Group A Flashcards
As part of a routine preschool screening, an SLPS L P tests a 4 year old whose speech is characterized by sound omissions, hypernasality, nasal emission, and weak consonants. Which of the following would be most appropriately evaluated initially?
A.Oral-motor behavior
B.Velopharyngeal function
C.Laryngeal function
D.Phonological awareness
Option (B) is correct. The characteristics described are consistent with a resonance disorder, hence velopharyngeal function would be evaluated initially.
Which of the following is the minimal contrast approach most appropriately used to treat?
A.Phonological disorders
B.Dysphagia
C.Dysarthria
D.Global aphasia
Option (A) is correct. Minimal contrast approach was one of the first approaches designed to adhere to phonological principles of intervention.
Alicia is a fourth-grade student with a language impairment that interferes with her academic performance and social communication. On a standardized test of expressive language ability, she received an overall score of 97.5, placing her in the 65thsixty fifth percentile. Alicia’s test result indicates that she
A.performed as well as or better than 65% of the individuals on whom the norms were developed
B.responded correctly to 65% of the 150 items included in the expressive-language test
C.performed as well as or better than 65% of the other fourth graders who took the same test
D.responded correctly to 97.5% of the test items, as did 65% of the other children taking the test
Option (A) is correct. Percentile rank is the percentage of the scores within the norm range that are equal to or lower than the score gained by the student
Which THREE of the following variables are considered risk factors for late language emergence?
A.Male gender B.Access to print material C.Low socioeconomic status D.Moderately low birth weight E.Exposure to rich and varied vocabulary
Options (A), (C), and (D) are correct. Being of male gender is a risk factor cited by both ASHAA S H A and researchers for late-talking toddlers. Having a low SESS E S is considered a risk factor by ASHAA S H A and researchers for late talking. Finally low birth weight is a risk factor as well.
During a trip to the grocery store, a three-year-old boy with delayed language points to an apple on the floor and says to his mother, “Apple.” The boy’s mother says, “Yes, that’s a big, shiny apple.”
Based on the mother’s response, which of the following language stimulation techniques is she using?
A.Imitation
B.Parallel talk
C.Think aloud
D.Expansion
Option (D) is correct. Expansion is a method that entails providing a subject a more complex speech model but does not directly stimulate another response from the subject.
An SLPS L P works with a 4-year-old patient diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. The patient is nonverbal, does not have a functional communication system, and does not follow simple directions. Which of the following communicative target goals is most appropriate for the SLPS L P to prioritize for the patient?
A.Matching identical pictures in an array of pictures
B.Requesting wants in any modality
C.Labeling of common items verbally
D.Imitating a sequence of two actions
Option (B) is correct. Requests (mands) are very important for the early development of language and for day-to-day verbal interactions with others. Requests (mands) are usually the first type of communication acquired by an infant.
A 75-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease underwent a three-vessel coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The patient needed to be intubated for three days following surgery. After extubation, the medical team requested a swallow consultation to determine if it was safe for the patient to take oral medications and initiate oral nutrition. Based on the patient’s condition, which of the following assessment procedures is most appropriate for an SLPS L P to practice?
A.Administering a clinical bedside swallow evaluation and recommending an oral diet as there were no clinical signs or symptoms of aspiration during the evaluation
B.Deferring the evaluation for 24 hours because the patient was just extubated to allow a possible improvement in the patient’s swallow function before evaluation
C.Completing a clinical bedside swallow evaluation to determine patient readiness for an instrumental evaluation and then completing the instrumental evaluation if the patient is ready
D.Determining any preexisting dysphagia with the patient and the patient’s family; if there is no history of dysphagia, recommending to advance the patient’s diet
Option (C) is correct. Several studies using instrumental assessment have concluded that some patients recover airway protection and swallow function within 24 hours of extubation and others much later than 24 hours post-extubation following prolonged endotracheal intubation, suggesting that a 24-hour “deferral time” benchmark is not particularly useful.
Which of the following procedures is most important for an SLPS L P to consider when assessing the social aspect of a school-age child’s communication skills?
A.Collecting a language sample to assess narrative skills
B.Assessing expressive vocabulary used by the child on a picture vocabulary test
C.Observing the child interacting with peers in natural settings, such as during recess
D.Looking for a discrepancy between the child’s IQI Q and communication skills to determine eligibility
Option (C) is correct. Informal observation of a student in a natural setting is part of a comprehensive assessment. A determination of eligibility for SLPS L P services in a school must be made from more than one source and should include authentic assessment in an informal setting.
Which TWO of the following statements about the results of a screening test are correct?
