DES Test Prep Flashcards
1
Q
When may you deviate from the provisions provided in 95-1
A
During emergencies
2
Q
What must you do if you deviate from provisions of 95-1, FAA, or host country regulations
A
Report with the details of the incident directly to the unit commander within 24 hours
3
Q
When must a checklist be used
A
For preflight through before leaving the aircraft checks
4
Q
When may checks be performed by memory
A
While airborne, when time does not permit the utilization of the checklist or when its use would cause a safety hazard
5
Q
When may private, closed, or otherwise restricted airports and heliports be used
A
Only with prior permission of appropriate authorities and if the facility is suitable for operations
6
Q
When are anti-collision lights required
A
When aircraft engines are operating except when conditions may cause vertigo or other hazards to safety
7
Q
What position will the position lights be on during sunset to sunrise
A
Bright
8
Q
When may you deviate from lighting requirements
A
Commanders may authorize exemptions to lighting requirements in threat environments or for night vision device flights. Exemption must be clearly defined and authorized by the unit commander in the SOP.
9
Q
If _____ days have elapsed since the last flight as pilot or pilot in command in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series (or series, group, per the applicable ATM) to be flown, the aviator will be administered ________ per the ATM.
A
60 days, a PFE
10
Q
AMCs will be chosen based upon?
A
Recent aviation experience, maturity, judgement, their abilities for mission SA, understanding of the commander’s intent, and not necessarily on rank/grade.
11
Q
Smoking or open flames are prohibited in, or within _____ feet of Army aircraft
A
50 feet
12
Q
Before beginning a flight, the aircrew will acquaint themselves with the mission, procedures, and rules. The aviator will evaluate?
A
Aircraft performance; departure, enroute and approach data; NOTAMS, TFRs, local NOTAMS, host country/theater requirements; DOD/FLIP; verify DAFIF
13
Q
For flight weather planning, which portion of the weather must pilots obtain prior to take off
A
Departure, enroute, destination and alternate (if used)
DEAD
14
Q
When there are intermittent weather conditions
A
Predominant weather will apply
15
Q
Helicopter SVFR minima is?
A
1/2 SM, clear of clouds unless a higher minimum is specified at the airfield
16
Q
IFR flight destination weather must be forecast to be?
A
Equal to or greater than published planning minimums for the approach to be flown at ETA through 1 hour after ETA
17
Q
Aviators flying helicopters may reduce destination and alternate category A visibility minimums by ____, but not less than ____ or metric equivalent
A
50%, 1/4 SM
18
Q
Can approaches labeled “Copter only” be reduced? If so, when?
A
No
19
Q
If there is no weather reporting service what may be used
A
Aircrews may use GFA
20
Q
After departing a nonmilitary airfield, the PC will advise?
A
FSS or other competent authority of the departure time
21
Q
Locally produced operations log may/may not be used for local flights
A
May
22
Q
Weight and Balance. The PC will ensure?
A
- The accuracy of computations on the DD form 365-4
- That a completed 365-4 is on board or readily available to ensure the aircraft will remain within weight and CG limits throughout the flight for all configurations
23
Q
All aviators will comply with published ______________ IFR takeoff minimums and departure procedures in flight information publications?
A
Non-standard
24
Q
The aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff who has logged ________ or more of actual weather time as pilot-in command has ______ takeoff minimums
A
50, no
25
The aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff that does not meet the pc weather time, has the following minimums?
100 ft. ceiling and either 1/4 SM vis or 1200 ft. RVR
26
SVFR flights within and departures from Class B, C, D, and E airspace are authorized provided the weather requirements of CFR Title 14, Part 91 or applicable host country flight regulations are met and ________________
Appropriate ATC clearance is obtained
27
Army helicopter SVFR minima?
1/2 SM, clear of clouds unless a higher minimum is specified
28
During IMC flight, all instruments and communication equipment in the cockpit?
Will be kept in the on position and immediately available for use
29
Aircraft will not be flown above a cloud or fog layer under VFR for more than?
