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Pediatrics > Growth and Development > Flashcards

Growth and Development Flashcards

1
Q

Females

(a) Puberty onset—years
(b) Precocious puberty 􏰃 years
(c) Delayed puberty 􏰁 years
(d) First physical sign—
(e) Peak height velocity—
(f) Menarche—years
(g) Fertility— years

A

Females

(a) Puberty onset—9 to 10 years
(b) Precocious puberty 􏰃 8 years
(c) Delayed puberty 􏰁 13 years
(d) First physical sign—breast buds
(e) Peak height velocity—12.4 years
(f) Menarche—12.5years
(g) Fertility—15 years

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2
Q

Males

(a) Puberty onset— years
(b) Precocious puberty 􏰃 years
(c) Delayed puberty 􏰁 years
d) First physical sign—
e) Peak height velocity—years
f) Spermarche—years
(g) Fertility—years

A

Males

(a) Puberty onset—11 to 12 years
(b) Precocious puberty 􏰃 9 years
(c) Delayed puberty 􏰁 14 years
d) First physical sign—testicular growth
e) Peak height velocity—14.4 years
f) Spermarche—13 to 14 years
(g) Fertility—15 years

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3
Q 
Stages of genital maturity in male takes approximately \_\_years to move from stage
2 to5 (tanner Staging)
A

4 years

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4
Q

FEMALES (Tanner staging)

(1) Stage 1:
(2) Stage 2:
(3) Stage 3:
(4) Stage 4:
(5) Stage 5:

A

Female
(Tanner staging)
(1) Stage 1: Preadolescent breast with nipple elevation, no pubic hair
(2) Stage 2: Breast buds with areolar enlargement, sparse pale fine pubic hair
(3) Stage 3: Breast enlargement without separate contour with nipple, darker more curled increased amount of pubic hair
(4) Stage 4: Projection of areola and nipple as secondary mound to breast, hair is adult in character, but doesn’t cover entire pubic area
(5) Stage 5: Adult breast with areola receding and nipple projecting from
breast, adult distribution in quantity and pattern

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5
Q 
Stages of pubic hair development in males
and females (Tanner staging)
(1) Stage 1: 
(2) Stage 2: 
(3) Stage 3: 
Stage 4: 
Stage 5
A

Stages of pubic hair development in males
and females (Tanner staging)
(1) Stage 1: Preadolescent without pubic hair
(2) Stage 2: Sparse, pale, fine pubic hair
(3) Stage 3: Darker, more curled, increased amount of pubic hair
Stage 4: Hair is adult in character but doesn’t cover entire pubic area
(5) Stage 5: Adult distribution in quantity, quality, and pattern

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6
Q 
Male genital maturity with hair
Stage 1: 
Stage 2: 
Stage 3: 
Stage 4: 
Stage 5:
A

Stage 1: Preadolescent testes, scrotum, and penis, no pubic hair
Stage 2: Enlargement of scrotum and testes; scrotum reddens and roughens , sparse pale fine pubic hair
Stage 3: Penis enlarges primarily in length, Darker, more curled, increased amount of pubic hair
Stage 4: Penis enlarges in breadth and development of glans, Hair is adult in character but doesn’t cover entire pubic area
Stage 5: Adult size and shape, hair distribution adult quality


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7
Q

Gynecomastia is usually found in which of the following?

A

a 14 year old male who is at Tanner stage 3

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8
Q

What is thelarche and when does it happen?
Tanner Stage
What age

A

Thelarche is the earliest breast development and it is at onset of Tanner Stage 2, earliest age is 7 years old

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9
Q

What is pubarche and when does it happen?
Tanner Stage
What age

A

Earliest pubic hair development in Tanner Stage 2.

8 year old to 13 years old.

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10
Q

Tanner Stage ?

Projection of areola and nipple as secondary mound to breast,

A

4

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11
Q

Tanner Stage ?

hair is adult in character, but doesn’t cover entire pubic area

A

4

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12
Q

Tanner Stage?

