Group C

Question 1

Researchers are conducting an experiment that depends on the use of professional judgments of the speech produced by 30 research subjects. Which of the following actions should the researchers take to determine interjudge reliability?

A. Asking two SLPsS L Ps to each independently rate the 30 subjects
B. Asking an SLPS L P to rate the 30 subjects
C. Asking one SLPS L P to rate the 30 subjects before treatment and another SLPS L P to rate them after treatment
D. Asking an SLPS L P to rate the 30 subjects and then rate them again two weeks later

Answer 1

Option (A) is correct. The definition of interjudge (or interrater) reliability is the level of agreement in scoring between two or more judges scoring the same observation.

Question 2

After an evaluation of a patient’s communication needs, an SLPS L P pursues acquisition of a high-tech AACA A C device. The patient’s private health insurance rejects the request, stating that the device is “not medically necessary.” The SLPS L P can best advocate for the patient by immediately appealing

A.to the insurance company to determine a lower-technology device that is covered by the payer
B.the denial and providing a review of how the patient’s quality of life is impacted by the device
C.the denial and providing data regarding the medical necessity for the device
D.to a member of the state government for coverage of high-tech AACA A C devices

Answer 2

Option (C) is correct. Appealing the denial and providing the insurance company with data indicating the device is medically necessary in advocacy for the patient is the most direct response to the denial of the claim.

Question 3

An SLPS L P works at a hospital with the adult acute-care inpatient team. During a clinical bedside swallow evaluation, a patient asks the SLPS L P how common it is for adults to experience a swallowing disorder. The SLPS L P tells the patient that recent research indicates the prevalence of adults with swallowing problems each year is

A.1 in 25
B.1 in 50
C.1 in 100
D.1 in 200

Answer 3

Option (A) is correct because recent research indicates that 1 in 25 adults are affected by a swallowing problem per year.

Question 4

A typically developing child who is 4 years and 5 months old was referred to a school-based SLPS L P for an evaluation because of poor speech intelligibility. Assessment results indicated a moderate phonological impairment with receptive language skills developing as expected for the child’s age. Based on the assessment, eligibility for speech-language services was determined. In accordance with the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEAI D E A), which of the following service plans is most appropriate for the SLPS L P to recommend?

A.Services will be provided by the SLPS L P when the student enters kindergarten.
B.Services will be provided by the SLPS L P in the least restrictive environment.
C.Services will be provided by the school’s intensive-needs preschool staff.
D.Services will be provided by a private SLPS L P with consultation from the school SLPS L P.

Answer 4

Option (B) is correct. Services must be provided in the least restrictive environment (LREL R E), according to the Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPEF A P E) component of IDEAI D E A.

Question 5

An SLPS L P is working with a sixth-grade student who is having difficulty comprehending written text. Which of the following strategies would be most effective for the SLPS L P to use to target this difficulty?

A.Creating a log in which unfamiliar sight words are written down for later practice
B.Developing the student’s ability to chunk multisyllabic words into smaller units
C.Selecting words from a text that can be used as both spelling and sight words
D.Using semantic networks in which ideas are displayed in connected clusters

Answer 5

Option (D) is correct. Semantic networks improve reading comprehension by showing students not only how vocabulary words are related to each other in a conceptual hierarchy, but how ideas in texts are organized in an associative way.

Question 6

A 60-year-old male is referred to the SLPS L P in an acute rehabilitation center for a videofluoroscopic swallowing study (VFSSV F S S) following a first-time stroke: a lateral medullary stroke damaging the right nucleus ambiguus and other centers. The clinical examination revealed ptosis of the left eye, soft palate elevation to the right of midline, symmetrical lingual protrusion, and a breathy dysphonia with precise articulation of all consonants. The patient is unable to swallow his saliva and coughs when he attempts to do so.

Based on the stroke type and clinical examination observations, which THREE of the following swallow impairments would the SLPS L P likely observe on the VFSSV F S S?

A.Incomplete clearance of material from the oral cavity
B.Impaired or absent opening of the upper esophageal sphincter
C.Anterior loss of bolus contents during the oral preparatory stage
D.Nasopharyngeal regurgitation during the pharyngeal stage
E.Adequate excursion of the hyolaryngeal complex
F.Unilateral pharyngeal paralysis

Answer 6

Options (B), (D), and (F) are correct. Impaired or absent opening of the upper esophageal sphincter, nasopharyngeal regurgitation during the pharyngeal stage, and unilateral pharyngeal paralysis are all to be expected based on this type of stroke and the clinical observations.

