer/HIV/family history of testicular cancer

158
Q

if you suspect testicular cancer what is the first line investigation?

A

ultrasound scan of the testis

159
Q

after you have confirmed testicular cancer what other imaging should be performed?

A

Abdominal CT pelvic CT chest x-ray if you suspect any extra testicular mets

160
Q

what markers may be raised in testicular cancer?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (teratoma and yolk sac) serum beta hCG (chorio carcinoma) lactate dehydrogenase (in half of cases)

161
Q

what is the management of testicular cancer?

A

radical inguinal orchidectomy with seeming cryopreservation and testicular prosthesis may be offered

162
Q

what muscle allows for micturition?

A

detrusor

163
Q

Describe the physiology of micturition

A

the detrusor muscle fills and stretches allowing for a constant intra-vesicular pressure (known as stress relaxation) / urine is passed through parasympathetic control / using pelvic nerves S2 – four releasing a CH which works on M3 muscarinic receptors causing the detrusor muscle to contract there is also inhibition in a different pathway resulting in the re-used sympathetic stimulation of the inner urethral sphincter causing relaxation in females urination is assisted by gravity whereas in males there is bulbospungiosus contractions

164
Q

which parasympathetic nervous control micturition?

A

S2-4

165
Q

What receptors are involved in detrusor micturition?

A

ACH controlled M3 Muscarinic

166
Q

what drugs are associated with urinary retention?

A

antiarrhythmic’s anticholinergic (atropine Oxley Peter Nina) antidepressants (amitriptyline) antihistamines (chlorofrenamine) antihypertensives (nifedipine) auntie parkinsonian drugs (amantadine levodopa) antipsychotics (haloperidol) hormonal agents (oestrogen progesterone testosterone) muscle relaxants (baclofen diazepam) anti-adrenergic drugs (phenylphrine) beta-adrenergic drugs - plus carbamazepine dopamine morphine NSAIDS amphetamines

167
Q

what are common causes of obstruction of the urinary tract in males?

A

BPH prostatic cancer for most this paraffin meiosis urethral strangulation stones infection prostatitis clots

168
Q

what are common causes of obstruction of the urinary tract in women?

A

stones cystocele ovarian tumours uterine tumours complication of incontinence surgery PID lblood clots

169
Q

what are some common causes of urinary retention?

A

See image below - in acute urinary retention page

170
Q

describes the difference between acute and chronic presentations of urinary retention?

A

Acute: painful smaller volumes of urine and no long history of LUTS chronic: painless very large volumes of urine insidious onset with often a long history of LUTS

171
Q

what is acute on chronic urinary retention?

A

A history of progressive L UTS followed by an episode of acute retention due to a precipitating event such as UTI or surgery

172
Q

patient presents with difficulty passing urine (possibly anuric) abdominal/suprapubic pain they are restless on examination you note a palpable bladder what is most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute urinary retention

173
Q

what examinations are important to assess in a patient with acute urinary retention?

A

Examine bladder which may be palpable performance DRE to check for an enlarged or abnormal prostate always take neurological examination to see for abnormalities to rule out cauda equina

174
Q

what is the acute management of acute urinary retention?

A

A senior should be informed do ABCDE and gain IV access, insert a two-way catheter unless there is a history of haematuria in which case a three-way catheter, record residual volumes and send urine samples from the catheter

175
Q

what investigations are required in acute urinary retention?

A

Urine sample after catheter is inserted, FBC and Urea, creatinine + electroytes, con do imaging USS/Ct to try and find cause

176
Q

what is a TW OC?

A

trial without catheter

177
Q

what drug is required by patients with L UTS history to help them pass their TW OC?

A

Alpha blockers (tamsulosin) +/- five alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride)/if any storage symptoms are present add an antique cholinergic drug (oxybutanine)

178
Q

why can diuresis occur in some patients after having a catheter inserted?

A

Occurs as the bladder is being decompressed

179
Q

what are indications for high pressure chronic urinary retention?

A

large residual volume (1L+) deranged renal function

180
Q

what is the discharge of a patient with high pressure chronic retention?

A

go home with a catheter in situ may need overnight observation as patients often develop haematuria and diuresis

181
Q

what is a hydrocele?

A

an accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis

182
Q

What causes of secondary hydrocele?

A

malignancy trauma infection torsion

183
Q

what other different types of hydrocele?

A

primary secondary/ communicating or non-communicating

184
Q

what are non-communicating hydrocele caused by stroke their pathophysiology?

