GU 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What organs make up the female reproductive system??

A
  • Ovaries
  • Uterine (fallopian) tubes or oviducts
  • Uterus
  • Vagina
  • Vulva or Pendulum
  • Mammary glands
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2
Q

What hormones do the ovaries produce?

A
  • Progesterone
  • Estrogen
  • Inhibin
  • Relaxin
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3
Q

Size and shape of the ovaries?

A

Unshelled almonds

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4
Q

What type of tissues cover the surface of the ovaries?

A

Simple Germinal Epithelium

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5
Q

What are paired organs that produce secondary oocytes?

A

Ovaries

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6
Q

What are cells that develop into mature ova, or eggs following fertalization?

A

Oocytes

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7
Q

What is the region under the germinal epithelium made of dense connective tissue that contains ovarian follicles?

A

Ovarian Cortex

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8
Q

What consists of oocytes and a variable number of surrounding cells that nourish the developing oocyte and begin to secrete estrogens as the follicle gets bigger?

A

Ovarian Follicle (Folliculus little bag)

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9
Q

What is the large, mature, fluid filled follicle that is preparing to rupture and expel a secondary oocyte?

A

Graafian Follicle

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10
Q

What does the remnants of the ovulated follicle develop into?

A

Corpus Luteum (Yellow body)

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11
Q

What hormones does the Corpus luteum produce?

A
  • progesterone
  • estrogen
  • relaxin
  • inhibin
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12
Q

The Corpus Luteum degenerates and turns into fibrous tissue called?

A

Corpus Albicans (White body)

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13
Q

What region of the ovaries consists of loose connective tissue and contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves?

A

Ovarian Medulla

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14
Q

What extends laterally from the uterus and transports the secondary oocytes from the ovaries to the uterus?

A

Uterines (fallopian tubes) 2

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15
Q

What is the open funnel shaped tube at each end of the fallopian tubes and lies close to the ovaries, but is open to the pelvic cavity?

A

Infundibulum

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16
Q

What are the finger like projections at the end of the uterine tubes?

A

Fimbriae

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17
Q

What extends medially from the upper and outer comers of the uterus?

A

Uterine tubes

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18
Q

The oocyte is moved along the uterine tubes by what two methods?

A
  • peristaltic contractions of smooth muscle layer
  • cillia in the tubes mucous lining
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19
Q

What is the usual site for fertilization of a secondary oocyte by a sperm cell?

A

Uterine tube

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20
Q

Fertilization may occur any time up to about how many hours after ovulation?

A

24 hours

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21
Q

The fertilized ovum(zygote) descends into the uterus within how many days?

A

7
-unfertilized oocytes disintegrate

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22
Q

What is the site of implantation of the fertilized ovum, development of the fetus during pregnancy, and labor?

A

Uterus

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23
Q

What is the source of menstrual flow during reproductive cycles when implantation does not occur?

A

Uterus

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24
Q

What is situated between the urinary bladder and the rectum and is shaped like an inverted pear?

A

Uterus

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25
Q

What part of the uterus is the dome shaped portion superior to the uterine tubes called?

A

Fundus

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26
Q

What is the tapering central portion of the uterus called?

A

The body

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27
Q

What part of the uterus is the narrow opening into the vagina?

A

Cervix

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28
Q

What is the interior body of the uterus called?

A

Uterine cavity

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29
Q

What is the middle muscle layer of the uterus that is consistent with smooth muscle and form the bulk of the uterine wall?

A

Myometrium

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30
Q

During child birth, coordinated contraction of what muscles help expel the fetus?

A

Uterine

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31
Q

What is the inner most part of the uterine wall made of mucous membrane, nourishes a growing fetus or is shed each month during menstruation if fertilization does not occur?

A

Endometrium

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32
Q

What glands are contained by the endometrium? Secretion nourish sperm and the zygote

A

Endometrial glands

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33
Q

What is the tubular canal that extends from the exterior of the body to the uterine cervix?

A

Vagina

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34
Q

The vagina is situated between the urinary bladder and the rectum. A recess called the _________ surrounds the cervix?

A

Fornix

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35
Q

When properly inserted a contraceptive diaphragm rest on the _________ covering the cervix?

A

Fornix

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36
Q

The mucosa of the vagina contains large stores of what? The decomposition of which produces what?

A
  • Glycogen
  • Organic acids
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37
Q

What is the thin fold of mucous membrane, partially covering the vaginal orifice?

A

Hymen

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38
Q

Wat is the diamond-shaped area between the thighs and buttocks of both males and females that contains the external genitals and anus?

A

Perineum

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39
Q

What terms refer to the external genitals of the female?

A
  • Vulva
  • Pudendum
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40
Q

What is the elevation of adipose tissue covered by coarse pubic hair, which cushions the pubic symphysis?

A

Mons Pubis

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41
Q

What are the two folds of longitudinal skin that extend down and back from the mons pubis?

A

Labia majora

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42
Q

In females the labia majora is developed from the same emryonic tissue as what?

A

Male scrotum

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43
Q

The labia majora is composed of adipose tissue and what kinds of glands?

A
  • Sebacias (oil) glands
  • Sudoriferous (sweat) glands
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44
Q

Medial to the labia majora are two folds of skin called the?

A

Labia minora

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45
Q

What part of the vagina does not contain pubic hair or fat and have few sudoriferous glands but contain numerous sebaceous glands?

A

Labia minora

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46
Q

What is the small, cylindrical mass of erectile tissue and nerves, located at the anterior junction of the labia minora?

A

Clitoris

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47
Q

What is the layer of skin also known as the foreskin that forms the point where the labia minora unite and cover the clitoris?

A

Prepuse

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48
Q

What is the exposed portion of the clitoris capable of enlargement upon sexual stimulation?

A

Glans

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49
Q

What is the region between the labia minora called?

A

Vestibule

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50
Q

What is contained in the vestibule?

A
  • hymen (if present)
  • vaginal orifice
  • external urethral orifice
  • the opening of the ducts of the paraurethral glands
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51
Q

What is another name for paraurethral glands?

A

Skenes gland

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52
Q

The male prostate develops from the same embryonic tissue as the female what?

A

Paraurethral glands (Skenes)

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53
Q

What is on either side of the vaginal orifice that produce a small quantity of mucus during sexual arousal and intercourse that adds to the cervical mucus and provide lubrication?

A

Greater vestibular glands

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54
Q

What is another name for the greater vestibular glands?

A

Bartholin glands

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55
Q

What is the male equivalent of the Bartholin gland?

A

Bulbourethral gland

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56
Q

The mammary gland are located in the breasts and made of what kinds of glands that produce milk?

A

Modified sudoriferous glands

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57
Q

What lies over the pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles and are attached to them by a layer of connective tissue?

A

The breasts

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58
Q

What is the pigmented projection of the breast with a series of closely spaced openings of ducts where milk emerges?

A

The nipple

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59
Q

What is the pigmented area of skin surrounding the nipples called?

A

Areola

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60
Q

What gives the areola/nipples a rough appearance?

A

modified sebaceous (oil) gland

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61
Q

Each mammary gland consists of how many lobes arranged radially?

A

15-20

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62
Q

What is the adipose tissue and strands of connective tissue that separates the lobes of the mammary glands and support the breasts?

A

Suspensory Ligaments of the breast

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63
Q

The suspensory ligaments of the breast are also called?

A

Cooper’s ligaments

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64
Q

What are the small units within the lobes of the breasts?

A

Lobules

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65
Q

How many lobules per lobe?