Question 7

An SLPS L P will be working with a new mother to evaluate a term infant’s feeding and swallowing skills to determine the infant’s readiness for oral feeding. The infant has been diagnosed with a unilateral, complete cleft lip without cleft palate. The mother asks the SLP about what caused the infant’s cleft lip. The SLPS L P explains that while we know that both genetic and environmental factors are likely involved with this congenital birth abnormality, there is no consensus in research about a single cause of cleft lip.

The SLP completes a comprehensive oral sensorimotor and behavioral observation examination prior to initiating an oral-feeding trial. The following is documented in the SLP’sS L P’s assessment notes:

Right-sided complete cleft lip; otherwise unremarkable oral peripheral mechanism examination; medical chart notes no associated neurological difficulties or diagnosed syndromes; primitive reflexes present (e.g.for example, rooting); normal observation of posture, positioning, tone, and motor activity; infant presents awake, alert, and calm; baseline vital signs at rest are normal and no changes in respiratory rate, heart rate, or oxygen saturation noted with nonnutritive sucking; no respiratory stridor noted; mild external support needed to increase lip closure at introduction of pacifier nipple, and mother with strong desire to breastfeed. The mother expressed some anxiety and concern surrounding feeding an infant with a cleft lip.

During which of the following weeks of pregnancy did the infant’s craniofacial structures not develop completely?

A. 4-to7
B. 8-to11
C. 12-to15
D. 16-to19

Answer 7

Option (A) is correct. A cleft lip results from incomplete closure of lip tissues as the lips form early in pregnancy, between weeks four and seven. Both genetic and environmental factors likely contribute to a cleft lip, a congenital birth defect; however, a singular cause has not been identified.

Question 8

Based on information from the oral sensorimotor and behavioral observation assessments, which of the following plans for continuing with an oral-feeding trial is most appropriate with the infant?

A. An oral-feeding trial should not be attempted until the infant’s cleft lip is repaired.
B. An oral-feeding trial should not be attempted until a VFSSV F S S or FEESF E E S instrumental examination is completed.
C. An oral-feeding trial should be postponed until the infant’s airway is examined by a physician.
D. An oral-feeding trial by the SLPS L P can proceed during this initial feeding and swallowing assessment.

Answer 8

Option (D) is correct. There is no evidence from the case review and oral sensorimotor/behavioral observations to suggest a neurological abnormality, respiratory disorder, or syndrome associated with feeding and swallowing disorders in infants. In the absence of respiratory and neurological signs, an instrumental evaluation or referral to a physician for a respiratory evaluation would not be indicated prior to an oral-feeding trial at bedside. Many infants with an isolated cleft lip are successful oral feeders prior to surgical repair of the cleft lip. All the evidence presented in the case supports the SLPS L P proceeding with the oral-feeding trial piece of the comprehensive feeding and swallowing assessment.

Question 9

Which THREE of the following treatment strategies is most appropriate for the patient if the SLPS L P finds the infant is safe for continued oral breastfeeding and follows up with the infant and mother with therapy and education prior to discharge home from the hospital?

A.Introducing external pacing with the infant’s intake rate to support airway protection
B.Providing the mother with contact information for the local cleft lip and palate team for ongoing care and support
C.Incorporating adaptive seating for the infant during oral feedings
D.Positioning the infant in the optimal feeding position at the mother’s breast
E.Completing education with the infant’s mother about feeding interactions, strategies, and oral care

Answer 9

Options (B), (D), and (E) are correct. Providing the mother with contact information for the local cleft lip and palate team for ongoing care and support would be an appropriate strategy. Positioning an infant with either the cleft lip at the top of the mother’s breast or with the cleft lip against the mother’s breast can aid in achieving lip closure around the nipple and/or help prevent leakage of milk from the infant’s oral cavity. Completing education with this new mother will be very important, especially considering that this mother expressed concern and anxiety surrounding feeding her infant with a cleft lip.

Question 10

A 65-year-old-male who is hospitalized with pneumonia completed a videofluoroscopic swallowing study. Findings showed aspiration after the swallow due to a reduced upper esophageal sphincter opening diameter separating the bolus tail, which was then retained in the pyriform sinuses. Which of the following interventions was designed to and is shown to improve upper esophageal sphincter opening?