A

and increased production of fluid by the tunica vaginalis / reduce resorption of fluid / impairment in lymphatic drainage

185
Q

what is the pathophysiology of communicating hydrocele?

A

they communicate with the peritoneum due to a patented processus vaginalis / these can change in size when standing versus lying down/ due to increased intra-abdominal pressure

186
Q

what is the main diagnostic feature of a hydrocele?

A

painless swollen scrotum in one or both sides which feels like a water-filled balloon

187
Q

which type of patients develop primary hydrocele?

A

male infants and newborns - usually resolved within first year of life

188
Q

what is the management of hydrocele?

A

if over 2 y + discomfort : surgery otherwise watch and wait

189
Q

what is a variocele?

A

a dilatation of the testicular veins which van be unilateral or bilateral

190
Q

what usually causes a variocele?

A

usually caused by an incompetent valve of the spearmatic vein

however can also be a feature of renal cancer (L sided renal cancer)

191
Q

why does L sided renal cancer cause variocele?

A

as it can involve the L renal vein causing obstruction of the L spermatic vein auseing L sided hydrocele

192
Q

what all complications of as it can involve the L renal vein causing obstruction of the L spermatic vein auseing L sided hydrocele ?

A

may impede asked that adolescents testicular growth - large variocele is associated with small testes - and affect adults and their reproduction - 40% of men being evaluated in fertility clinics will have variocele

193
Q

what is a presentation of variocele?

A

feels like a bag of worms/feels like a dragging sensation/aching

194
Q

how do you diagnose a variocele?

A

using ultrasound

195
Q

what is the management of variocele?

A

small and not causing many disturbances: conservative watch and wait / if there is a large size difference between the two testicles ports affecting fertility/testicular growth: surgical ligation or embolisation

196
Q

what are the different ways you can classify undescended testes?

A

palpable/impalpable / maldescended/ectopic

197
Q

what is a maldescended testes?

A

testes that lies somewhere along the normal path of descent – most common

198
Q

what is an ectopic testes?

A

Lies outside the normal path of decent often lying in the thigh, perineum, opposite side of the scrotum

199
Q

when are undescended testes usually diagnosed?

A

During the newborn baby check the scrotum is checked to see if the testes are palpable

200
Q

what are palpable undescended testes?

A

Most common type of undescended testes are palpable ones usually within the upper portion of the scrotum or the inguinal canal during the exam the testicle can be felt and looked down into the scrotum (retractile)

201
Q

are retractable test is considered normal?

A

Yes they do not require surgical intervention

202
Q

what should you be careful of in retractable testes?

A

they are of a high risk of progression to an ascending testicle meaning that they require recurrent checks

203
Q

what is the management of undescended testes?

A

Mainly resolve spontaneously within six months of corrected gestation age this is more common in premature babies, if the testes are palpable and require surgery then orchid a plexi is performed if they are impalpable laparoscopy is used to identify the testes and bring it down into the scrotum if it’s viable

204
Q

what test is recommended in children with undescended testes?

A

Karyotyping

205
Q

what are the different types of impalpable testes?

A

abdominal (40%) vessels and vast and blindly in the deep inguinal ring (30%) vessels and bass ending blindly within the inguinal link (20%) testes existing within the inguinal canal (10%)

206
Q

what does an blind ended underfunded testicle mean?

A

Testes is no longer existent and most likely this is been caused by intrauterine testicular torsion

207
Q

what complications can occur if you do not treat and undescended testes?

A

Infertility/torsion/testicular cancer – doesn’t increase the risk that the testes can never be examined

208
Q

What is an epididymal cyst?

A

A fluctuating swelling that is separate from the body of the testis

209
Q

what are the symptoms of an epididymal cyst?

A

Palpable lump within the epididymis/ difficult to transilluminate/ may be painful or painless/ vary greatly in size

210
Q

how do you diagnose an epididymal cyst?

A

ultrasound

211
Q

what is the management of epididymal cysts?

A

management depends on the size and severity of symptoms treatment options are conservative and surgical excision

212
Q

what is a sebaceous cyst?

A

hall cysts usually containing a white/yellowish substance

213
Q

what is the presentation of a sebaceous cyst?

A

Palpable lump within the scrotal skin/ tethered to the skin and is separate to the underlying testis/lamp feels rubbery/non-transit innumerable/often multiple cysts/not painful

214
Q

what does a painful sebaceous cyst indicate?

A

Infection

215
Q

what is the management of a sebaceous cyst?