A

20-40

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66
Q

What consists of milk-producing acini cells that empty into lactiferous ducts during lactation?

A

20-40

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67
Q

What are the milk secreting glands within the lobules called?

A

Alveoli

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68
Q

With the onset of puberty under the influence of what two hormones do the female breasts begin to develop?

A
  • estrogen
  • progesterone
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69
Q

What are the function of the mammary glands?

A

synthesis, secretion, and ejection of milk (lactation)

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70
Q

Milk production is largely stimulated by what hormone?

A

Prolactin
- with contributions of estrogen and progesterone

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71
Q

Where is prolactin produced?

A

anterior pituitary

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72
Q

The ejection of milk is stimulated by what hormone?

A

Oxytocin

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73
Q

Where is oxytocin released from?

A

posterior pituitary

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74
Q

What is the formation and development of gametes in females?

A

Oogenesis

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75
Q

Hormones from where control the major events of oogenesis?

A
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary
  • ovaries
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76
Q

What kind of hormones released by the ovaries control the uterine(menstrual) cycle?

A

Steroid

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77
Q

The general term female reproductive cycle encompasses what?

A
  • ovarian and uterine cycles
  • hormonal changes that regulate them
  • related cyclical changes in the breasts and cervix
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78
Q

What is released by the hypothalamus and controls the ovarian and uterus cycle?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone GnRH

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79
Q

GnRH stimulates the release of what two hormones from the anterior pituitary?

A
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • Follicle stimulating Hormone (FSH)
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80
Q

What increase follicular growth and the secretion of estrogen by the growing follicles?

A

FSH

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81
Q

What stimulates further development of ovarian follicles and their full secretion of estrogen?

A

LH

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82
Q

At mid cycle, what triggers ovulation and then promotes formation of the yellow body?

A

LH

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83
Q

When stimulated by LH what does the corpus luteum produce and secrete?

A
  • estrogen
  • inhibin
  • progesterone
  • relaxin
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84
Q

What is secreted by ovarian follicle and has several important functions throughout the body?

A

estrogen

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85
Q

What promotes the development and maintenance of the female reproductive structure, feminine secondary sex characteristics, and the mammary glands?

A

estrogen

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86
Q

What stimulates protein synthesis, acting together with insulin-like-growth factors, insulin, and thyroid hormones?

A

estrogen

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87
Q

What lowers blood cholesterol and is probably the reason that women under 50 have a much lower risk of CAD then men of comparable age?

A

estrogen

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88
Q

Progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum acts together with what to prepare and maintain the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum and prepare the mammary glands for milk secretions?

A

estrogen

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89
Q

What is produced by the corpus luteum to relax the uterus by inhibiting contractions of the myometrium?

A

relaxin

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90
Q

During pregnancy what continuous to produce relaxin to relax the uterine smooth muscles?

A

placenta

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91
Q

At the end of pregnancy what increase the flexibility of the pubic symphysis and helps dilate the uterine cervix?

A

relaxin

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92
Q

What is produce by the growing follicle and the corpus luteum after ovulation to lesser the extent of LH and stop the secretion of FSH?

A

inhibin

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93
Q

The duration of the female reproductive cycle varies between how many days?

A

24-36 average 28

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94
Q

What are the 4 phases of the female reproductive cycle?

A
  • menstrual
  • pre-ovulatory
  • ovulation
  • post-ovulation
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95
Q

The menstrual phase also called the mensuration or meses lasts roughly how many days?

A

First five days of cycle

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96
Q

During what phase do several ovarian follicles grow and enlarge?

A

menstrual phase

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97
Q

Menstrual flow from the uterus consists of about how many mLs of blood and tissue cells from the endometrium?

A

50-150

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98
Q

A declining level of what two ovarian hormones causes the uterine arteries to constrict resulting in oxygen deprived tissue of the endometrium to slough off?

A
  • progesterone
  • estrogen
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99
Q

What is the time between menstruation and ovulatory phase?

A

pre-ovulatory phase

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100
Q

What phase accounts for most of the variation in cycle length?

A

pre-ovulatory phase

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101
Q

In a 28-day cycle how long does the pre-ovulatory phase last?

A

6-13

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102
Q

By about what days does a single follicle outgrow the other to become the dominants follicle?

A

day 6

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103
Q

What does the dominant follicle secrete to decrease FSH causing the death of lesser follicles?

A
  • estrogen
  • inhibin
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104
Q

What does the one dominant follicle become?

A

mature graafian follicle

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105
Q

What forms a blister like bulge on the surface of the ovary?

A

mature graafian follicle

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106
Q

What is the term for the menstrual and pre-menstrual phase?

A

follicular phase

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107
Q

What is liberated into the blood by growing ovarian follicles stimulating the repair of the endometrium?

A

estrogen

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108
Q

What is happening as the endometrium is thickening?

A
  • the short, straight endometrial glands develop
  • arterioles coil and lengthen
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109
Q

What phase encompasses the rupture of the mature graafian follicle and the release of the secondary oocyte into the pelvic cavity?

A

ovulatory

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110
Q

Ovulation usually occurs on what day in a 28 day cycle?

A

day 14

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111
Q

The high levels of estrogen during the last part of the pre-ovulatory phase exert a positive feedback system of what two hormones?

A
  • LH -anterior pituitary
  • GnRH - hypothalamus
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112
Q

The surge in LH brings about what?

A

rupture of the mature graafian follicle and expulsion of secondary oocyte

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113
Q

What can detect the LH surge associated with ovulation to predict ovulation a day in advance?

A

over-the-counter home test

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114
Q

What phase of the female reproductive cycle is between ovulation and the onset of the next menstruation?

A

postovulatory phase

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115
Q

The postovulatory phase is the most constant in duration lasting how many days? what days in a 28-day cycle?

A
  • 14 days
  • days 15-28 in a 28-day cycle?
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116
Q

After ovulation what stimulates the remaining follicle cells to enlarge and form the corpus luteum?

A

LH

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117
Q

Ovulation phase is also known as?

A

Luteal phase

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118
Q

If the oocyte is not fertilized how long does the corpus luteum last?

A

2 weeks

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119
Q

When the secondary oocyte is fertilized what is produced by the embryo to rescue the corpus luteum and expand its life span?

A

HCG

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120
Q

About how many days does it take the embryo to produce HCG?

A

8 days

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121
Q

Progesterone and estrogen secrete by the corpus luteum promote the growth of what?

A

endometrial glands

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122
Q

What is secreted by the endometrial glands?

A

glycogen

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123
Q

The preparatory changes of vascularization and thickening of the endometrium peak at about how many weeks after ovulation? at the time a fertilized ovum might arrive?

A

1 week after ovulation

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124
Q

What is the term for absence of menstrual cycle?

A

amenorrhea

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125
Q

More than how many days is considered prolonged menses?

A

more than 7 days

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126
Q

What is the term for external female genital organs?

A

vulva

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127
Q

What is another name for the mons pubis?

A

mons veneris

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128
Q

What is included in the vulva?

A
  • mons pubis
  • labia majora
  • labia minora
  • clitoris
  • vestibular glands
  • vaginal vestibule
  • vaginal orifice
  • urethral opening
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129
Q

Under the majora are the hairless labia minora divide into?

A

two lamellae

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130
Q

The labia minora fuse together to form the?

A

fourchette

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131
Q

What is the small bud of erectile tissue that is the primary center of sexual excitement?

A

clitoris

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132
Q

What forms the functional sphincters for the vagina, rectum, and urethra?

A

muscles

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133
Q

What is in the labia minora and what does it contains?