A.Effortful swallow
B.Valsalva (breath hold)
C.Shaker (head lift) exercise
D.Lingual resistance exercise

Answer 10

Option (C) is correct. Shaker et aland others. (2002) showed that the head lift exercise significantly increased the diameter of the upper esophageal sphincter opening in people with dysphagia.

Question 11

An endoscopic examination of swallowing is the best instrumental assessment when the SLPS L P wishes to evaluate the

A.volume of and patient’s response to pharyngeal secretions
B.duration and extent of hyolaryngeal elevation
C.penetration of material into the laryngeal vestibule during the swallow
D.efficiency of lingual manipulation during bolus formation and anterior-posterior bolus transit

Answer 11

Option (A) is correct. Endoscopic viewing is superior to other examinations when the primary goal is to evaluate the volume of and the patient’s response to pharyngeal secretions.

Question 12

After completing an evaluation of a 5-year-old patient, an SLPS L P finds that the child’s speech contains numerous phonological error patterns. If the SLPS L P follows a developmental sequence in planning intervention, which of the following is most appropriate to target first?

A.Consonant assimilation
B.Gliding
C.Deaffrication
D.Cluster reduction

Answer 12

Option (A) is correct. Consonant assimilation processes rarely persist beyond 3 years of age.

Question 13

An SLPS L P in a private practice receives a letter from the state licensing office informing her that her license expired the previous week. The SLPS L P was unaware that she had been practicing with a lapsed license for seven working days. Which THREE of the following actions are the best course of action for the SLPS L P?

A.Continuing to see patients as scheduled
B.Discontinuing treatment documentation
C.Informing the practice administrator
D.Reassigning patients to a licensed SLPS L P
E.Alerting patients to the lapse in licensure

Answer 13

Option (C) is correct. The practice administration can begin to move forward with corrective action with patients, families, payers, and the licensing body. Option (D) is correct. Without a license, the SLPS L P should not see patients, so patients should be reassigned for continuing care. Option (E) is correct. Without a license, the SLPS L P should not see patients, so patients should be reassigned for continuing care.

Question 14

Which of the following reflexive responses is primarily responsible for expelling material from the airway of healthy adult individuals?

A.Rooting reflex
B.Gag reflex
C.Cough reflex
D.Swallowing reflex

Answer 14

Option (C) is correct. The cough reflex occurs when the vocal folds and trachea are stimulated by the laryngeal nerves, resulting in expulsion of material from the airway.

Question 15

Question:

One treatment option for adductor spasmodic dysphonia involves the percutaneous injection of which of the following into the thyroarytenoid muscle?

A.Gelfoam
B.Collagen
C.Botulinum toxin
D.Autologous fat

Answer 15

Option (C) is correct. Adductor spasmodic dysphonia is a neurological voice disorder. Botulinum toxin is the only treatment listed that acts on the neuronal end plate, thereby treating a neurological deficit.

Question 16

Joe, an 18-year-old male, sustained a severe traumatic brain injury following a motorcycle accident. He was in a coma for approximately four weeks before being transferred to a rehabilitation program. Joe demonstrates severe attention deficits, anomia, disorientation, and poor short-term memory. Which of the following should be the initial target area in the treatment plan?

A.Retraining attention as a discrete cognitive process
B.Using declarative memory as an active learning strategy
C.Using implicit memory as a passive learning strategy
D.Reality orientation training

Answer 16

Option (A) is correct. Retraining attention is the most appropriate initial target area in this situation; all the other responses require attention as a prerequisite.

Question 17

Which of the following strategies best demonstrates an SLPS L P working as a Response to Intervention (RTIR T I) team member to provide a student Tier 2 language supports?

A.Assisting the teacher with Individualized Education Program referral paperwork
B.Collaborating with the teacher to provide small-group instruction
C.Enrolling the student in language therapy to address language needs
D.Evaluating the student’s speech and language skills

Answer 17

Option (B) is correct. Tier 2 services are provided in the general education classroom in collaboration with the SLPS L P, usually in small groups.

Question 18

Which of the following statements best represents a syntactic structure characteristic of Spanish-influenced English?

A.”She no do laundry today.”
B.”He is going?”
C.”Lady her shoes.”
D.”She be runnin’ fast.”