A.Sensitivity is the proportion of people who fail the screening test who are aspirators
B.Specificity is the proportion of people who pass the screening test who are aspirators
C.Sensitivity is the proportion of people who pass the screening test who are not aspirators
D.Specificity is the proportion of people who pass the screening test who are not aspirators
Options (A) and (D) are correct. The screening test’s sensitivity is the proportion of patients who aspirated and failed the screen (top cell in the first column) to the total of all patients who aspirated (total of the first column). The screening test’s specificity is the proportion of patients who did not aspirate and passed the screen (bottom cell in the second column) to the total of all patients who did not aspirate on the VFSSV F S S (total of second column).
During a speech-language evaluation at a preschool, a child has difficulty with receptive language tasks and responds with only one-word utterances to expressive language items. The child’s eye contact is poor throughout the session. When observed with the other children in class, the child does not engage with peers but prefers self-stimulating behaviors such as flapping arms and throwing papers up in the air. According to the child’s teacher, these are typical behaviors for the child. Given the data obtained, which of the following steps is most appropriate for the SLPS L P to take next?
A.Engaging in an interprofessional practice (IPPI P P) to determine the appropriate diagnosis of ASDA S D
B.Conducting the full evaluation when the child is more cooperative so that accurate recommendations can be made
C.Initiating expressive language therapy to focus on expanding conversational utterances
D.Training the teacher to deliver language stimulation tasks because the child does not respond well to the SLP
Option (A) is correct. Although it is in the SLP’sS L P’s scope of practice to diagnose ASDA S D, it is stated that best practice suggests a team approach when making this determination.
Christel and Sharon are 14-month-old fraternal twins. Christel has more intelligible words than her sister, although she talks far less frequently. Sharon speaks almost exclusively in running jargon that nobody understands. Their parents are worried about Sharon’s development because her language skills appear to be behind those of her sister. Which of the following is an SLP’sS L P’s best response to the parents’ concern?
A.At Sharon’s age, jargon is normal and may even continue for another three to four months.
B.Christel’s language development is more abnormal because she should be beyond single words.
C.Both girls were exposed to the same language environments, so the relative lack of intelligible words indicates a language delay.
D.Jargon should not persist past the age of 12 months and thus Sharon may be presenting a language disorder.
Option (A) is correct. Jargon typically continues until around 18 months of age.
n SLPS L P engages in interprofessional practice in a large health care center and works with a neurologic rehabilitation team to treat a patient who is status post left-hemisphere stroke. The SLP’sS L P’s primary focus on the team is to
A.lead the interdisciplinary team to improve patient care
B.reduce costs and the number of professionals working at the site
C.obtain licenses in multiple areas of practice to engage in a range of services
D.improve the patient experience and outcome of care at the site
Option (D) is correct. The primary goal of interprofessional practice is to improve patient care.
Which of the following communication diagnoses would most likely require a treatment program that is focused on improving auditory language comprehension?
A.Right-hemisphere communication impairment
B.Global aphasia
C.Wernicke’s aphasia
D.Broca’s aphasia
Option (C) is correct. The hallmark of Wernicke’s aphasia is deficits in auditory comprehension, because the site of lesions is most typically the left superior temporal gyrus.
Which of the following procedures best establishes whether velopharyngeal dysfunction causing hypernasality is present in a patient with flaccid dysarthria?
A.A nasopharyngoscopy
B.A videofluoroscopic swallow study
C.A laryngoscopy
D.A manometry
Option (C) is correct. Laryngoscopy is the only procedure that allows visualization of the velopharyngeal port during speech.
The parents of an 8-year-old boy who stutters are upset because their child was placed in the lowest reading group at school because of his poor performance on an oral reading fluency assessment in the classroom. The parents are very sure that their child is reading at an average to above-average level compared to his classmates. The SLP’sS L P’s informal observations of the boy’s reading performance during fluency therapy sessions are consistent with the parents’ report. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the SLPS L P to advocate for the boy?
A.Offer to conduct a reading assessment with the boy and report the score to the boy’s teacher.
B.Recommend that the teacher reassess the child’s reading level with an assessment that uses silent reading.
C.Wait until the child’s speech improves in therapy, and then ask the child’s teacher to readminister the oral reading assessment.
D.Encourage the child to continue practicing oral reading to demonstrate to his teacher that individuals who stutter can read as well as other people.
Option (B) is correct. The boy’s stuttering is affecting his fluency during oral reading, so an assessment of his silent reading fluency will provide more valid results.
Which of the following conditions is primarily associated with a short lingual frenulum, heart-shaped tongue tip, and a failure to elevate the tongue tip beyond the mandibular incisors, as revealed during oral-facial examination?