A

Vestibule
- urethra
- vagina
- skene gland
- bartholin gland

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134
Q

What drains the urethral glands?

A

skene glands

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135
Q

What gland secretes lubrications during sexual excitement?

A

bartholin gland

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136
Q

What is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice, open onto the sides of the vestibules in the groove between the labia and the hymen?

A

bartholin glands

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137
Q

What is a musculomembranous tube that is transversely rugated during the reproductive phase of life and inclines posteriorly?

A

vagina

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138
Q

The anterior wall of the vagina is separated from the bladder and urethra by the?

A

vesicovaginal septum

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139
Q

The posterior wall is separated from the rectum by the?

A

rectovaginal septum

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140
Q

The pelvic organs may be palpated through pockets around the cervix called?

A

fornices

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141
Q

The nonpregnant uterus is usually positioned anteroposterioly and weighs?

A

60-90 grams

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142
Q

The uterus is divided anatomically in to what?

A

corpus and cervix

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143
Q

The uterine corpus consists of?

A
  • fundus
  • body
  • isthmus
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144
Q

What extends from the isthmus into the vagina?

A

cervix

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145
Q

The uterus opens into the vagina via?

A

external cervical os

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146
Q

What is the adnexa of the uterus composed of?

A
  • fallopian tubes
  • ovaries
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147
Q

What are the pair of oval organs resting in a slight depression on the lateral pelvic wall at the anterorsuperior iliac spine?

A

ovaries

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148
Q

The external genitalia are supported by what ligaments?

A
  • cardinal
  • uterosacral
  • round
  • broad
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149
Q

What is the average age of monarch in the united states?

A

11 and 14 years old

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150
Q

Ovarian function diminishes around what age?

A

40

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151
Q

Menopause occurs between what age?

A

40 and 55 years old

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152
Q

Ovulation ceases about how many years before menopause?

A

1-2 years

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153
Q

Menopause is conventionally defined as?

A

1 year with no menses

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154
Q

What is the position for a pelvic exam?

A

lithotomy

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155
Q

What pelvic examination is used for disabled women?

A

The disabled women is the best judge of position

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156
Q

What are some alternative position for pelvic exams?

A
  • diamond
  • obstetric stirrups
  • m- shaped
  • v- shaped
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157
Q

The clitoris is generally how long?

A

2 cm or less

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158
Q

What is indicated with bulging of the anterior wall and urinary incontinence?

A

cystocele

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159
Q

What is indicated by bulging of the posterior wall?

A

rectocele

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160
Q

What is marked by protrusion of the cervix or uterus upon straining?

A

Uterine prolapse

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161
Q

A cervix with a blueish color and increased vascularity is a sign of what?

A

pregnancy

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162
Q

A cervix that is positioned anteriorly indicates what?

A

retroverted uterus

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163
Q

A cervix that is positioned pointing posteriorly indicates what?

A

anterverted uterus

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164
Q

A cervix that is positioned pointing posteriorly indicates what?

A

anteverted uterus

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165
Q

Cervix deviation left or right may indicated what?

A
  • pelvic mass
  • uterine adhesion
  • pregnancy
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166
Q

Rectovaginal exams allow the provider to reach how much higher into the pelvis allowing better evaluation of the pelvic organs and structures?

A

2.5cm(1in)

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167
Q

External labia swelling, pain, warmth, and redness may mean?

A

Bartholin gland abscess

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168
Q

ENlarged clitoris in children suggests what?

A

adrenal hyperplasia

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169
Q

Swelling of the vulvar tissues with bruising or foul smelling odor suggests what?

A

sexual abuse

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170
Q

Young women who are not sexually active should have there first pelvic exam by what age?

A

21 y/o

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171
Q

By age of menarche vaginal opening should be at least how many cm wide?

A

1 cm

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172
Q

Urethral inflammation or dilation suggests what?

A

UTI

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173
Q

What is Regar sign?

A

softening of the isthmus

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174
Q

What is chadwicks sign?

A

bluish cervix

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175
Q

What is Goodell sign?

A

cervical softening

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176
Q

The uterus deviates at how many weeks of gestation? What is the sign?

A
  • 8 to 10 weeks
  • Piskacek sign
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177
Q

What age does PMS usually occur?

A

late 20s

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178
Q

How long do PMS sx last?

A

5-7 days

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179
Q

What is characterized by edema, HA, weight gain, behavioral disturbances, nervousness, dysphoria, lack of coordination?

A

PMS

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180
Q

Infertility is the inability to conceive over how long of unprotected regular intercourse?

A

1 year

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181
Q

What is the presence of growth of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus causing pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and heavy prolonged menstral flow?

A

endometriosis

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182
Q

What is warty lesions on the labia, within the vestibule or in the perianal region as a result of HPV infection.

A

Condyloma Acuminatum (Genital warts)

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183
Q

What are sexually transmitted and are flesh-colored, whitish pink to reddish brown, discrete, soft growths and may form cauliflower-like masses?

A

Veneral warts

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184
Q

What are benign skin infection caused by poxvirus, may be transmitted by sexual contact. Lesions are white or flesh colored, dome shaped papules that are round or oval. surface characteristics is central umbilication from a thick creamy core can be expressed?

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

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185
Q

What is the incubation period for Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

2-7 weeks

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186
Q

What is the incubation period for Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

2-7 weeks

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187
Q

What lesion are secondary syphilis appear about 6-12 weeks after infection. Flat, round, or oval papule covered by gray exudates?

A

Condyloma Latum

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188
Q

What is a firm, painless ulcer. develop internally?

A

Syphilitic chancre (Primary syphilis)

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189
Q

What STI produces small red vesicles. lesions may itch and are painful and usually confined to small localized patch on the vulva, perineum, vagina or cervix?

A

Herpes lesion

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190
Q

What is caused by gonococcal infection. Acute inflammation produces a hot, red, tender, fluctuant swelling that may drain pus. Chronic inflammation results in a nontender cyst on the labium?

A

Inflammation of the Bartholin gland

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191
Q

What is a hernial protrusion of the urinary bladder through the anterior wall of the vagina. bulging can be seen as the woman bears down?

A

Cystocele

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192
Q

What is the hernial protrusion of part of the rectum through the posterior wall of the vagina?

A

Rectocele

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193
Q

What is suspected with findings of vaginal discharge, lesions, masses. Appears as ulcerated or raised red lesions on the volva?

A

Carcinoma

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194
Q

What is the bright red polypoid growth that produces from the urethral meatus?

A

Urethral carbuncle

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195
Q

What presents with water discharge, usually not foul smelling, dysuria, profuse frothy, greenish discharge?

A

Trichomoniasis

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196
Q

What presents with purulent discharge from the cervix, skene and bartholin inflammation?

A

Gonorrhea

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197
Q

What presents with homogenous thin, white or gray discharge, positive KOH with clue cells?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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198
Q

What presents with enlarged fluid filled retention cyst that vary in size?

A

Infected Nabothian cysts

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199
Q

What presents with bright red, soft and fragile arise from the endocervical canal?

A

Cervical polyps

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200
Q

What appears as shiny red tissue around the os that may bleed easily?

A

columnar epithelium

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201
Q

What is the result of weakening of the supporting structures of the pelvic floor, often occurring with a cystocele or rectocele?

A

Uterine prolapse

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202
Q

What degree of uterine prolapse appears with the cervix at the introitus?

A

2nd degree

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203
Q

What degree of uterine prolapse appear when the cervix and vagina drop outside of the introitus?