30 minutes unless,
1. the a/c is equipped for instrument flight and not restricted from IMC flight
2. all IFR and requirements can be met for the remaining flight
30
Aviators shall avoid over flight of national security areas below?
2000 feet AGL
31
Off-tuning from the approach aid to identify and approach fix is __________
Authorized
32
When may an approach be intiated
Regardless of ceiling and visibility
33
An aircraft will not be flown below the published MDA or an approach continued below the DH unless?
1. The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area must be visible to the pilot.
2. The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach can be made
34
When the flight terminates, the PC will ensure the flight plan?
Is closed
35
Class 2 aircraft are those whose weight or center of gravity limits?
Can be readily exceeded by loading arrangements normally used in tactical operations
36
All DD forms 365-4 in the aircraft weight and balance file and all duplicate DD forms 365-4 in the aircraft will be checked for accuracy in accordance with the criteria established in TM 55-1500-342-23 at least?
Every 90 days
37
If no changes are required, the DD forms 365-4 ______________
Will be redated and initialed in the date block to certify their currency
38
All weight and balance records will, as a minimum, be reviewed every __________
12 months
39
Are mission briefers authorized to brief regardless of risk?
Yes
40
Helicopter traffic pattern should be at least?
700 ft AGL
41
Names of flight crew involved in actual or alleged violations will be treated as ___________ information. Any person receiving requests for names of flight crews of Army aircraft should direct such inquires to ________________?
Restricted, Commander USAASA
42
To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight once every ______ days at a crew station with ___________________
60, access to the flight controls
43
Your current location is the blue dot in the picture below, what airspace are you in at 1500 ft AGL, and what are your VFR weather minimums
Class C
500 ft below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
44
What is the minimum visibility for operations in class G airspace below 1200 ft AGL
1/2 SM day
1 SM night
45
What are the Army VFR weather minimums for class E airspace less than 10,000 MSL
3 SM
500, 1000, 2000
46
VFR flight destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at ETA through ________ after ETA
One hour
47
If an ACM fails to meet the AIRF requirements, the individual's card or electronic equivalent will be show red and the individual will?
Be prohibited from performing crew duties until the requirement has been met
48
All ACMs seeing any healthcare provider (civilian or military) other than a CAB FS or APA will?
Notify and be cleared by their assigned FS or APA prior to performing flight duties. Notification may be in person, electronic or telephonic.
49
Unless otherwise stated, RCMs shall fly a minimum of ________ hour unaided night flight per semi-annual period. Unaided night flight is not recommended below ______ AHO, except for takeoff and landing.
1 hour, 200 ft
50
The NVS (MPNVS and MTADS) FLIR remains the primary sensor for night operations, and must be?
Operational prior to takeoff and during the entire mission
51
NVG operations will be IAW the ATM. Unless there are equipment malfunctions with MTADS or MPNVS both pilots will not?
Utilize NVGs simultaneously
52
A minimum of _________ hours semi-annually of hood, weather, or SFTS "W" time is required for each aviator, of which _______ hours should be flown in the aircraft.
3 hours, 1.5 hours
53
3rd CAB specific IIMC procedures. Aircraft flown with a ceiling within 300 ft of cruise altitudes day, or within 500 ft at night/NVD shall have?
1. One radio tuned to approach control
2. A nav radio tuned to an appropriate NDB or VOR
3. HAAF programmed into the system GPS
54
Adjust to climb power. Climb to the briefed altitude; base altitude for the Fort Stewart Local Flying Area is?
3500 ft MSL
55
BN/SQDN/TF Commanders will be notified of training flights that depart the _______ radius of HAAF
150 NM
56
Are we authorized to conduct eye-safe laser operations on R-3005 and R-3007?
Yes
57
Battery will be at a minimum of ______ charged prior to flight. Additionally, battery will have _______ charge for each planned hour of flight
50%, 10%
58
Aircrews must qualify on GT-III, G-COFT within _______ prior to advancing to GT-IV live fire
6 months
59
The duty day starts with arrival at work and ends with release from duty. The commander should not plan duty days that exceed a maximum of ________ total.