Answer 18

Option (A) is correct. “No” may be used in Spanish-influenced English as a negative marker instead of “not.”

Question 19

When completing speech sound evaluations, it is best practice for an SLPS L P to include a sample of connected speech because connected speech samples

A.provide more reliable information than standardized tests
B.contain a representative sample of all the phonemes in a language
C.may result in different types of errors than those elicited by single-word elicitation tasks
D.are easier to gloss than single-word productions

Answer 19

Option (C) is correct. The more complex task of producing connected speech tends to increase the types and numbers of errors, allowing for an accurate reflection of the patient’s speech ability.

Question 20

An SLPS L P plans cognitive treatment for a patient with right-hemisphere disorder due to a stroke. Which of the following patient characteristics is most likely to have an impact on the patient’s engagement in treatment and outcomes?

A.Moderate anosognosia for identified deficits
B.Hemiparesis of the left arm and hand
C.Mild word-finding difficulties
D.Moderate expressive aprosodia

Answer 20

Option (C) is correct. The more complex task of producing connected speech tends to increase the types and numbers of errors, allowing for an accurate reflection of the patient’s speech ability.
When completing speech sound evaluations, it is best practice for an SLPS L P to include a sample of connected speech because connected speech samples

A.provide more reliable information than standardized tests
B.contain a representative sample of all the phonemes in a language
C.may result in different types of errors than those elicited by single-word elicitation tasks
D.are easier to gloss than single-word productions

Question 21

A 12-year-old phonology patient responds very well to continuous verbal reinforcement. The SLPS L P wishes to increase the task level for sibilant production to conversational speech, but is concerned that the accuracy of the patient’s productions will diminish without continuous reinforcement. Which of the following adjustments is most logical for the patient’s treatment plan?

A.Increase task level to conversation and continue with continuous reinforcement for correct productions
B.Changing the reinforcement schedule to variable-interval
C.Discontinuing reinforcement and providing a performance summary at the end of the conversation
D.Shifting the feedback to punishment

Answer 21

Option (B) is correct. Reinforcement is still needed, but a continuous schedule would be awkward and unnecessary for the described task.

Question 22

An SLPS L P recommends a patient perform a chin-down posture (CDPC D P) when swallowing liquids. Which THREE of the following statements accurately represent published evidence regarding the chin-down posture?

A. CDPC D P reduced thin liquid aspiration caused by delayed pharyngeal response in people who had a stroke.
B. CDPC D P increased the speed and completeness of oral transit in people with dysphagia after a stroke.
C. CDPC D P was shown to narrow the width of the laryngeal inlet and widen the vallecular space during swallowing.
D. CDPC D P resulted in an increased upper esophageal sphincter opening diameter in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
E. CDPC D P does not reduce aspiration after the swallow in patients who had a stroke and aspirate pyriform sinus residue.

Answer 22

Options (A), (C), and (E) are correct. A study conducted by Shanahan et aland others. in 1993 showed that using the CDPC D P reduced thin liquid aspiration caused by delayed pharyngeal response in people who suffered had a stroke. Studies have shown that using CDPC D P during swallowing narrows the width of the laryngeal inlet and widens the vallecular space during swallowing when the CDPC D P is used. The 1993 study performed by Shanahan et aland others. showed that the CDPC D P does not reduce aspiration after swallowing in patients who had a stroke and aspirate pyriform sinus residue.

Question 23

An SLPS L P just completed an aphasia evaluation with an aphasia battery. The results of the battery show that the patient with aphasia produces very fluent speech but makes many phonemic errors. When producing phonemic errors, the patient stops to try and get the word right with multiple attempts (e.g.for example., for the word screwdriver, the patient said “Cewdriver, dewdiver, screwdriver.”). The patient also had relatively good comprehension but a pronounced repetition impairment. The patient’s results are most consistent with which of the following type of aphasia?

A.Broca’s aphasia
B.Conduction aphasia
C.Wernicke’s aphasia
D.Anomic aphasia

Answer 23

Option (B) is correct. All the symptoms listed are classic symptoms of conduction aphasia and are distinguishable from other aphasia types.

Question 24

AAn SLP works with a toddler on combining words and assessing a variety of semantic relations. Match each toddler utterance with the semantic relation it best reflects.