A

3rd degree

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204
Q

What are common, benign, uterine tumors that appear firm, irregular nodules in the contour of the uterus?

A

myomas

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205
Q

What is a growth that can occur unilaterally or bilaterally with smooth cyst?

A

ovarian cyst

206
Q

What is a cause of marked pelvic tenderness, with tenderness and rigidity of the lower abdomen. A tender unilateral adnexa mass may indicate the site of pregnancy?

A

Ruptured tubal pregnancy
- surgical emergency

207
Q

What is often caused by gonococcal and chlamydial infection that may be acute or chronic?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

208
Q

What can produce very tender bilateral adnexal areas and fixed adnexal areas?

A

Acute PID

209
Q

What is the inflammation or infection of the fallopian tube and associated with PID?

A

Salpingitis

210
Q

What is a vaginal secretion that collects behind an imperforated hymen and manifested by small midline lower abdominal mass or small cysts between the labia?

A

Hydrocolops
- infants and children

211
Q

What is vaginal discharge accompanied by warm, erythematous, and swollen vulvar tissue in infants and children?

A

Vulvovaginitis

212
Q

What is common during pregnancy and may involve both the vulva and rectal area. Pressure from the pregnant uterus contributes to information?

A

Vulvar varicosities

213
Q

What is caused by lack of estrogen. vaginal mucosa is dry and pale. vaginal discharge may be white, gray, green, or blood-tinged?

A

Atrophic vaginitis

214
Q

What is a loop of cord that may advance with the presenting parts. usually occurs with rupture of the membrane?

A

Prolapse of the umbilical cord

215
Q

The cervix may protrude how far into the vagina?

A

1-3 cm

216
Q

Projection of the cervix greater than how many cm indicated pelvic or uterine mass?

A

3 cm

217
Q

For a gonococcal culture specimen hold the cotton swab on the cervical os for how long?

A

10-30seconds

218
Q

How do you spread the specimen from a gonococcal culture specimen?

A

Z pattern over the culture medium

219
Q

What kind of swab is used for DNA probe for chlamydia and gonorrhea?

A

Dacron swab

220
Q

How long do you rotate the dacron swab in the endocervical canal?

A

30 seconds
- swab is then place in reagent tube

221
Q

How do you document location of masses in the breast?

A
  • clock position
  • distance from nipple
222
Q

In women breasts extend from the what ribs to what ribs?

A

2-3 to 6-7 ribs
- sternal margin to midaxillary line

223
Q

Female breast are composed of what type of tissue?

A

glandular and fibrous tissue

224
Q

What muscles from the floor of the breasts?

A
  • serratus anterior
  • latissimus dorsi
  • subscalpularis
  • external oblique
  • rectus abdominis
225
Q

What is the vascular supply to the breasts?

A

lateral thoracic cavity

226
Q

The breast are divided into how many segments?

A

5
- 4 quadrants
- tail of spence

227
Q

Where does the greatest amount of granular tissue lie in the breasts?

A

Upper outer quadrant

228
Q

What kinds of stimuli contract smooth muscles of the breasts and produces erection of the nipple and causes the lactiferous ducts to empty?

A
  • tactile
  • sensory
  • autonomic
229
Q

What are the 5 Ds related to nipple exams?

A
  • discharge
  • depression
  • discoloration
  • dermatologic
  • deviation
230
Q

What are benign cyst formation caused by ductal enlargement is associated with a long follicular or luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. the lesions are filled with fluid and usually bilateral and multiple?

A

Fibrocystic changes

231
Q

What are benign tumors composed of stromal and epithelial elements that represent a hyperplastic or proliferative process. account for the majority of breast tumor in young women?

A

Fibroadenoma

232
Q

Malignant breast tumors have a peak incidence between what ages?

A

40 - 75
- normally occurring in women over 50

233
Q

What do you suspect with mass or thickening in the breast, marked asymmetry, prominent unilateral veins, discoloration, peau d orange, ulcerations, dimpling, puckering, retraction of skin, fixed inversion or deviation in position of the nipples?

A

Breast cancer

234
Q

What is a response to local injury of the breasts, firm, irregular mass, often appearing as an area of discoloration?

A

fat necrosis

235
Q

What are benign 2-3 cm tumors of the subareolar ducts that occur singly or in multiples. A common cause of serous or bloddy nipple discharge?

A
  • Intraductal papilloma
  • papillomatosis
236
Q

What is a surface manifestation of underlying ductal carcinoma. red scaling, crust patch forms on the nipple, areola, and surrounding skin. Lesions appear eczematous and usually unilateral.

A

Paget disease

237
Q

What is a smooth, firm mobile, tender disk of breast tissue located behind the areola in males . Caused by hormones imbalance?

A

Gynecomastia

238
Q

What is an inflammation of the sebaceous glands in the areola?

A

Retention cyst

239
Q

What is lactation not associated with childbearing?

A

Galactorrhea

240
Q

Galactorrhea are most commonly caused by what?

A

pituitary tumor

241
Q

What other factors can cause galactorrhea?

A
  • cushing sydrome
  • hypoglycemia
  • drugs such as phenothiazines, trycylics, antidepressants and estrogen
242
Q

What is the inflammation and infection of the breast tissue characterized by sudden onset of swelling, tenderness, erythema, and heat. Usually the result of a staph infection and most common in lactating women?

A

Mastitis

243
Q

What is the most commonly occurs in menopausal women. the subareolar duct become blocked with desquamating secretory epithelium, necrotic debris, nd chronic inflammatory?

A

Mammary duct ectasia

244
Q

What should you suspect with recently developed unilateral nipple inversion?

A

malignancy

245
Q

Where do supernumerary nipples present?

A

embryonic mammary ridge

246
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in premenopausal women?

A

pregnancy

247
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal death during the first trimester?

A

undiagnosed or undetected ectopic pregnancy

248
Q

What is the most popular method of birth control for couples who want no more children?

A

sterilization

249
Q

What is the most effective method of emergency contraceptive?

A

copper-bearing IUD

250
Q

What is the most common reason for discontinuing Nexplanon?

A

irregular bleeding

251
Q

What is the most common cause of dyspareunia in premenopausal women?

A

vulvodynia

252
Q

What is most common in young, nulliparous, sexually active women with multiple partners and is a leading cause of infertility and ectopic pregnancy?

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

253
Q

What is the second most common cancer of the female reproductive tract?

A

adenocarcinoma of the endometrium

254
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm of the female genital tract?

A
  • leiomyoma
  • fibroid
  • myoma
255
Q

Once regular menses is established what is the most comon cause of ovulatory dysfunction?

A

AUB-O

256
Q

What is the most common anovulation?

A

ovulatory dysfunction

257
Q

What nipple discharge is most likely benign fibrocystic changes like duct ectasia?

A

Serous

258
Q

What kind of nipple discharge is most likely non neoplastic (endocrine in etiology) ?

A

Bilateral

259
Q

What kind of discharge is more likely neoplastic or carcinoma?

A

bloody

260
Q

Nipple discharge with an associated mass is more likely what?

A

neoplastic

261
Q

Unilateral nipple discharge is most likely?

A

neoplastic or non-neoplastic

262
Q

What is the most reliable indicator of prognosis for female breast carcinoma?

A

stage

263
Q

What is the most reliable means of detecting breast cancer before a mass can be palpable?

A

Mammography

264
Q

Most slow growing cancers can be identified by mammography at least how many years before the mass is palpable?

A

2 years

265
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for female breast carcinoma?