Penis enlarges in breadth and development of glans,

A

4

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13
Q

Tanner Stage

Darker, more curled, increased amount of pubic hair

A

3

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14
Q

Tanner Stage

Breast buds with areolar enlargement

A

2

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15
Q

Prepubertal growth occurs at Tanner Stage ____ in girls

Prepubertal growth occurs at Tanner Stage ____ in boys

A

Prepubertal growth occurs at Tanner Stage 2-3 in girls

Prepubertal growth occurs at Tanner Stage 3-4 in boys

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16
Q

The correct order of maturation in males is:

  1. Facial, axillary, then pubic hair
  2. axillary, pubic, facial hair
  3. pubic, axillary, and then facial hair
  4. They all appear within 6 months of each other
A
  1. pubic, axillary, and then facial hair

Starts low and then moves up

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17
Q

The earliest secondary sexual characteristic in girls is

  1. Development of pubic hair
  2. the onset of breast development (thelarche)
  3. Linear growth
  4. Menarche
A
  1. the onset of breast development (thelarche)
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18
Q

The earliest stage of male maturation is

  1. the development of pubic hair
  2. Linear growth
  3. Testicular volume
  4. Lengthening of the penis
A
  1. Testicular volume
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19
Q

Normal vision in child is expected by

  1. 4 years of age
  2. 5 years of age
  3. 6 years of age
  4. 7 years of age
A

6 years of age

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20
Q

In most children, the primary teeth have completely erupted by:

  1. 12 months
  2. 14 months
  3. 20 months
  4. 24 months
A

24 months

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21
Q

In most children, the first teeth have erupted by:

  1. 4 months
  2. 6 months
  3. 8 months
  4. 10 months
A

6 months

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22
Q

When should a child be completely intelligible in terms of articulation?

  1. 3 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 6 years
A

by 4 years

23
Q

First permanent dentition in child is expected by

  1. 5-6 years of age
  2. 6-8 years of age
  3. 8-9 years of age
  4. 9-10 years of age
A

6-8 years

24
Q

When is fluoride supplementation begun?

A

at 6 months

25
Q

The best way to examine the oral cavity of a small child is

  1. with the child standing looking at the ceiling
  2. to lie the child on his back on an exam table
  3. to have the caregiver hold the child in her lap
  4. by asking the child to open his mouth
A
  1. to lie the child on his back on an exam table
26
Q

What is the normal heart rate of a child at birth

A

120 -1 60 bpm with marked sinus arrhythmia

27
Q

What is the normal heart rate of a child at 3 years of age

A

80 -120 beats per minute

28
Q

What is the normal heart rate of a child at 6 years of age

A

70-110 beats per minute

29
Q

When should routine BP screening begin for children?

  1. 3 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 6 years
A

3 years old

30
Q

True or False

Physiologic jaundice usually is found in the first 24 hours

A

False

31
Q

True or False

Pathologic jaundice usually is found in the first 24 hours

A

True

32
Q

Anterior Fontanel closes by

A

18 months

33
Q

Posterior Fontanel closes by

A

2-3 months

34
Q

At which age of the following ages in an infants life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful?

a. 1 to 2 months
b. 2 to 4 months
c. 4 to 6 months
d. 8 to 10 months

A

4 to 6 months (thats when they start eating the solids)

35
Q

At which age of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about TEMPER TANTRUM most helpful?

a. 12 to 14 months
b. 10 to 12 months
c. 14 to 16 months
d. 8 to 10 months

A

10 to 12 months (before they start walking, and knowing things)

36
Q

At which age of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about FALLS most helpful?

a. birth
b. 2 weeks
c. 2 months
d. 4 months

A

a. birth

37
Q

At which age of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about sleep most helpful?

a. birth
b. 2 weeks
c. 2 months
d. 4 months

A

BIRTH

38
Q

At which age of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about TIME OUT most helpful?

a. 12 to 14 months
b. 18 to 24months
c. 24 to 30 months
d. 30 to 36 months

A

b. 18 to 24months

39
Q

At which age of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about TOILET TRAINING readiness most helpful?

a. 12 months
b. 15 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

A

18 months

40
Q

The following chromosomal syndrome is a common etiology of social and verbal developmental delays in boys:

a. Tay-Sachs disease
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Fragile X
d. Trisomy 18

A

c. Fragile X

41
Q

One physical sign of Fragile X syndrome in males include

a. large eyes
b. large forehead
c. small head
d. recessive jaw

A

Large forehead, ears, prominent jaw, tendency to avoid eye contact, large habits, hyperactivity, developmental disability common.
Females; Less common with fewer prominent findings, usually with less severe developmental issues.

42
Q

Kleinfelter syndrome is most commonly marked by:

a. language impairment in males
b. fine motor delay in males
c. hip and breast enlargement in women
d. ADD in males

A

a. language impairment in males

43
Q

Kleinfelter syndrome and risk for having a child with this condition can be accurately identified by (choose all that apply):

a. urine test
b. literacy assessment
c. amniocentesis
d. blood testing for carrier state.

A

c. amniocentesis

d. blood testing for carrier state.

44
Q

Fragile X and risk for having a child with this condition can be accurately identified by (choose all that apply):

a. urine test
b. literacy assessment
c. amniocentesis
d. blood testing for carrier state.

A

c. amniocentesis

d. blood testing for carrier state.

45
Q

An 11 year old well child presents with no documented primary tetanus immunization series. Which of the following represents the immunization needed?

a. 3 doses of DTaP vaccine 2 months apart
b. tetanus immune globulin now and 2 doses of tetanus diphtheria (td) 1 month apart
c. one dose of Tdap followed by 2 doses of Td in 1 and 6 months
d. Td (tetanus, diphtheria) as a single dose.

A

c. one dose of Tdap followed by 2 doses of Td in 1 and 6 months

Older children going through a “catch up” immunization schedule should receive one Tdap and 2 td doses at the appropriate interval.
(7-18 years old)

46
Q

Usual tx for a child with hep A includes:

a. interferon alpha
b. ribarivin
c. acyclovir
d. supportive care.

A

d. supportive care.

47
Q

At which age is a child at greatest risk for Pertussis?

a. 10 years old.

A
48
Q

Common signs and symptoms of pertussis in a 3 year old child include all of the following except:

a. uncontrollable cough
b. vomiting
c. fatigue
d. diffuse rash

A

diffuse rash

49
Q

The most helpful tests to support the diagnosis of pertussis include which of the following? more than one can apply:

a. chest x ray
b. nasopharyngeal culture
c. blood culture
d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing

A

b. nasopharyngeal culture (gold standard)

d. PCR testing

50
Q

The preferred treatment option for a 6 year old boy with pertussis is :

a. amoxicillin
b. ceftriaxone
c. Azithromycin
d. Levofloxacin

A

Macrolide

Azithromycin.

51
Q

What is Pertussis?

A

whooping cough, a highly contagious respiratory disease. The infection is characterized by a paraoxysmal cough (a series of severe, vigorous coughs during a single expiration) that offend makes it difficult to breathe. Following a cough fit, the child often needs to take deep breaths resulting in the high pitched whooping sound. Pertussis most often affects infants and young children and can be fatal, particularly in infants less than 1 year old.

52
Q

The preferred treatment option for a 2 month old boy with pertussis is :

a. clarithromycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Azithromycin
d. Levofloxacin

A

Azithromycin, the other two macrolide are not recommended especially if the infant is

53
Q

The preferred treatment option for a 2 month old who is sensitive to Azithromycin is :

a. amoxicillin
b. TMP-SMX
c. clarithromycin
d. Levofloxacin

A

TMP-SMX

Pediatrics (9 decks)

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