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AH64 > GST JAN 2025 > Flashcards

GST JAN 2025 Flashcards

1
Q

What is destruction

A

Destruction is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. It requires weapons to strike within lethal range of the target

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2
Q

What is neutralization

A

Neutralization requires weapons effects to hit the target and cause damage to it. Cannot be achieved by rounds that miss the target. Neutralizing damage to a target can temporarily remove it from the battle.

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3
Q

What is suppression

A

Suppression of a target limits the ability of enemy personnel to perform their mission. Used to defend friendly forces. Limits enemy movement and observation and increases friendly FoM

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4
Q

What are the five techniques of fire

A

Hover, Running, Diving, Low altitude bump, Diving/Running IP

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5
Q

What is kinematic range

A

The maximum distance that the round can physically fly

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6
Q

What is Rmax

A

The range at which a defined target can be hit, though not necessarily defeated.

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7
Q

What is Rme

A

The distance at which there is a 50% probability of both hitting and defeating a target.

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8
Q

What are the types of ballistics

A

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal

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9
Q

What is ballistics

A

The science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion

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10
Q

What are the interior ballistics

A

Barrel wear, Launcher tube misalignment, Thrust misalignment, Propellant charge, and Projectile weight

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11
Q

What are the types of exterior ballistics

A

Gravity, Air resistance, Projectile drift, and Wind drift

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12
Q

Projectile drift increases as __________

A

Range to the target increases

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13
Q

What are the types of Aerial ballistics

A

Trajectory shift, Propellant force, Projectile jump, Port-starboard effect, CG, Rotor down-wash, Relative wind effect, Angular rate, Turning bank
(TPP-PCR-RAT)

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14
Q

When does projectile jump occur

A

When a crew fires a weapon from an a/c in flight and the weapon’s muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind

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15
Q

Which way does the round move from projectile jump

A

Firing to the right produces a downward jump. Firing to the left produces an upward jump.

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16
Q

What causes angular rate error

A

Caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.

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17
Q

How is the TSE implemented

A

Whenever continuous lasing is in progress and a fresh range update is available from the LRV, the TSE updates target states and co-variances. Otherwise, the TSE extrapolates target states based on the last valid range measurement.

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18
Q

The TSE is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:

A

A. Processed range data from the laser range validator
B. TADS LOS vector, pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros
C. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI
D. Thumb force controller inputs

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19
Q

During dynamic engagements, continuous laser ranging is required to compensate for target and/or a/c movement. Prior to firing, the CPG should verify a solid asterisk is displayed in front of the laser range for at least __________

A

3-5 seconds

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20
Q

The TSE continues to provide dynamic provide dynamic range data for a ballistic solution for _________ after the second detent laser trigger is released. It is important to note that the TSE will zero all dynamic values if the laser trigger is released.

A

10 seconds

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21
Q

The Army Attack Aviation Call for Fire (5-line) is a “____________” brief that does ______________

A

Friendly centric, does not require a JTAC

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22
Q

What are the parts of the Artillery call for fire

A

1st transmission:
Callsign and Warning order

2nd transmission:
Target location

3rd transmission:
Target description, method of engagement, and method of control

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23
Q

What is the clearance to fire for a 5-line

A

Transmission of the brief unless “danger close”, “at my command”, or an additional method of control is stated.

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24
Q

What is makes up TPMR

A

Techniques, Patterns, Munitions, Range

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25
Q

What are the types of patterns for TPMR

A

Racetrack, Butterfly, 45 degree, Circular/Wheel, Clover, Figure 8, L-pattern

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26
Q

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are they

A

Shooter/cover
Shooter/shooter
Looker/shooter

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27
Q

What steps are used to get the most consistent rocket engagements

A

Four T’s
Target, Torque, Trim, Target

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28
Q
A
  2. Terminal guidance “tick mark”
  3. Predicted Impact Vector
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29
Q

How long until the PIV is displayed and is it dynamically sized

A

3 seconds of continuous lasing
yes

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30
Q
A
  1. Target Range Indicator
  2. Dynamic Launch Zone
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31
Q

What are the 3 levels of safe

A
  1. Finger off the trigger
  2. Weapons action switch deselected
  3. Safe/Arm button—Safe
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32
Q