A

Age
- Risk rapidly rises until early 60s and peaks in 70s then declines

266
Q

What is the most common cancer in women and effects every 1-8 in American women?

A

female breast carcinoma

267
Q

What is a common benign neoplasm most frequently occurs in young women and usually discovered incidentally?

A

Fibroadenoma

268
Q

Fibroadenoma usually occurs within how many years after puberty?

A

20 years

269
Q

What is the most frequent lesion of the breast?

A

fibrocystic changes

270
Q

What is the most common age for fibrocystic changes?

A

30-50

271
Q

What is the diagnostic testing for fibrocystic changes?

A

core needle biopsy

272
Q

Normal menstrual bleeding last an average of how many days?

A

5 days
- range 2-7 days

273
Q

What is blood loss over 80ml?

A

Menorrhagia

274
Q

What is bleeding between periods?

A

Metrorrhagia

275
Q

What is the mean blood loss per cycle?

A

40ml

276
Q

What is bleeding that occurs more often than every 21 days?

A

Polymenorrhea

277
Q

What is bleeding that occurs less frequently than every 35 days?

A

Oliomenorrhea

278
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) used to be called what?

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)

279
Q

In adolescence AUB is usually the result of what?

A

Anovulation (not yet ovulating)

280
Q

What is caused by immature hypothalamic-pituitary ovarian axis?

A

Most likely anovulation

281
Q

AUB in women 19-39 is often the result of?

A
  • pregnancy
  • structural lesion
  • anovulatory cycles
  • hormonal contraceptive
  • endometrial hyperplasia
282
Q

The presence of blood clots or the degree of inconvenience caused by the bleeding serve as a useful indicator for what diagnosis?

A

AUB

283
Q

A history of using warfarin, heparin, and exogenous hormones is indicative of what diagnoses?

A

AUB

284
Q

What imaging is indicated for AUB?

A
  • transvaginal ultrasound
  • sonohysterography or hysteroacopy
285
Q

How do you treat AUB-O?

A
  • hormonal LT with progestin to oppose estrogen
  • NSAIDS can reduce blood loss
286
Q

Post menopausal bleeding is what? Until proven otherwise

A

Cancer

287
Q

What is considered post menopausal bleeding?

A

Bleeding that occurs 6 months or more following cessation of menstrual cycle

288
Q

What is an important tool in evaluating the etiology of bleeding in post menopausal women?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

289
Q

What is the recurrent variable cluster of troublesome physical and emotional symptoms that develop during the 5 days before the onset of menses and subside within 4 days after menstruation occurs?

A

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

290
Q

What happens when emotional or mood symptoms predominate along with physical symptoms and there is a clear functional impairment with work or personal relationships.

A

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)
- may be thought of as complicated PMS

291
Q

PMDD intermittently affects about what percentage of premenopausal women?

A

40%

292
Q

What is the primary age for PMDD?

A

25-40
5-8% symptoms are severe

293
Q

Patient suspected of PMDD should keep a diary of symptoms for how longs?

A

2-3 moths

294
Q

In regards to PMDD of symptoms occurs throughout the month rather than in the two weeks before menses what is suspected?

A
  • depression
  • mental health issues
  • may be in addition to PMDD/PMS
295
Q

What vitamin is give as treatment for PMS/PMDD?

A

Vitamin D

296
Q

What can be used to lessen symptoms of PMS/PMDD?

A

Medications that prevent ovulation
Combined oral contraceptives
- depo provera
- nexplanon

297
Q

How can we treat mood symptoms in PMS/PMDD?

A

SSRI
- Paroxetine (Paxil)

298
Q

What is inflammation and infection of the vagina and are common gynecological complaints?

A

Vaginitis

299
Q

What can cause vaginitis?

A
  • pathogens
  • allergic reaction to contraceptive
  • vaginal atrophy
  • friction during coitus
300
Q

Pregnancy, diabetes, and use of broad spectrum antibiotics or corticosteroids predispose patients to?

A

Vulvavaginal Candidiasis (yeast infection)

301
Q

Pruitus, vulvavaginal erythema and white curd-like discharge that is NOT malodorous is indicative of what?

A

Candida Infection

302
Q

What is a sexual transmitted protozoal flagellate infection?

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis Vaginitis

303
Q

What infects the vagina, skene ducts, lower urinary tract in women and lower gu tract in men?

A

Trichomonas

304
Q

Pruritus and malodorous frothy, yellow-green discharge occur, along with diffuse vaginal erythema and strawberry cervix?

A

Trichomonas

305
Q

What is red macular lesions on the cervix that presents in severe cases of Trichomonas?

A

Strawberry cervix

306
Q

What is a polymicrobial disease that is not sexually transmitted and may be chronic in nature? Overgrowth of gardenella and other anaerobes

A

Bacterial Vaginitis

307
Q

What presents with malodorous discharge without obvious vulvitis or vaginitis

A

BV

308
Q

Clue cells are indicative of?

A

BV

309
Q

Vaginal pH greater than 4.5 in T is associated with?

A

BV

310
Q

What is the treatment for Vulvovaginal Candidas?

A

Fluconazole (diflucan) antifungal

311
Q

What is the treatment for Trichomonas?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl) antibiotic
Treat both partners

312
Q

What is the treatment for BV?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl) antibiotic

313
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline

314
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone (rocephin) cephalosporin

315
Q

What is a periodic painful swelling on either side of the intoitus, dyspareunia, fluctuating swelling 1-4cm in diameter lateral to either labium minus? Tenderness is evidence of infection

A

Bartholins gland abscess

316
Q

What can cause bartholins gland abscess?

A
  • gonorrhea
  • chlamydia
  • polymicrobial
317
Q

What is the treatment for bartholins gland’s abscess?

A

I and D

318
Q

What is the treatment for bartholins gland abscess with the presents of cellulitis?

A

Antibiotics

319
Q

What is the treatment for frequent recurring bartholins gland abscess?

A

Marsupilization

320
Q

Women under what age do not require therapy for bartholins gland abscess unless large or cause problems with coitus?

A

40

321
Q

Women over what age with a bartholins need a biopsy or removal to rule out vulva carcinoma?

A

40

322
Q

What start in puberty because of hormonal influences and changes in the vaginal pH and tissue of the cervix and under goes cellular changes?

A

Cervical Dysplasia

323
Q

What can lead to cervical cellular abnormalities and develop over a period of time?

A

Cervical dysplasia or cancer

324
Q

What is the presence of abnormal cells?

A

Atypia

325
Q

Cervical dysplasia is also called?

A

Cervical Intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

326
Q

What is another word for dysplasia?

A

Neoplasia

327
Q

What is the portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina, the neck of the uterus?

A

Cervix

328
Q

Cervical cancer is vary rare in women under what age?

A

21

329
Q

In immunocompetent women cervical cancer screening should begin at what age regardless of onset of intercourse?

A

21

330
Q

US preventative service task force recommends screening for cervical cancer in women of what age? Every how many years?

A
  • 21 to 65
  • every 3 years
  • 30 to 65
  • every 5 years
331
Q

Why does the USPSTF recommend against screening women for cervical cancer in conjunction with HPV in women younger that 30 y/o?

A

HPV can go away in younger women

332
Q

What are the 3 diagnostic testing for cervical dysplasia?

A
  • Papanicolaou smear
  • Colposcopy
  • Biopsy
333
Q

What system is used to describe cervical finding of a pap?

A

Bethesda system

334
Q

What is the Bethesda system composed of?

A
  • atypical squamous cells of unknown significance (ASC-US)
  • squamous intraepithelial lesions (SIL)
  • low grade (LSIL)
  • high grade (HSIL)
335
Q

Women with ASC-US and a positive HPV need what?

A

Colposcopy

336
Q

What is a diagnostic procedure used to provide illuminated, magnified view of the cervix, vagina, vulva, or anus

A

Colposcopy

337
Q

What is necessary for diagnosis and planning treatment of cervical dysplasia?

A

Colposcopically directed punch biopsy and enforcer vocal curettage

338
Q

What treatment for cervical dysplasia is effective for noninvasive small lesions visible on the cervix?

A

Cryosurgery

339
Q

What treatment for cervical dysplasia minimizes tissue destruction and is colopscopically directed?

A

CO2 Laser

340
Q

What treatment for cervical dysplasia uses a wire loop for excision

A

LEEP
- loop electrosurgical excision

341
Q

What treatment for cervical dysplasia is reserved for cases of severe dysplasia or cancer?

A

Conization of the cervix

342
Q

What has describe, round, firm often multiple uterine tumors composed of smooth muscle and connective tissue that may cause miscarriages and pregnancy complications because they interfere with implantation?

A

Leiomyoma (fibroid tumor)

343
Q

Leiomyoma affects what layer of the uterus?

A

Myometrium

344
Q

What is defines by the endometrium growing into the myometrium?

A

Adenomyosis

345
Q

What imaging is indicated for pelvic mass?

A
  • transvaginal ultrasound
  • MRI with contrast
  • hysterogrphy or hysterscope
346
Q

What is used to assess location within muscle and blood flow of pelvic tumors?

A

MRI with contrast

347
Q

What is used to confirm presence and monitor growth of pelvic mass?

A

Tranvaginal ultrasound

348
Q

What is the treatment for an acute torsion on a pedi cluster myoma?

A

Emergency surgery

349
Q

What can help decrease bleeding associated with fibroids?

A

LNG IUD

350
Q

What can be used to reduce volume, size and menstrual blood loss associated with pelvic masses?

A

Hormonal therapy

351
Q

What is the definitive and curative treatment for pelvic mass?

A

Surgical therapy

352
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding is the presenting sign in 90% of what cases?

A

Carcinoma of the endometrium

353
Q

All post menopausal bleeding requires evaluation for what?

A

Carcinoma of the endometrium

354
Q

After a negative pregnancy test what is need to confirm carcinoma of the endometrium?

A

Endometrial tissue

355
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium most often affects women of what age?

A

50-70

356
Q

What is the imaging used for carcinoma of the endometrium?

A
  • vaginal ultrasound
  • hysterectomy
357
Q

What is the treatment for carcinoma of the endometrium?

A
  • surgery
  • post op radiation
  • chemotherapy
358
Q

What is the strongest predictor of prognosis in carcinoma of the endometrium?

A

Depth of cancer invasion into myometrium

<66% = 98%
>66% = 78%

359
Q

What is the ectopic growth of the endometrium outside the uterus, particularly in the dependent parts of the pelvis and in the ovaries?
Principal manifestations are chronic pain and infertility

A

Endometriosis

360
Q

What can present with tender nodules in the cul-de-sac or rectovaginal septum, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal mass or tenderness?

A

Endometriosis

361
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of endometriosis?

A

Histology of lesions removed at surgery (Laparoscopy)

362
Q

What presents with lesions typically located in the pelvis but can include bowel or diaphragm?

A

Endometriosis

363
Q

What imaging is used for endometriosis?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

364
Q

What is the treatment for endometriosis?

A
  • NSAIDS
  • hormone therapy
  • inhibit ovulation for 4-9 months
365
Q

What are the commonly used regimes for endometriosis?

A
  • low dose combined oral contraceptive
  • contraceptive patch
  • vaginal ring
  • progestins
  • progestin intrauterine device
366
Q

What surgical intervention is effective in reducing pain and promoting fertility for endometriosis?

A

Larporoscopic ablation of endometrial implants

367
Q

What is definitive therapy for those with intractable pelvic pain, adnexal masses, or multiple previous ineffective surgical procedures in regards to endometriosis?

A

Hysterectomy with bilateral saplingo oophorectomy

368
Q

What is associated with post coidal bleeding, urinary urgency, and low back pain?

A

PID

369
Q

What is the imaging of choice for PID?

A
  • vaginal ultrasound
  • laparoscopy
370
Q

What can be used to diagnose PID?

A

Laparoscopy

371
Q

What is the treatment for PID?

A
  • cefoxtin (mefoxtin)
  • ceftriaxone
  • metronidazole
372
Q

What is the treatment for severe PID

A
  • cefoxitin (medicine) and doxycycline
373
Q

What is a complication of PID?

A

Tubo-ovarian abscess

374
Q

What is the leading cause of death from reproductive tract?

A

Malignant ovarian tumors

375
Q

What are the lab findings for ovarian mass?

A
  • tumor marker
  • cancer antigen 125
  • HCG
  • lactate dehydrogenase
  • alpha fetoprotein
376
Q

What imaging should be ordered for pelvic mass?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound
Color doppler may further enhance specificity

377
Q

What is the treatment for malignant ovarian mass?

A
  • hysterectomy
  • bilateral salpingoophorectomy
  • omentectomy
  • selective lymphadenopathy
  • chemotherapy
378
Q

What is treatment for benign ovarian neoplasm?

A

Removal or unilateral oopherectomy

379
Q

What is a common endocrine disorder effecting 5-10% of reproductive age women?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

380
Q

What is characterized by chronic anovulation with abnormal menses, polycystic ovaries, and hyperandrogenism?

A

PCOS

381
Q

What is associated with hirsutism, obesity, increased risk for diabetes and cardiovascular disease, increased risk of endometrial cancer to unopposed estrogen secretion?

A

PCOS

382
Q

What presents with menstrual disorder, infertility, skin disorders, and insulin resistance?

A

PCOS

383
Q

What labs should be ordered for PCOS?

A
  • FSH
  • LH
  • prolactin
  • TSH
  • A1 C
  • lipid panel
384
Q

What imaging is used for PCOS?

A

Tranvaginal ultrasounds

385
Q

What is the treatment for PCOS?

A
  • weight loss and exercise
  • metformin therapy
  • combine contraceptives, LNG IUD
  • treatment of hirsutism
386
Q

What is a type of sexual pain disorder with recurrent or persistent genital pain associated with sexual intercourse that is not associated with lack of lubrication or vaginismus?

A

Dyspareunia

387
Q

What is a sexual pain disorder with recurrent or persistent involuntary spasm of the musculature of the outer third of the vagina?

A

vaginismus

388
Q

What sexual pain disorder results fear, pain, sexual violence, or a negative attitude towards sex?

A

vaginismus

389
Q

What is the initial treatment for Vaginismus?

A

sexual counseling and education
- Botox injections on refractory cases

390
Q

What is the treatment for vulvodynia?

A
  • topical agent and topical anesthetics
  • tricyclic antidepressants
  • SSRIs
  • gabapentin
  • physical therapy
391
Q

What is the normal minimum amount of sexual act per week in regard to infertility?

A

2 per week

392
Q

What percentage of couples experience infertility?

A

25%

393
Q

The decline in fertility in women begins at what age?

A

early 30s
- accelerates late 30s

394
Q

Male partners contribute to what percentage of infertility cases?

A

40%

395
Q

In the absence of identifiable causes what percentage of couples will achieve pregnancy within how many years?

A
  • 60%
  • 3 years
396
Q

Couples with unexplained infertility who do not achieve pregnancy within 3 years may be offered what?