A

Conservative unless they are very large or infected then surgery

216
Q

What are risk factors for incontinence?

A

Older age/female/oestrogen deficiency (postmenopausal)/anatomical disorders (fistula)/childbirth and pregnancy/abdominal, pelvic, perineal and prostate surgery/ diabetes and smoking/obesity/urinary tract infection/poor mobility/neurological disorders (MS, Parkinson’s, spinal-cord injury)

217
Q

a patient presents with: in voluntary leakage of urine on exertion also when coughing/sneezing or laughing what is the diagnosis?

A

stress incontinence

218
Q

patient presents with: in voluntary leakage of urine accompanied by/immediately preceded by feelings of urgency what is the diagnosis?

A

Urge urinary incontinence

219
Q

a patient presents with symptoms of urgency (which may cause urination), nocturia and frequency what type of incontinence is this?

A

Overactive bladder syndrome

220
Q

what is overflow incontinence?

A

in voluntary leakage of urine when the bladder is abnormally distended with large volumes of urine

221
Q

what questions are important to ask in incontinence histories?

A

What is the timing of the incontinence (continuous or at specific times such as increased intra-abdominal pressure) are their associated symptoms of El UTS do they use incontinence pads and if so how many do they use per day or night what is their obstetric history are they postmenopausal are there any symptoms of bowel and sexual dysfunction (indicates neurological cause) past medical history of uro- gynaecological, neurological

222
Q

what is the pathophysiology of stress urinary incontinence?

A

Hypermobility of the bladder as well as pelvic floor dysfunction which can occur with or without urethral sphincter dysfunction

223
Q

what is the management of stress urinary incontinence?

A

Conservative measures (weight loss, exercise, smoking cessation) pelvic floor physiotherapy and training surgery (tape procedures or artificial urinary sphincter implant – mainly used in men post prostatectomy)

224
Q

what is the pathophysiology of urge urinary incontinence?

A

overactive detrusor muscle

225
Q

how do you manage urge urinary incontinence/overactive bladder syndrome?

A

conservative measures (reduced alcohol caffeine)/ anti-muscarinic medication ocybutanin , B3 adrenoceptor agonist (mirabregron)/ neuro modulation/Botox injection into bladder/scystoplasty or urinary diversion

226
Q

which type of incontinence does prolapse usually cause?

A

Stress although oftentimes pictures are mixed

227
Q

how do you manage overflow incontinence?

A

treat any causes of bladder outflow obstruction / long-term catheter/intermittent self catheterisation

228
Q

what are the causes of overflow incontinence?

A

Obstruction of urinary tract/ detrusor failure

229
Q

what examination should be performed on women presenting with incontinence?

A

vaginal examination checking for prolapse pelvic floor strength (asking the patient to squeeze pelvic floor/cough)

230
Q

what examination should be performed in a male presenting with incontinence?

A

DRE you may find an enlarged prostate

231
Q

what investigations should be performed in a patient with incontinence?

A

urinalysis, cystoscopy, in patients with overflow incontinence residual urine test should be performed - urodynamic testing is usually not performed as it is very uncomfortable and invasive

232
Q

defined erectile dysfunction?

A

the recurrent inability to achieve or maintain an erections for satisfactory amount of time to allow for sexual intercourse

233
Q

what is a key feature of erectile dysfunction caused by organic causes?

A

usually has a more gradual onset with no significant loss of libido

234
Q

what questions are important to ask in a history of erectile dysfunction?

A

Is it getting worse/are you able to achieve and direction and for how long/are you able to achieve penetrative sex/is there a morning erection/is a loss of libido/ what have they already tried/ onset description

235
Q

what past medical history is significant in erectile dysfunction?

A

Diabetes/hypertension/vascular disease/neurological conditions/pelvic surgery

236
Q

what psychosocial causes are there for erectile dysfunction

A

relationship status/relationship difficulties/anxieties and depressions/any past traumatic sexual experiences

237
Q

what endocrine causes are there for erectile dysfunction?

A

diabetes hyper- or hypothyroidism hyperprolactinaemia hypogonadism

238
Q

what neurogenic causes are therefore erectile dysfunction?

A

Spinal-cord pathology (Bifuda, compression) Multiple Sclerosis Parkinson’s disease

239
Q

what vascular causes are there for erectile dysfunction?

A

Hyperlipidaemia peripheral vascular disease hypertension

240
Q

what drugs can cause erectile dysfunction?

A

Antidepressants Parkinson’s medication antiandrogen antihypertensives

241
Q

what blood tests should you perform in a patient with erectile dysfunction?