12 hours
60
Rest periods are defined as the __________ after release from duty until the start of the next duty day. The most important aspect of rest for every crewmember is ________ of uninterrupted sleep.
10 hours, 7-8 hours
61
Duty Day Shift. A shift in an individual duty day cycle by ________ earlier "left" requires a 24 hour reset unless approved by the BN/SQDN/TF commander. A shift in an individual an individual duty day cycle to the ________ generally results in a greater rest period, therefore there is no reset requirement for a shift to a later duty day cycle.
6 or more hours, right
62
Flying hour limitations
Day:
Any combination:
NVD:
8, 7, 6
63
Is underwire flight approved in the local area?
No
64
RECON LEVELS
Response Time
REDCON 1:
REDCON 2:
REDCON 3:
Immediate takeoff
15 minutes
30 minutes
65
After departure flight crews will conduct individual WAILRM fence out posture as follows:
W- weapons armed/safe as required
A- ASE set as required
I- IFF/Transponder as briefed
L- Lighting as briefed, or required
R- Recorder on
M- MPD configured
66
Weather minimums
67
Weather minimums
68
All flights off a military reservation in garrison, will maintain a minimum altitude of at least _______ AGL with a _______ slant range from buildings, livestock, or other manmade obstructions
500 ft, 500 ft
69
70
What is the symbol with the green arrow and what does it mean?
Distance is not to scale for the feeder route
71
what is the symbol with the red arrow and what does it mean?
Final approach fix for a non-precision approach (Maltese cross)
Represents the fix from which the final approach to an airport is executed and identifies the beginning of the final approach segment
72
What is the symbol with the yellow arrow?
Location of the VOR/DME on airfield
73
What is the symbol with the blue arrow
Height above touchdown
The height of the DH or MDA above the touchdown zone zone elevation - the highest elevation of the first 3000 feet of the runway. Specific to straight in procedures
74
Acceptable common techniques for executing a procedure turn are the following:
1. Teardrop pattern
2. Standard 45 degree turn (45/180)
3. 80/260 course reversal
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
75
Smoking causes _____ hypoxia?
Hypemic
76
Drowsiness, poor judgment, impaired coordination and impaired efficiency are signs of what stage of hypoxia?
Compensatory
77
What is considered to be the most important monocular cue?
1. Geometric perspective
2. Aerial perspective
3. Apparent foreshortening
4. Motion parallax
4. Motion Parallax
78
Chronic fatigue is typically the result of inadequate recovery for successive periods of acute fatigue. It can be characterized by some or all of the following characteristics.
1. slowed reaction time, depressed mood, and loss of appetite
2. physical signs of fatigue and craving rest
3. increased respiration, heart rate and perspiration
4. errors in timing, distractibility, and neglect of secondary tasks
1. slowed reaction time, depressed mood, and loss of appetite
79
What are three types of fatigue?
Acute, Chronic, and Motivational Exhaustion (Burnout)
80
What are the sensory systems that are used in maintaing equilibrium, orientation, and balance?
Proprioceptive, Visual, Vestibular
81
What is not a type of hypoxia?
1. Inhalation
2. Hypemic
3. Histotoxic
4. Stagnant
1. Inhalation
82
In unpressurized aircraft, oxygen will be used by aircraft crews and occupants for flights:
1. above 10,000 ft PA for more than one hour, above 12,000 ft PA for more than 20 minutes and anytime above 14,000 ft PA
2. Above 10,000 ft PA for more than 30 minutes, above 12,000 feet PA for more than one hour and anytime above 14,000 ft PA
3. Above 10,000 ft AGL for more than one hour, above 12,000 ft AGL for more than 30 minutes and anytime above 14,000 ft AGL
4. Above 10,000 ft PA for more than one hour, above 12,000 ft PA for more than 30 minutes and anytime above 14,000 ft PA
4. Above 10,000 ft PA for more than one hour, above 12,000 ft PA altitude for more than 30 minutes and anytime above 14,000 ft PA
83
What monocular cue makes an object look elliptical?