"Doggie eat." "More cookie." "Big cookie." "Eat cookie."
Agent +plus Action 
A. "Doggie eat."
Action +plus Object 
D. "Eat cookie."
Attribute +plus Entity 
C. "Big cookie."
Recurrence 
B. "More cookie.".

Answer 24

Option 1, 4, 3 and 2 is the correct order. Agent +plus plus Action is best matched with “Doggie eat” because “doggie” is an agent doing the action of eating. Action +plus plus Object is best matched with “Eat cookie” because eating is an action and “cookie “is the receiver or object of that action. Attribute +plus plus Entity is best matched with “Big cookie” because “big” is an attribute of the object that is a cookie. Recurrence is best matched with “More cookie” because the word “more” signals a desire or observation that a thing or object will occur again. It is correct to use “recurrence” even if the utterance contains several words.

Question 25

A 28-year-old classroom teacher complaining of frequent voice loss is seen by an SLPS L P and an otolaryngologist. It is determined the patient’s symptoms are linked to significant vocal demands. Which of following recommendations is the most appropriate first step to treat the underlying disorder?

A.Advising the patient to undergo complete voice rest until the nodules improve or resolve
B.Educating the patient on the importance of hydration and behavioral antireflux strategies
C.Recommending voice amplification with resonant voice therapy
D.Training strategies to increase vocal loudness

Answer 25

Option (C) is correct. Voice amplification and voice therapy exercises that alter vibratory impact (like vocal function exercises and resonant voice therapy) have been shown to be more effective courses of treatment in heavy voice users as compared to vocal hygiene strategies or respiratory retraining strategies.

Question 26

An SLPS L P works at a voice clinic and learns that a patient, who has arrived for an initial voice evaluation, has not received medical evaluation by a laryngologist. Which of the following actions is the best plan for referring the patient to a laryngologist for a medical evaluation?

A.Completing the voice evaluation and referring the patient to a laryngologist for a medical evaluation prior to initiating therapeutic intervention
B.Completing the voice evaluation and treatment plan, as the SLPS L P is not required to obtain medical information from a physician and can diagnose and treat voice disorders without referring the patient
C.Completing the voice evaluation and referring the patient to a laryngologist while initiating therapeutic intervention, knowing that the patient will see the laryngologist soon
D.Deferring the voice evaluation until after the patient has seen a laryngologist for a medical evaluation

Answer 26

Option (A) is correct. When voice evaluation by an SLPS L P occurs before a physician’s evaluation, the SLPS L P should defer SLPS L P treatment planning to after the medical evaluation information is received and reviewed.

Question 27

Kelli is a 10-year-old patient with velopharyngeal dysfunction. She presents with hypernasality, audible nasal emission, and weak pressure for oral consonants. She also displays glottal stops and pharyngeal fricatives. She is in speech therapy, and her parents would like to know what to expect after she has pharyngeal flap surgery next week. Which of the following outcomes is most appropriate for the SLPS L P to counsel Kelli’s parents to expect?

A.Surgery should eliminate the glottal stops but not the pharyngeal factors.
B.Surgery should decrease the hypernasality and audible nasal emission.
C.Surgery should eliminate the need for ongoing speech therapy.
D.Surgery should decrease hypernasality and nasal emission and eliminate articulation errors.

Answer 27

Option (B) is correct. Only speech therapy would correct the articulation errors, and only surgery would improve resonance and audible nasal emission.

Question 28

Which of the following should a typically developing 9-month-old child begin to demonstrate?

A.Canonical babbling
B.Cooing
C.Vocatives
D.Differentiated cries

Answer 28

Option (A) is correct. Canonical babbling involves reduplicated sounds containing alternations of vowels and consonants and is a stage of language development that is typical in a 9-month-old child.

Question 29

Name the swallowing function with the cranial nerve that is primarily responsible for making the function possible.

closes the jaw for chewing;

Answer 29

cranial nerve V5, trigeminal: closes the jaw for chewing;

Question 30

Name the swallowing function with the cranial nerve that is primarily responsible for making the function possible.

Closing the vocal folds for
airway protection

Answer 30

cranial nerve X10, vagus: closes the vocal folds for airway protection;

Question 31

Name the swallowing function with the cranial nerve that is primarily responsible for making the function possible.

Closing the lips to contain bolus

Answer 31

cranial nerve VII7, facial: closes the lips to contain bolus;

Question 32

Name the swallowing function with the cranial nerve that is primarily responsible for making the function possible.