A
  • ovulation induction
  • assisted reproductive technology such as IVF
  • women over the age of 35 are offered a more aggressive approach
397
Q

What percentage of the 213 million pregnancies in 2012 were unitended?

A

40%
- 50% aborted
- 13 percentage miscarriage
- 38% unplanned births

398
Q

What is the mechanism of action for combined oral contraceptives?

A

Suppression of ovulation by inhibiting GnRH, LH, FSH, and the mid cycle LH surge

399
Q

The suppression of FSH prevents what?

A

folliculogenesis

400
Q

What oral contraceptive effect the endometrium rendering less suitable for implantation, thickening of the cervical mucus to prevent penetration by sperm and impairment of normal tubal motility and peristalsis which alters ovum transport?

A

progestin

401
Q

What is the perfect use failure rate for oral contraceptive?

A

0.3%

402
Q

What is the typical use failure rate for oral contraceptive?

A

8%

403
Q

Oral contraceptive is ideally started on what days of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • day 1
  • first Sunday after the onset of the cycle
  • any day of the cycle
404
Q

If oral contraceptive is started on any other day than the first day of the cycle what should be used?

A

a backup method for the first month

405
Q

If an active pill is missed at any time, and no intercourse occurred in the past 5 days what should be done?

A

2 pills should be taken immediately and a backup method should be used for 7 days

406
Q

If intercourse occurred within the previous 5 days of a missed pill what should be done?

A
  • emergency contraceptive used immediately
  • pills restarted the following day
  • back up method used for 5 days
407
Q

What is the mechanism of action for the progestin minipill?

A

effects the endometrium rendering less suitable for implantation, thickening of the cervical mucus to prevent penetration by sperm and impairment of normal tubal motility and peristalsis which alters ovum transport.

408
Q

What oral contraceptive is safe for patients over 35?

A

minipill

409
Q

What oral contraceptive has a low dose of progestin and absence of estrogen making it safe during lactation and might increase flow of milks?

A

minipill

410
Q

What form of contraception is associated with bone mineral loss, initial irregular bleeding that subsequently develop into amenorrhea, and ovulation delay?

A

injectable long acting progestins

411
Q

Injectable progestin- DMPA is given intramuscularly or subcutaneous how often?

A

every 3 months (11-13 weeks)

412
Q

What is a single rod progestin implant inserted into the proximal aspect of the nondominant arm?

A

Nexplonon
- Etonogestrel
- no delay in return to fertility

413
Q

What is othro evra?

A

transdermal contraceptive patch

414
Q

The transdermal patch is the combination of what 2 hormones?

A

estrogen and progestin

415
Q

Where is the transdermal patch applied?

A
  • lower abdomen
  • upper torso
  • buttocks
416
Q

What is the timeline for the transdermal contraceptive?

A

3 weeks consecutively on then 1 week off

417
Q

Discontinuation for side effects is more frequent in what form of contraceptive?

A

transndermal

418
Q

What is a soft and flexible and is placed in the upper part of the vagina for 3 weeks removed and replaced after 1 week?

A

NuvaRing
- Contraceptive vaginal ring
- can also be removed and replaced after 4 weeks for continuous cycling

419
Q

What form of contraception will have increased incidences of vaginal discharge?

A

NuvaRing

420
Q

What form of contraception is highly effective with failure rates similar to those achieved with surgical sterilization?

A

Intrauterine devices

421
Q

What are the two types of intrauterine contraceptives?

A
  • Levonorgestrel (LNG) releasing
  • Copper Bearing (Parafard)
422
Q

When can an IUD be placed?

A
  • during or after menses
  • at mid cycle to prevent implantation
  • or later in the cycle if the patient has not become pregnant
423
Q

When can a copper IUD be placed as post coital contraceptive?

A

5 days following a single episode of unprotected sex

424
Q

Women using an IUD who become pregnant should?

A

have the IUD removed if string is visible

425
Q

IUD is contraindicated in what women?

A

pregnant

426
Q

What risk is increased during the first month of IUD placement?

A

Pelvic infection

427
Q

What is transcervical strings that cannot be visualized on pelvic exams concerning of?

A

unnoticed expulsion or migration through the uterus into the abdomen
- pelvic ultrasound
- gynecology referral

428
Q

What is the failure rate among couples that use condoms properly?

A

18%
- only 2% become pregnant after 1 year

429
Q

Latex and polyurethane condoms offer protection against STD. What kind of condoms dont?

A

animal membrane

430
Q

What is the failure rate for female condoms?

A

5-21%

431
Q

What is the only control method of birth control that offers significant protection from both pregnancy and STDs?

A

Female condom

432
Q

What is contraception based on awareness of fertility periods?

A

-couple restrict intercourse to the post ovulatory phase and use barrier methods at other times
- Symptom thermal natural family planning
- calendar method
- basal body temperature method

433
Q

What form of contraceptive planning is based on patients monitoring their cyclic physical and temperature changes?

A

Syntomtothermal natural family planning

434
Q

What is brief abdominal midcycle discomfort?

A

mittelschmerz

435
Q

What form of family planning observes clear elastic cervical mucous?

A

Syntomtothermal natural family planning

436
Q

What method of contraception uses the length of the menstrual cycle after being observed for at least 8 months the calculation are made to determine fertile periods?

A

Calendar method

437
Q

What form of contraception indicates when it is safe time for intercourse after ovulation has passed?

A

basal body temperature method

438
Q

A slight drop in temperature often occurs how many hours before ovulation?

A

12-24 hours
- a rise of about 0.4 Celsius occurs 1-2 days after ovulation

439
Q

The risk for pregnancy increase starting how many days prior to ovulation?

A

5 days
- rapidly decreases to zero by the day after ovulation

440
Q

I unprotected intercourse occurs in midcycle what methods are effective in preventing implantation?

A
  • Levonorgestrel
  • Combination oral contraception
  • Ulipristal (Ella)
  • IUD
441
Q

The methods of emergency contraception should be started as soon as possible and with how many hours after unprotected coitus?

A

120 hours (5 days)

442
Q

What form of emergency contraceptive is available over the counter for women 17 or older, has a 1% failure rate when taken within 72 hours after coitus, and an efficacy up to 120 hours after intercourse?

A

Levonorgestrel (plan b)

443
Q

What form of emergency contraceptive contains ethinyl estradiol, Levonorgestrel, given twice in 12 hours, used within 72 hours has a failure rate of 3% and usually anti nausea medication are necessary?

A

combination oral contraceptive

444
Q

What form of emergency contraception is more effective than Levonorgestrel especially when used between 72 and 120 hours, partially among overweight women?

A

Ulipristal

445
Q

What form of emergency contraception can be used after one episode of unprotected midcycle coitus?

A

IUD
- copper most effective

446
Q

What is the premature expulsion of products of contraception from the uterus usually occurring before the 20th week? can be elective or spontaneous

A

abortion

447
Q

What navy references cover abortions?

A
  • BUMEDINST 6300.16 series
  • OPNAVINST 6000.1 series
448
Q

The DoD prohibits the use of DoD facilities and funds to perform abortions unless under what conditions?

A
  • pregnancy threating to service member
  • pregnancy was a result of rape
449
Q

What is the sterilizing procedure where the vas deferens is severed and sealed through a scrotal incision under local anesthesia?

A

Vasectomy
- follow up semen analysis at 3 months to confirm sterility

450
Q

Female sterilization is most often achieved by what process?