Geometric perspective (apparent foreshortening)
84
How long are crewmembers grounded after receiving a flu shot?
12 hours
85
What type of spatial disorientation is the most dangerous
unrecognized
86
What does line A represent?
TAF
87
What does line B represent
Angle of Attack
88
What does line C represent
Angle of incidence
89
What does line D represent
Induced Flow
90
What are the three types of drag?
Profile, Parasite, Induced
91
What airspeed allows the aircraft to remain flying the most amount of time?
Max endurance
92
What are the conditions to get into settling with power?
20-100% of power available applied with insufficient power to arrest descent
Low forward airspeed, generally less than ETL
High rate of descent (>300 fpm)
93
Which of the following factors can induce spatial disorientation while wearing NVGs in flight?
1. Rapid head movement
2. Rapid changes in aircraft attitude
3. Drastic bank angles
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
94
What is the most effective method in preventing dynamic rollover?
1. A combination of quick collective and cyclic inputs
2. Termination by executing a slow, controlled ascent to a hover
3. Smooth and moderate collective inputs
4. An immediate collective reduction
3. Smooth and moderate collective inputs
95
Dissymmetry of Lift is compensated by?
1. Blade flapping and gyroscopic precession
2. Cyclic feathering and coning
3. Blade flapping and cyclic feathering
4. Phase lag and coning
3. Blade flapping and cyclic feathering
96
ETL occurs when the helicopter completely outruns the recirculation of old vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air. This occurs at about ____ to _____ knots.
16-24 KTAS
97
Best rate of climb/max endurance airspeed has the following characteristics:
1. total drag is at the minimum with the largest amount of excess power available
2. Lowest fuel flow during powered flight
3. Maximum single engine gross weight that can be carried
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
98
Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors. Following blood donation (_____ cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours.
200 cc, 72 hours
99
After tear gas exposure, crewmembers are restricted from flight duties for:
1. A period of 12 hours provided there no residual effects
2. 48 hours
3. 6 hours
4. None of the above
4. none
100
The vortex ring state can be completely avoided by descending on flight paths shallower than about _______ degrees (at any speed).
30 degrees
101
Dynamic rollover can occur on level ground as well as during a slope or crosswind landing and takeoff. T/F
True
102
In operations at high forward speeds, the following conditions are most likely to produce blade stall:
1. High blade loading (high gross weight), low rotor RPM, high DA, high G maneuvers, and turbulent air.
2. 20-100% of available torque applied, low rotor RPM, high DA, high G maneuvers, and turbulent air.
3. Excessive blade coning, low rotor RPM, high PA, high G maneuvers, and turbulent air
4. High blade loading (high gross weight), high rotor RPM, low temperatures, high G maneuvers, and turbulent air.
1. High blade loading (high gross weight), low rotor RPM, high DA, high G maneuvers, and turbulent air
103
The following operating conditions represent the most adverse compressibility conditions:
1. High blade loading (high gross weight), low rotor RPM
2. Low temperatures, high G maneuvers, and turbulent air
3. High gross weight, high rotor RPM, high airspeed, low temperatures, high G maneuvers, high DA, and turbulent air
4. Both a and b
3. High gross weight, high rotor RPM, high airspeed, low temperatures, high G maneuvers, high DA, and turbulent air
104
In mountainous terrain, local wind during the day tends to flow _______ the valley and flows _______ the valley at night.
Up, down
105
The most dangerous type of icing is:
1. Rime
2. Moderate
3. Mixed
4. Clear
4. D
Due to the fact that it is difficult to see and can change the shape of the airfoil
106
The FCR's maximum range (for moving targets) is extended to _______ and is available in both targeting and surveillance modes.
16km
107
Only moving targets are detected in the extended range, at what range are moving targets detected?
>6km
108
What are the 3 reasons why the next to shoot symbol is dashed?
1. FCR not selected sight
2. A/C not armed
3. Weapons not WAS'd