30mm risk estimated distance for 0.1% Pi (standing)

A

500/55
1,000/70
1,500/100

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33
Q

What are the visual markings of the M789

A

Black and yellow

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34
Q

Engagement at greater than _________ can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts

A

2,000 meters

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35
Q

What are the visual markings of the M788

A

Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings

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36
Q

What must you do to conduct AWS dynamic harmonization

A
  1. Aircraft heading to target within +/- 5 degrees of the TADS LOS
  2. Range to target 500-1,500 m. Preferred is 1,000m
  3. Transcribe the gun harm correctors to DA form 2408-14
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37
Q

The projectile of the round (m789) has a shaped charge liner for piercing in excess of ______ of RHA at _________ and a fragmentation radius of __________ for soft targets

A
  1. 2 inches
  2. 2,500 m
  3. 4 m
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38
Q
A

5.8 seconds

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39
Q

When engaging vehicle targets, the DMPI should be _________. When engaging exposed personnel, the DMPI should be ______ and/or ___________-

A
  1. Center of mass
  2. offset
  3. short of the target
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40
Q

What is the gun duty cycle

A

Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limit settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired withing 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated

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41
Q

What are the burst limit settings

A

10, 20, 50, 100, or all

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42
Q

If ____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the a/c for _________. Crewmembers should remain in the a/c and continue positive gun control

A

300, ten minutes, 30 minutes

43
Q

In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to ______ to prevent dig-in during landing.

A

+11 degrees

44
Q

What is the Rme, Rve, and max ballistic solution for the AWS

A

1500-1700m, 3,000m, and 4,200m

45
Q
A

Fixed gun Aiming reticle, Norm

46
Q

The AWS will continue to follow ________ when operating in NVS fixed mode

A

IHADSS LOS

47
Q

How many rounds does the IAFS store

A

300 rounds
242 rounds in the magazine and 58 rounds in the AHS

48
Q
A
  1. 110
  2. 135
  3. 170
  4. 235
  5. 105
49
Q

The minimum range to target when firing flachette rockets is ________. The effective range is _______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than ______

A

800m
1-3 km
3 km

50
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire ____, ____, and ____ rockets, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _____ to allow the M439 fuze to reset

A

6MP, 6FL, and 6SK

10 days

51
Q

What are the markings of the M151 10-pounder

A

Olive body with yellow band and yellow or black markings

52
Q

The hydra-70 rocket has a large dispersion. Hit probability is increased with __________

A

Running/diving fire and close range

53
Q

The rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at __________ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray.

A

High dive angles

54
Q

What are the markings of the flachette rocket (M255A1)

A

Olive body with white diamond markings

55
Q

Flachettes are kinetic energy penetrators; so ____________. Flachette velocity decreases with increased ranges parallel the rocket.

A

short range shots will result in imporved penetration performance of the flechettes

56
Q

What is the proper umbilical cord routing for the flachette rocket

A
57
Q

M257 (overt) provides approximately 1 million candle power for a minimum of ______. The candle is deployed approximately ___________

A

100 seconds

3500m

58
Q

What are the markings of the M257 (overt) illumination rocket

A

olive body with white markings

59
Q

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended rocket motor and warhead case. Impact zone extends out __________ from deployement point.

A

700-1,200 m

60
Q

The M278 (covert) Infrared illumination provides approximately 1 million candle power for __________.

A

150-210 seconds

61
Q
A
  1. Normal
  2. Ground stow
  3. Fixed rocket
  4. Inhibited
62
Q

The vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G’s and may cause the main rotor blades to obstruct the trajectory of the rockets. Is accel limit a safety or performance inhibit

A

Safety inhibit

63
Q

The last crewmember to action a weapon has control of that weapon except when

A

If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, then coop mode is in effect. The active LOS will be the CPG’s LOS.

64
Q

The cursor will be dashed when _______________________

A

A safety or performance inhibit is in effect, indicating crew action is required prior to firing rockets.

65
Q

The ________ is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at __________. This mode allows the firing crewmember to adjust rocket fires onto target by maneuvering the a/c and reduces errors caused by pylon articulation and LOS movement.