A

tubal ligation
tubes can be clipped, clamped, cauterized, tied, or cut

451
Q

What form of contraception/sterilization prevents an ovulated ovum from reaching the uterus and prevents the sperm from reaching the unfertalized ovum?

A

tube ligation
- female sterilization

452
Q

What are the references for sexual assault?

A
  • SECNAVINST 1752.4 SERIES
  • BUMEDINST 6310.11 SERIES
  • COMNAVSURFLANT/COMNAVSURFPACINST 6000.1
  • COMUSFLTFORCOM/COMPACFLTINST 6310.2 SERIES
453
Q

What is the treatment for sexual assault?

A

MEDEVAC

454
Q

The rape trauma syndrome comprises of what two principles?

A
  • immediate or acute
  • late or chronic
455
Q

What are the repeat labs for sexual assault?

A
  • HCG
  • HIV, 2-4 months
  • RPR, 16 weeks
  • GC
  • Chlamydia
456
Q

What are the times spans for HIV and RPR in regards to sexual assault?

A
  • HIVE, 2-4 months
  • RPR, 16 weeks
457
Q

What is the navy instruction for pregnancy?

A

OPNAVINST 6000.1

458
Q

What is the perception of first movement noted about the 18th week of pregnancy?

A

Quickening

459
Q

When is the uterine fundus palpable above the pubic symphysis?

A

12-15 weeks
- reaches unbilicus 20-22 weeks

460
Q

Fetal heart tones can be heard by doppler at what weeks of gestation?

A

8-10 weeks

461
Q

What is used to confirm intrauterine pregnancy?

A

transvaginal ultrasound

462
Q

Pregnant service members may serve aboard ships until what week of pregnancy?

A

20th week

463
Q

What percentage of all clinically recognized pregnancies terminate spontanously?

A

20%

464
Q

Pregnancy loss
- bleeding or cramping occurs, but pregnancy continuous
- the cervix is not dilated

A

threatened abortion

465
Q

Pregnancy loss
- products of conception are completely expelled
- pain ceases, but spotting may persist
- cervical os is closed, some blood in the vaginal vault

A

Complete abortion

466
Q

Pregnancy loss
- cervix is dilated
- some portion of the products of conception remain in uterus
- only mild cramping
- bleeding is persistent and often excessive

A

incomplete abortion

467
Q

Pregnancy loss
- brownish vaginal discharge but no active bleeding
- cervix is slightly firm and slightly patulous
- abortifacient and curettage

A

missed abortion

468
Q

What is the treatment for pregnancy loss?

A
  • medevac
  • if product of conception are visible remove and place in specimen bottle
  • acetaminophen
  • narcotics
469
Q

Any female with vaginal bleeding, positive HCG and abdominal pain is considered?

A

ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise

470
Q

Ectopic pregnancy occurs in what percentage of first trimester pregnancies?

A

2%

471
Q

Qualitative HCG levels with be greatly lower in what kinds of pregnancies?

A

ectopic pregnancies

472
Q

What is the surgical procedure of choice to confirm and remove ectopic pregnancies?

A

laparoscopy

473
Q

When patients is stable with an early ectopic pregnancy what medication can be used?

A

Methotrexate IM

474
Q

Anyone with suspected ectopic pregnancy should have emergent referral to where?

A

obstetrics

475
Q

What is usually the causative factor of mastitis?

A

staphylococcus

476
Q

What is indicated in nonlactating women when nonresponsive to antibiotics?

A

biopsy

477
Q

What occurs sporadically in nursing mothers, usually with symptoms onset after discharge from the hospital?

A

postpartum mastitis

478
Q

Postpartum mastitis freguently begins within how many months after delivery?

A

3 months

479
Q

What presents with engored breast and sore or fissured nipples? celulitis is typically unilateral. fevr and chills

A

mastitis

480
Q

What labs are indicated for mastitis?

A

CBC for leukocytosis

481
Q

What imaging is indicated for mastitis?

A

breast ultrasound

482
Q

What is the treatment for mastitis? MSSA

A
  • cephalexin (Keflex)
  • clindamycin
483
Q

What is the treatment for mastitis? MRSA

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
-regular emptying of the breast
- nursing of the breast on the affected side is safe

484
Q

What is the preferred NSAID for pain and inflammation for lactation??

A

Motrin

485
Q

What is defined as the failure for menarche to appear?

A

primary amenorrhea

486
Q

What is the absence of menses for 3 consecutive months in women who have passed menarche??

A

secondary amenorrhea

487
Q

What is the terminal episode of naturally occurring amenorrhea
- retrospective diagnosis
- usually after 6 months of amenorrhea

A

Menopause

488
Q

What causes functional amenorhea?

A

hypothalamic-pituitary causes
- low levels of GnRH affecting FSH and LH levels

489
Q

What etiologies can cause amenorhea?

A
  • pregnancy
  • hypothalamic-pituitary causes
  • hyperandrogenism
  • uterine causes
  • premature ovarian failure
  • menopause
490
Q

What is considered early menopause?

A

before 45

491
Q

What is considered premature menopause?

A

before 40

492
Q

What is elevated testosterone levels?

A

hyperandrogenism

493
Q

What is the normal age range for menopause?

A

48-55

494
Q

What labs are indicated for amenorrhea?

A
  • HCG
  • FSH
  • LH
  • TSH
  • Prolactin
  • testosterone if hirsutism or virilization is present
495
Q

What imaging in indicated with amenorhea?

A

transvaginal ultrasound
- confirm pregnancy
- identify PCOS
MRI if pituitary tumor is suspected

496
Q

What is the treatment amenorhea?

A
  • no estrogen therapy
  • estrogen replacement therapy
497
Q

What women have
- 50% increased chance of CAD
- 23% increased risk of stroke
- 12% increased risk of overall mortality
with what predisposing factor?

A

premature menopause

498
Q

What is a surgical emergency that is almost always associated with ovarian enlargements, requires prompt diagnosis and is an ischemic condition?

A

ovarian torsion

499
Q

Nearly what percentage of torsion happen on the right side? and why?

A

70%
- increased length of the utero-ovarian ligament on the right side

500
Q

Ovarian torsion may involve just the ovary or?

A

the ovary and the oviduct ( adnexal torsion )

501
Q

What are the classic symptoms of ovarian torsion?

A
  • sudden onset severe unilateral abdominal pain
  • develops after episode of exertion or athletics
  • nausea and vomiting
502
Q

What presents with unilateral lower abdominal pain with guarding, unilateral adnexal tenderness upon bimanual exam, possible palpable adnexal mass?

A

ovarian torsion

503
Q

What is the imaging of choice for ovarian torsion?

A

transvaginal ultrasound with doppler

504
Q

What are lab finding on CBC with ovarian torsion?

A
  • amenia
  • leukocytosis with necrosis
505
Q

What is the treatment for ovarian torsion?

A

prompt gynecological surgical procedure

506
Q

How many times do you swab the female with a swab soaked in antiseptic? in regard to cauterization?

A

4-5

507
Q

How many times do you swab the male with a swab soaked in antiseptic? in regard to cauterization?

A

3-4

508
Q

Where do you advance the catheter in a male?

A

hilt

509
Q

For females advance the catheter until urine returns then?

A

advance 4-5cm(1-2in) further to make sure balloon is well within bladder

510
Q

in males the urethra leaves the bladder at the?

A

trigone

511
Q

What lies in the superior fornix of the vulva, above the vaginal opening and below the clitoris and appears as small dimple or slit in the midline?

A

urethral meatus

512
Q

What size syringe is used for catheterization?

A

10 mL