GST JAN 2025 Flashcards
What is destruction
Destruction is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. It requires weapons to strike within lethal range of the target
What is neutralization
Neutralization requires weapons effects to hit the target and cause damage to it. Cannot be achieved by rounds that miss the target. Neutralizing damage to a target can temporarily remove it from the battle.
What is suppression
Suppression of a target limits the ability of enemy personnel to perform their mission. Used to defend friendly forces. Limits enemy movement and observation and increases friendly FoM
What are the five techniques of fire
Hover, Running, Diving, Low altitude bump, Diving/Running IP
What is kinematic range
The maximum distance that the round can physically fly
What is Rmax
The range at which a defined target can be hit, though not necessarily defeated.
What is Rme
The distance at which there is a 50% probability of both hitting and defeating a target.
What are the types of ballistics
Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal
What is ballistics
The science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion
What are the interior ballistics
Barrel wear, Launcher tube misalignment, Thrust misalignment, Propellant charge, and Projectile weight
What are the types of exterior ballistics
Gravity, Air resistance, Projectile drift, and Wind drift
Projectile drift increases as __________
Range to the target increases
What are the types of Aerial ballistics
Trajectory shift, Propellant force, Projectile jump, Port-starboard effect, CG, Rotor down-wash, Relative wind effect, Angular rate, Turning bank
(TPP-PCR-RAT)
When does projectile jump occur
When a crew fires a weapon from an a/c in flight and the weapon’s muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind
Which way does the round move from projectile jump
Firing to the right produces a downward jump. Firing to the left produces an upward jump.
What causes angular rate error
Caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.
How is the TSE implemented
Whenever continuous lasing is in progress and a fresh range update is available from the LRV, the TSE updates target states and co-variances. Otherwise, the TSE extrapolates target states based on the last valid range measurement.
The TSE is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:
A. Processed range data from the laser range validator
B. TADS LOS vector, pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros
C. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI
D. Thumb force controller inputs
During dynamic engagements, continuous laser ranging is required to compensate for target and/or a/c movement. Prior to firing, the CPG should verify a solid asterisk is displayed in front of the laser range for at least __________
3-5 seconds
The TSE continues to provide dynamic provide dynamic range data for a ballistic solution for _________ after the second detent laser trigger is released. It is important to note that the TSE will zero all dynamic values if the laser trigger is released.
10 seconds
The Army Attack Aviation Call for Fire (5-line) is a “____________” brief that does ______________
Friendly centric, does not require a JTAC
What are the parts of the Artillery call for fire
1st transmission:
Callsign and Warning order
2nd transmission:
Target location
3rd transmission:
Target description, method of engagement, and method of control
What is the clearance to fire for a 5-line
Transmission of the brief unless “danger close”, “at my command”, or an additional method of control is stated.
What is makes up TPMR
Techniques, Patterns, Munitions, Range
What are the types of patterns for TPMR
Racetrack, Butterfly, 45 degree, Circular/Wheel, Clover, Figure 8, L-pattern
The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are they
Shooter/cover
Shooter/shooter
Looker/shooter
What steps are used to get the most consistent rocket engagements
Four T’s
Target, Torque, Trim, Target
- Terminal guidance “tick mark”
- Predicted Impact Vector
How long until the PIV is displayed and is it dynamically sized
3 seconds of continuous lasing
yes
- Target Range Indicator
- Dynamic Launch Zone
What are the 3 levels of safe
- Finger off the trigger
- Weapons action switch deselected
- Safe/Arm button—Safe
30mm risk estimated distance for 0.1% Pi (standing)
500/55
1,000/70
1,500/100
What are the visual markings of the M789
Black and yellow
Engagement at greater than _________ can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts
2,000 meters
What are the visual markings of the M788
Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings
What must you do to conduct AWS dynamic harmonization
- Aircraft heading to target within +/- 5 degrees of the TADS LOS
- Range to target 500-1,500 m. Preferred is 1,000m
- Transcribe the gun harm correctors to DA form 2408-14
The projectile of the round (m789) has a shaped charge liner for piercing in excess of ______ of RHA at _________ and a fragmentation radius of __________ for soft targets
- 2 inches
- 2,500 m
- 4 m
5.8 seconds
When engaging vehicle targets, the DMPI should be _________. When engaging exposed personnel, the DMPI should be ______ and/or ___________-
- Center of mass
- offset
- short of the target
What is the gun duty cycle
Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limit settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired withing 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated
What are the burst limit settings
10, 20, 50, 100, or all
If ____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the a/c for _________. Crewmembers should remain in the a/c and continue positive gun control
300, ten minutes, 30 minutes
In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to ______ to prevent dig-in during landing.
+11 degrees
What is the Rme, Rve, and max ballistic solution for the AWS
1500-1700m, 3,000m, and 4,200m
Fixed gun Aiming reticle, Norm
The AWS will continue to follow ________ when operating in NVS fixed mode
IHADSS LOS
How many rounds does the IAFS store
300 rounds
242 rounds in the magazine and 58 rounds in the AHS
- 110
- 135
- 170
- 235
- 105
The minimum range to target when firing flachette rockets is ________. The effective range is _______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than ______
800m
1-3 km
3 km
Re-inventory and attempting to fire ____, ____, and ____ rockets, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _____ to allow the M439 fuze to reset
6MP, 6FL, and 6SK
10 days
What are the markings of the M151 10-pounder
Olive body with yellow band and yellow or black markings
The hydra-70 rocket has a large dispersion. Hit probability is increased with __________
Running/diving fire and close range
The rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at __________ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray.