A

testosterone luteinising hormone FSH prolactin sex hormone binding globulin thyroid function glucose levels

242
Q

what examinations should you perform in erectile dysfunction?

A

Cardiovascular neurological abdominal DRE genital (deformity testicular atrophy)

243
Q

what investigations (apart from blood tests) would you perform in erectile dysfunction?

A

Nocturnal penile tumescence testing/MRI/Doppler ultrasound for vascular - all of these tests are not routinely used

244
Q

what drugs can be given to help erectile dysfunction?

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitors intra urethral prostaglandins inter cavernosum injection therapy testosterone replacement therapy in hypogonadism

245
Q

what management should be given for psychogenic erectile dysfunction?

A

psychosexual therapy

246
Q

apart from drugs what other management can be given to organic erectile dysfunction?

A

vacuum erecting device penile prosthesis

247
Q

how do phosphodiesterase inhibitors work in erectile dysfunction?

A

Block the breakdown of CGAMP made by phosphodiesterase causing vasodilation- still requires sexual stimulation

248
Q

what is periones disease?

A

a benign condition that becomes more common with age characterised by the curvature of the penis/holes by the development of fibrotic tissue on the tunica albunginea

249
Q

what is the pathophysiology of periones disease?

A

initial inflammation characterised by increasing deformity of the penis and painful erections/ followed by quiescent phase during which the deformity stabilises/ thought to be caused by minor trauma over time causing microvascular damage in genetically predisposed males

250
Q

what is periones disease associated with?

A

diabetes hypertension high cholesterol dupatrons contracture and plantar fasciitis

251
Q

what’s is the presentation of periones disease?

A

significant curvature to the penis noticeable when erect/ penile shortening penile pain erectile dysfunction difficulty having penetrative intercourse can have palpable fibrous plaques along the shaft at the deviation/ penis can have hourglass appearance due to plaques

252
Q

what is the management of periones disease?

A

oral pentoxifylline verapamil injections surgery only performed on stable plaques and can include the insertion of a penile prosthesis

253
Q

what is phymosis?

A

tight foreskin which is unable to attract over the glans

254
Q

what is the presentation of phymosis?

A

usually asymptomatic/may notice balooning of the foreskin on urination/may cause pain and irritation during sexual intercourse/ men may develop infections of the foreskin and glans - balanoprosthisis

255
Q

what are some key features to ask for in a history of phymosis?

A

are you able to retract the foreskin (v severe) / checked for diabetes previous neurological surgery or if they have had any steroid cream use in the past

256
Q

what is balantis xerotica obliterans?

A

chronic inflammatory condition which is the male equivalent of light and sclerosis and it can cause phymosis

257
Q

what awesome features that you may find on examination of balantis xerotica obliterans?

A

grey white discolouration of the foreskin

258
Q

what are some complications of balantis xerotica obliterans?

A

urethral stenosis penile cancer phimosis

259
Q

how do you treat balantis xerotica obliterans?

A

steroids topically often circumcision as required

260
Q

a teenager of 14 years old presents with phimosis, it isn’t causing too many problems apart from some balooning on urination, what is the management?

A

nothing as it is not severe and phimosis is often physiological in childhood and almost always becomes retractable by the age of 16

261
Q

what is the management of phimosis?

A

circumcision

262
Q

what is the pathophysiology of urethral strictures disease?

A

sub epithelial fibrosis within the corpus spongiosum causing the narrowing of the urethra

263
Q

what can cause a urethral structure disease?

A

trauma (straddle injuries) catheterisation (catheterisation) inflammatory urethritis

264
Q

what are symptoms of urethral strictures disease?

A

L UTS voiding symptoms urinary retention multiple UTIs difficulty passing catheter and hitting resistance/obstruction distal to the prostate

265
Q

what is the management of urethral strictures disease?

A

sequential urethral dilation in theatre/ optical urethrotomy

266
Q

what is the ongoing management of urethral strictures disease?

A

Following initial operation patients taught how to intermittently self-dilate prevent future recurrence

267
Q

what is paraphimosis?

A

the foreskin is retracted behind the glands and cannot be replaced to its original position resulting in a tight ring of tissue around the corona - it is a medical emergency that is not to be mistaken with phimosis

268
Q

why is paraphimosis a medical emergency?

A

It leads to venous occlusion congestive oedema and eventually will compromise the blood supply to the glans and foreskin causing ischaemia

269
Q

what is the presentation of paraphimosis?