Controlling tongue movement during bolus transport in the mouth

Answer 32

cranial nerve X12, hypoglossal: controls tongue movements during bolus transport in the mouth.

Question 33

Which of the following statements regarding risk factors for developmental reading disorders is most accurate?

A. There are no risk factors for developmental reading disorders that an SLPS L P
can assess.
B. Only those children with a family history of reading disorders are at risk for developing a reading disorder.
C. Children with speech sound disorders (SSDsS S Ds
) are at increased risk of having a reading disorder.
D. Children with SSDsS S Ds
are only at increased risk of a reading disorder if they do not receive speech therapy.

Answer 33

Option (C) is correct. SSDsS S Ds are a risk factor for later reading disability in school-age children.

Question 34

An SLPS L P completes a speech and language screening of a three-and-a-half-year-old boy. He presented with the following skills.

Age-appropriate articulation skills
Restricted mean length of utterance of approximately 2.0
Echolalia
Difficulty following directions
Difficulty responding to name
Minimal eye contact
Based on the screening information above, which of the following diagnostic categories is the most appropriate to consider when preparing for the diagnostic evaluation?

A.Social communication disorder
B.Developmental speech and language disorder
C.Autism spectrum disorder
D.Auditory processing disorder

Answer 34

Option (C) is correct. Minimal eye contact and echolalia are unique hallmarks of ASD

Question 35

Option (C) is correct. Minimal eye contact and echolalia are unique hallmarks of ASD
An SLPS L P completes a speech and language screening of a three-and-a-half-year-old boy. He presented with the following skills.

Age-appropriate articulation skills
Restricted mean length of utterance of approximately 2.0
Echolalia
Difficulty following directions
Difficulty responding to name
Minimal eye contact
Based on the screening information above, which of the following diagnostic categories is the most appropriate to consider when preparing for the diagnostic evaluation?

A.Social communication disorder
B.Developmental speech and language disorder
C.Autism spectrum disorder
D.Auditory processing disorder
Option (A) is correct. Lengthening the vocal folds causes the thyroarytenoid muscle to thin, which allows fundamental frequency to increase.
Which of the following will most effectively increase the fundamental frequency of the voice?

A.Lengthening the vocal folds
B.Decreasing the stiffness of the vocal folds
C.Decreasing subglottal pressure
D.Decreasing cricothyroid muscle activity

Answer 35

Option (A) is correct. Lengthening the vocal folds causes the thyroarytenoid muscle to thin, which allows fundamental frequency to increase.

Question 36

Two laws applicable to public schools are the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act. While these laws are similar in that they both address the communication needs of students with disabilities, there are clear differences between them.

select all statements that apply.

IDEA::::::

A. A child is eligible under this law if he or she has any physical or mental condition that substantially limits a major life activity.

B.This law provides an eligible student with an IEP.

C. A child must have one of 13 specified disabilities to receive services under this law.

D. This law prevents discrimination against persons with disabilities.

E. The Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services administers this law.

F. The Office for Civil Rights administers this law.

Answer 36

B. is correct because providing students with IEP falls under the province of IDEA.

C. is correct because IDEA designates 13 different categories of eligibility for special education services.

D. Both IDEA and Section 504 are correct because antidiscrimination laws protect students with disabilities and their right to public education.

E. IDEA is correct because the Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services is responsible for administering IDEA regulations.

Question 37

Two laws applicable to public schools are the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act. While these laws are similar in that they both address the communication needs of students with disabilities, there are clear differences between them.

select all statements that apply.

Section 504::::::

A. A child is eligible under this law if he or she has any physical or mental condition that substantially limits a major life activity.

B.This law provides an eligible student with an IEP.

C. A child must have one of 13 specified disabilities to receive services under this law.

D. This law prevents discrimination against persons with disabilities.

E. The Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services administers this law.

F. The Office for Civil Rights administers this law.

Answer 37

504

A. is correct because mental conditions include those conditions that interfere with academics, such as expressive and receptive language; and when a child may not qualify for an IEP due to the mental condition, the child can receive a 504 plan.

D. Both IDEA and Section 504 correct because antidiscrimination laws protect students with disabilities and their right to public education.

F. Section 504 is correct because Section 504 of the ADA and 504 Plans fall under the jurisdiction of civil rights law.