High dive angles
What are the markings of the flachette rocket (M255A1)
Olive body with white diamond markings
Flachettes are kinetic energy penetrators; so ____________. Flachette velocity decreases with increased ranges parallel the rocket.
short range shots will result in imporved penetration performance of the flechettes
What is the proper umbilical cord routing for the flachette rocket
M257 (overt) provides approximately 1 million candle power for a minimum of ______. The candle is deployed approximately ___________
100 seconds
3500m
What are the markings of the M257 (overt) illumination rocket
olive body with white markings
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended rocket motor and warhead case. Impact zone extends out __________ from deployement point.
700-1,200 m
The M278 (covert) Infrared illumination provides approximately 1 million candle power for __________.
150-210 seconds
- Normal
- Ground stow
- Fixed rocket
- Inhibited
The vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G’s and may cause the main rotor blades to obstruct the trajectory of the rockets. Is accel limit a safety or performance inhibit
Safety inhibit
The last crewmember to action a weapon has control of that weapon except when
If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, then coop mode is in effect. The active LOS will be the CPG’s LOS.
The cursor will be dashed when _______________________
A safety or performance inhibit is in effect, indicating crew action is required prior to firing rockets.
The ________ is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at __________. This mode allows the firing crewmember to adjust rocket fires onto target by maneuvering the a/c and reduces errors caused by pylon articulation and LOS movement.
FXD mode
2,000m
- M278 IR Illum
- M255A1 Flechette
- M264 Red phosphorus
M255A1 Flechette
M151 10 pounder
- 115
- 130
- 145
Rotating the a/c just before launch, at least _______ in the direction of the missile to be fired, prevents the missile from _____________.
3-5 degrees
Flying through the designator FOV
What are the laser detractors
Underspill, Spot Jitter, Attenuation, Back Scatter, Overspill, Boresight Error, Beam Divergence, Entrapment, and Podium Effect
LOBL: 500/1200, 7100
LOAL-D/L: 1500/1700, 7100
LOAL-H: 3500/3500, 8000
LOBL: 500/1200, 7100
LOAL-D/L: 1500/2000, 7100
LOAL-H: 2000/2500, 8000
LOAH-H HOB: 2500/3000, 6500
For each _____ increase in launcher altitude above target, Rmax may be adjusted by the delta Rmax value in the table.
1kft
The LOBL maximum range is
7.1 km for a target at the same altitude as the helicopter
Fundamentally, placing the DPOI on ____________ yields optimal munitions effects.
The base of the turret yields optimal munitions effects
The following three possible methods used to engage a target with and RF missile in LOAL mode:
- Using own ship FCR as the acquiring sight
- Receiving a RFHO
- TADS handover
When firing a LOAL TADS HO, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no long than ______ after the TARGET DATA? message disappears
5-7 seconds
Does the constraints box size directly correlate to an angle
No
What’s the allowable LOBL and LOAL angles for JAGM, and R SAL missiles.
20 LOBL
30 LOAL
For RF missiles in either LOAL or LOBL the allowable angle is _______ except when the missile is tracking and the target range is less than 1km, then its _____
20 degrees
5 degrees
The _________________ button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the primary RF missile during a stationary target engagement. _________________ is common to both crew stations.
2nd Target Inhibit
The RFHO button is used for transmission of what
The FCR NTS
MRFI threat symbols representing MRFI detected emitters are displayed on the _____________ to indicate the direction to the detected threat.
Periphery of the radar scan sector
Up to how many MRFI threats are displayed on the FCR page
10
What is fratricide
The employment of friendly weapons and munitions with the intent to kill the enemy or destroy his equipment or facilities, which results in unforeseen and unintentional death or injury to friendly personnel
What factors contribute to fratricide
METT-TC
Aviation units must incorporate ________ as their baseline for all operations.
Doctrine
Angels
Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet MSL
Capture
Object has been acquired and is being tracked
Saunter
Fly at best endurance
Danger Close
FRIENDLY troops are within 0.1% probability of incapacitation from the target
Mud
RWR indication of surface threat in track mode
Popeye
- Flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility
- Reduce EO/IR visibility due to atmospherics
Remington
No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protection ammunition
Rifle
FRIENDLY A/S missile launch.
Ripple
Two or more munitions will be released or fired in close succession. Asssociated with number and type of weapon with release interval.
Blind
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship, or ground position. Opposite of Visual
No Joy
Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT. Opposite of Tally
Tally
Sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of No Joy
Visual
Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship. Opposite of BLIND
Stare
Cue the laser spot search or tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point. The reference point may include the following: steer point, geographic reference, bearing and range, or data link point.
_____________ influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along its trajectory
Exterior ballistics
Aerial-fired weapons characteristics are derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are ____________________________
Rotor downwash error, angular rate error, and turning bank error