A

foreskin retracted behind the corona of the glans penile oedema possible discolouration and necrosis cracks in the skin can be painful

270
Q

what is a common cause for paraphimosis?

A

catheterisation patients

271
Q

what is the management of paraphimosis?

A

lies again and applying ice with then manually replacing the foreskin surgical interventions are rarely needed follow-up by urologist is required as circumcision may be needed as long-term management

272
Q

what is fourniers gangrene?

A

necrotising fascitis of the genitalia and perineum - is a urological emergancy

273
Q

what pathogens usually cause fourniers gangrene?

A

usually caused by both aerobic and anaerobic organisms – E. coli Klebsiella or enterococcus/colostrum

274
Q

what is the presentation of fourniers gangrene?

A

an acutely unwell patient with septic symptoms erythematous tender area along the genitalia or penny blistering of the skin practice caused by gas forming from the organisms blue or black skin as necrosis occurs

275
Q

what are risk factors for developing fourniers gangrene?

A

diabetes catheterisation immunocompromised postsurgical perineal and perianal infections steroid therapy

276
Q

what is the management of fourniers gangrene?

A

sepsis six do a group group and save stop broad-spectrum antibiotics keep patient nil by mouth as requires prompt surgery inform ITU

277
Q

what is priapism?

A

The presence of an unwanted erections more than four hours in the absence of sexual stimulation

278
Q

what is in low flow priapism?

A

Caused by ischaemia: venous occlusion resulting in a rigid painful erection

279
Q

how do you manage low flow priapism?

A

aspiration of intra-cavernosal blood (blood will be acidotic with low O2 high CO2 and high lactate) must be done by urologist

280
Q

what is high flow priapism?

A

is arterial caused by dysfunctional arterial flow resulting in a semi rigid painless erection / associated with a history of trauma which then results in the formation of AV fistula

281
Q

what is the management of high flow priapism?

A

can be managed conservatively but if intervention is required then embolise the supplying artery

282
Q

what happens if aspiration of intracavernosal blood does not solve low-flow priapism?

A

immediate escalation intra cavernosal injection of alpha-1 adrenergic agonist ( phenothrin) failing that surgery

283
Q

what can you do if a patient presents a low flow priapism and you are waiting for urologist to arrive?

A

as patient exercise walking up and down the stairs and called the area with ice

284
Q

what is the most common cause for recurrent priapism?

A

sickle-cell anaemia

285
Q

what is the presentation of recurrent priapism?

A

self-limiting but painful erection however it can turn into low flow priapism

286
Q

how do you manage a sickle-cell caused priapism?

A

hyper hydration hyper oxygenation and haematological optimisation with analgesia

287
Q

Why do bladder stones form?

A

to urinary stasis either from obstruction or any other method of failure of the bladder

288
Q

what properties of bladder stones usually made of?

A

calcium

289
Q

what is the presentation of bladder stones?

A

Pain / L UTS/ haematuria/ UTI/ asymptomatic and found incidentally

290
Q

what is the diagnosis of bladder stones?

A

Ultrasound scan or x-ray normal contrast / flexible cystoscopy may be part of Ix or on way to confirm / treat

291
Q

how do you treat bladder stones?

A

cystolotholapaxy - stone crusher in bladder / lazer or open surgery

292
Q

What is the most common cause of penetrative bladder trauma?

A

iatrogenic - most commonly from the section of bladder tumour or in operation

293
Q

what is the most common cause of blunt bladder trauma

A

high risk of injury in pelvic fractures and seatbelt injuries in road crashes

294
Q

what is the presentation of bladder trauma?

A

peritonism / abdominal distension ideas and your ES haematuria blood at urethral meatus perianal/scrotal bruising a high riding prostate

295
Q

how do you diagnose bladder trauma?

A

CT with contrast or cysto gram

296
Q

what is absolutely contraindicated in bladder trauma?

A

catheterisation this should only be done by neurologists or senior clinicians

297
Q

what is the management of an extra peritoneal bladder injury?

A

catheterisation for 2/3 weeks

298
Q

what is the management of an inter peritoneal bladder trauma?

A

open surgical repair

299
Q

what part of the penis gets injured in a penile fracture?

A

tunica albunginea

300
Q

what is the presentation of a penile fracture?

A

feeling of a snap or pop whilst the penis is erect/ immediate de tumescence/ eggplant appearance due to swelling discolouration and deformity

301
Q

what is the management of a penile fracture?

A

urgent neurological review and surgical repair

FINALS (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions