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Rotay-shuns > Group Hug (Family Practice) > Flashcards

Group Hug (Family Practice) Flashcards

1
Q

At what value is a PSA considered high?

A

>4.0

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2
Q

For which patient is pneumococcal vaccine not beneficial? a. 15 month w HIV b. 20 yr old undergone a splenectomy secondary to TTP c.5 year old with sickle cell disease d. 10 year old w nephrotic syndrome

A

A- not recommended for

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3
Q

What do white blood cell casts in urine represent?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

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4
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Foreskin cannot be retracted because of adherence or fibrosis w/ inflammation

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5
Q

What electrolyte do you have to monitor when prescribing spirinolactone?

A

Monitor for hyperkalemia

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6
Q

What is the difference between oxycontin and oxycodone?

A

Same drug (I feel like this should be added to… any takers?)

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7
Q

What electrolyte are you most concerned about w furosemide usage?

A

Monitor for hypokalemia

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8
Q

What are the first immunizations a child needs after birth?

A

Hep B at birth

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9
Q

What immunizations are done at the 2 month well child check up?

A

Hep b #2, rotavirus,DTaP, Hib,pcv13, ipv

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10
Q

At what age would you start pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine?

A

Anyone 65 or older and repeat every 5 years. If immunocompromised(age 19-64 yo) they should receive 1-2 doses, 5 years apart before age 65.

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11
Q

A 21 y.o. woman presents for her first Pap smear. She received the full HPV vaccine at age 19. Assuming that her exam and Pap smear are normal, when would you recommend that she return for a follow-up Pap smear? A. 6 months, as the first Pap smear should be followed up soon to reduce the false-negative rate associated with this screening test B. 1 year, as she should have at least three normal smears before going to a longer interval C. 3 years, as the Pap smear was normal D. 5 years, as she is low risk because she received the HPV vaccine

A

B

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12
Q

Which of the following provides the greatest fracture risk reductions and greatest increases in bone mineral density in postmenopausal females with osteoporosis? A. Alendronate B. Calcitonin C. Estrogen D. Raloxifene E. Vitamin D

A

A

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13
Q

A 28 y.o. woman with type 2 diabetes has maintained good control with metformin treatment in addition to diet and exercise. She expresses that she would like to become pregnant. What is the best advice for this patient regarding treatment of her diabetes? A. Continue current treatment with metformin B. Change oral therapy to rosiglitazone C. Change to insulin therapy D. Discontinue medical therapy and continue aggressive diet and exercise

A

C

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14
Q

A 2 y.o. child presents with mild but obvious cross-eyes since birth. Unless this is treated, what is the likely outcome? A. Amblyopia B. Esotropia C. Exotropia D. Hypophoria E. Strabismu

A

A

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15
Q

A 73 y.o. woman presents to the E.D. following a fall in her home. She tripped over a throw rug, fell forward, and landed with her arms extended and hand outstretched. She presents complaining of left wrist pain. Radiographs reveal a dorsally angulated and displaced distal radius metaphyseal fracture. What is the most likely Dx? A. Barton Fx B. Colles Fx C. Smith Fx D. Boxer Fx

A

B

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16
Q

A 54 y.o. woman is taking glyburide, a second generation sulfonylurea, to control her type 2 DM. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the therapeutic effect of glyburide on this pt’s disease? A. Increase pancreatic insulin secretion, in part by acting on K+ channels B. Delay postprandial carbohydrate and glucose absorption C. Reduce hepatic glucose production by suppressing gluconeogenesis D. Inhibit cholesterol synthesis and carbohydrate uptake

A

A

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17
Q

Which of the following requires drug-free periods to avoid tolerance when used as prophylaxis for chronic stable angina? A. Digoxin B. Diltiazem C. Metoprolol D. Isosorbide dinitrate E. Propranolol

A

D

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18
Q

A 63 y.o. woman presents with SOB, cough, and proximal muscle weakness of 1-month duration. On clinical exam, she is noted to have a BP of 156/102, facial flushing, mild hirsutism, truncal obesity, marked proximal muscle weakness of both the upper and lower extremity, and hyperpigmentation over the palms and back of the neck. Laboratory results reveal hypercortisolism and increased ACTH. Which of the following would be the most likely primary Dx in this pt? A. Lymphoma B. Ovarian cancer C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Small cell lung carcinoma

A

D

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19
Q

At what value do we treat hypertriglyceridemia and why?

A

Trig >500 we treat to prevent pancreatitis.

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20
Q

Patient A has an incidental finding of hypercalcemia, you draw a PTH and that’s high. What is the diagnosis and what labs/imaging are to be done next? (this was seen in my rotation, we called endocrine for a consult)

A

Hyperparathyroidism- labs to order as 1,25 Vitamin D, phosphate level and 24 hour urine calcium. For imaging a technetium sestamibi reuptake scan.

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21
Q

Patient B has been using her SABA 3-4 times a week, no night time symptoms or ER visits. What medication do we need to add for better asthma control?

A

Low dose ICS example is Flovent 1-3 puff twice daily (dependent on age)

22
Q

Which is the most prevalent STI in USA, it also accounts for the many complications like PID, infertility, ectopic pregnancy and chronic pelvic pain? A) Syphilis B) Chlamydia C) Herpes simplex D) Gonorrhea

A

B

23
Q

Which factor is most closely related to the spread of TB? A) Poverty B) Alcoholism C) Poor hygiene D) Crowding

A

D

24
Q

At what age can you stop screening women for breast cancer?

A

Begin at age 40-unless risk factors or FH. Screen yearly as long as the woman is in good health.

25
Q

What is the goal blood pressure for a patient with diabetes or chronic kidney disease?

A

<130/80

26
Q

What is the best treatment for a pt with HTN and BPH?

A

Alpha-1-Blocker (Ex:…)

27
Q

List the steps in the “Return to Play Protocol” for concussions

A
  1. No activity, complete rest; Once asymptomatic proceed to step 2* 2. Light aerobic exercise, no resistance training 3. Sport-specific exercise, progressive addition of resistance training in steps 3 and 4 4. Noncontact drills 5. Full contact, after medical clearance 6. Game play *If symptoms relapse, the athlete must revert back to most recent asymptomatic step and wait 24 hours until progressing again
28
Q

What is the likely Dx?

A

Tinea versicolor

29
Q

What is this?

A

Actinic keratosis

30
Q

What is this, and what disease has it been associated with?

A

Cafe au lait spots; Neurofibromatosis

31
Q

What is the name of this rash, and what condition is it linked to?

A

Heliotrope rash; Dermatomyositis

32
Q

What is this?

A

Keloid

33
Q

What is this?

A

Vitiligo

34
Q

What is the likely Dx?

A

Pityriasis rosea

35
Q

A flat, non-palpable lesion

A

Macule/patch

36
Q

Raised lesions

A

Papule/Nodule

37
Q

A plateu-like lesion, confluent papules

A

plaque

38
Q

Cicumscribed, elevated lesions containing fluid

A

Vesicle/Bulla

39
Q

Elevated lesion containing pus

A

Pustule

40
Q

Transient, elevated, edematous lesion often with cleared center

A

Wheal

41
Q

A pt. has a rash that she describes as painful. What is on your DDx?

A

Zoster

Cellulitis

Necrotizing fasciitis

Erythema multiforme

Erythema nodosum

Endocarditis

42
Q

A pt has a rash that he describes as itchy. What is on your DDx?

A

Scabies

Pityriasis rosea

Contact dermatitis

Varicella

Urticaria

43
Q

What should you consider with a rash that has the feature of “pain out of proportion”?

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

44
Q

_______ is characterized by the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis

A

Phimosis

45
Q

_________ is defined as entrapment of the foreskin behind the glans penis

A

Paraphimosis

46
Q

A soft, nontender fullness in the hemiscrotum that transilluminates is found. What is the treatment plan?

A

Elective repair (hydrocelectomy) as clinically indicated.

47
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by

A

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema

48
Q

____________ or extreme generalized edema, is a medical condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space

A

Anasarca

49
Q

____________ is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal Change Disease (MCD)

50
Q

____________ is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

51
Q

What are the 3 phases of Pertusis infection?

A
  1. Catarrhal –> Cold type symptoms
  2. Paroxysmal –> “Whooping” phase. Paroxysmal with possible emesis
  3. Convalescent Phase –> Lingering Cough. “Cough of 100 days”
52
Q
A

Rotay-shuns (10 decks)

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