A

FXD mode

2,000m

66
Q
A
  1. M278 IR Illum
  2. M255A1 Flechette
  3. M264 Red phosphorus
67
Q
A

M255A1 Flechette

68
Q
A

M151 10 pounder

69
Q
A
  1. 115
  2. 130
  3. 145
70
Q

Rotating the a/c just before launch, at least _______ in the direction of the missile to be fired, prevents the missile from _____________.

A

3-5 degrees

Flying through the designator FOV

71
Q

What are the laser detractors

A

Underspill, Spot Jitter, Attenuation, Back Scatter, Overspill, Boresight Error, Beam Divergence, Entrapment, and Podium Effect

72
Q
A

LOBL: 500/1200, 7100
LOAL-D/L: 1500/1700, 7100
LOAL-H: 3500/3500, 8000

73
Q
A

LOBL: 500/1200, 7100
LOAL-D/L: 1500/2000, 7100
LOAL-H: 2000/2500, 8000
LOAH-H HOB: 2500/3000, 6500

74
Q

For each _____ increase in launcher altitude above target, Rmax may be adjusted by the delta Rmax value in the table.

A

1kft

75
Q

The LOBL maximum range is

A

7.1 km for a target at the same altitude as the helicopter

76
Q

Fundamentally, placing the DPOI on ____________ yields optimal munitions effects.

A

The base of the turret yields optimal munitions effects

77
Q

The following three possible methods used to engage a target with and RF missile in LOAL mode:

A
  1. Using own ship FCR as the acquiring sight
  2. Receiving a RFHO
  3. TADS handover
78
Q

When firing a LOAL TADS HO, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no long than ______ after the TARGET DATA? message disappears

A

5-7 seconds

79
Q

Does the constraints box size directly correlate to an angle

A

No

80
Q

What’s the allowable LOBL and LOAL angles for JAGM, and R SAL missiles.

A

20 LOBL
30 LOAL

81
Q

For RF missiles in either LOAL or LOBL the allowable angle is _______ except when the missile is tracking and the target range is less than 1km, then its _____

A

20 degrees
5 degrees

82
Q

The _________________ button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the primary RF missile during a stationary target engagement. _________________ is common to both crew stations.

A

2nd Target Inhibit

83
Q

The RFHO button is used for transmission of what

A

The FCR NTS

84
Q

MRFI threat symbols representing MRFI detected emitters are displayed on the _____________ to indicate the direction to the detected threat.

A

Periphery of the radar scan sector

85
Q

Up to how many MRFI threats are displayed on the FCR page

A

10

86
Q

What is fratricide

A

The employment of friendly weapons and munitions with the intent to kill the enemy or destroy his equipment or facilities, which results in unforeseen and unintentional death or injury to friendly personnel

87
Q

What factors contribute to fratricide

A

METT-TC

88
Q

Aviation units must incorporate ________ as their baseline for all operations.

A

Doctrine

89
Q

Angels

A

Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet MSL

90
Q

Capture

A

Object has been acquired and is being tracked

91
Q

Saunter

A

Fly at best endurance

92
Q

Danger Close

A

FRIENDLY troops are within 0.1% probability of incapacitation from the target

93
Q

Mud

A

RWR indication of surface threat in track mode

94
Q

Popeye

A
  1. Flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility
  2. Reduce EO/IR visibility due to atmospherics
95
Q

Remington

A

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protection ammunition

96
Q

Rifle

A

FRIENDLY A/S missile launch.

97
Q

Ripple

A

Two or more munitions will be released or fired in close succession. Asssociated with number and type of weapon with release interval.

98
Q

Blind

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship, or ground position. Opposite of Visual

99
Q

No Joy

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT. Opposite of Tally

100
Q

Tally

A

Sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of No Joy

101
Q

Visual

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship. Opposite of BLIND

102
Q

Stare

A

Cue the laser spot search or tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point. The reference point may include the following: steer point, geographic reference, bearing and range, or data link point.

103
Q

_____________ influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along its trajectory

A

Exterior ballistics

104
Q

Aerial-fired weapons characteristics are derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are ____________________________

A

Rotor downwash error, angular rate error, and turning bank error

AH64 (7 decks)

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