A.Bulbar palsy
B.Ankyloglossia
C.Glossoptosis
D.Congenital lip pits
Option (B) is correct. Limited tongue mobility, heart-shaped tongue tip and a failure to elevate the tongue tip beyond the mandibular incisors are all characteristics of ankyloglossia (tongue-tied/short lingual frenulum).
A school district does not use a standard therapy log for SLPS L P services. An SLPS L P who works for the district develops a form to document therapy services provided. Which THREE of the following are key to include on the form to document the provision of speech and language IEPI E P services?
A.The date a student’s IEPI E P was established
B.Student performance during the therapy session
C.Names of other students in the group
D.Types of services provided within a therapy session
E.Signature from the SLPS L P verifying delivery of services
Options (B), (D), and (E) are correct. Information on student performance is important data and helps to track progress, listing the types of services indicates what was provided, and the SLP’sS L P’s signature documents who provided the service.
Which of the following activities is an example of a metalinguistic strategy used to assist a student with language difficulties?
A.Providing a definition of a word
B.Placing story elements in sequential order
C.Editing the writing of same-aged peers
D.Discussing similarities and differences between two pictures
Option (C) is correct. Editing the writing of a same-age peer is an example of a metalinguistic activity because it involves the awareness, analysis, and control of language form, content, and use.
Questions 20-through22 refer to the following.
A 24-year-old male self-refers for a fluency evaluation. His presenting complaint is stuttering. During conversation at the initial assessment, he speaks intelligibly at a typical rate and produces no overt stutter-like disfluencies. He reports that he often expects to stutter while conversing, but that he usually can prevent or conceal the occurrence of the expected fluency disruptions either by substituting a word or by inserting a pause or “um” before the word upon which he expects to be disfluent. He states that these strategies are useful and that he would like to be able to “talk without thinking about talking.” He reports that he attended speech therapy from elementary school through high school and that it helped him reduce disfluency significantly during therapy activities, but his disfluency frequency did not change much during activities outside of therapy. He fears that coworkers will react negatively to hearing him stutter. Consequently, he talks as little as possible at work.
The patient’s assessment results are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
A.Neurogenic stuttering
B.Cluttering
C.Developmental stuttering
D.Specific language impairment
Option (C) is correct. Some people who stutter can prevent anticipated instances of stutter-like disfluency either by substituting words or by delaying the start of a word upon which stuttering is anticipated, e.g., by pausing or by interjecting fillers such as “um.” Speech-related fear, concern about listener evaluations, and anticipated disfluency are all hallmarks of stuttering but are not typical symptoms in SLI or cluttering. Even though the SLP has not heard stuttering-like disfluency in the patient’s speech, all other symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of stuttering.
Which of the following approaches is the most appropriate initial therapy focus for the patient?
A.Improving the naturalness of the speech
B.Implementing use of the cancellation technique in conjunction with conversational disfluencies
C.Improving the ability to pause at appropriate linguistic boundaries when speaking
D.Reinforcing the patient’s attempts to produce words without the use of fillers, pauses, or word substitutions
Option (D) is correct. Reinforcing open stuttering directly addresses the client’s fear of stuttering and provides opportunities for the client to objectively evaluate how other people respond when he stutters openly.
Which of the following approaches would be the most direct way to address the patient’s fear of how coworkers might react to his disfluent speech?
A.Application of principles from cognitive behavioral therapy
B.Fluency-shaping therapy based on prolonged speech
C.Pharmacological management
D.Application of progressive relaxation therapy principles
Option (A) is correct. Research supports the idea that Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBTC B T) can change the communication-related attitudes of people who stutter.
Which of the following nerves provides efferent innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle and contributes toward the elevation of the pharynx and the larynx?
A.The trigeminal
B.The hypoglossal
C.The vagus
D.The glossopharyngeal
Option (D) is correct. The functions described are controlled by cranial nerve IX9, the glossopharyngeal
A patient presents to a speech-language pathologist with voice changes. After completing a patient assessment, the SLPS L P notes that the patient’s vocal quality and function indicate the possibility of a superior laryngeal nerve injury. Which of the following presentations is most consistent with this impression?
A.Inspiratory stridor
B.Hypernasal resonance
C.Complete aphonia
D.Reduced pitch range
Option (D) is correct. The superior laryngeal nerve controls the cricoarytenoid muscles, which lengthen the vocal folds for pitch elevation. Injury to this nerve can result in reduced pitch range, particularly in the higher frequency range.
Kimberly, a patient who suffered a brain stem stroke and has had a fairly successful recovery, complained of food sticking in her throat and needing to swallow two to three times to clear liquid and solid boluses. She underwent a videofluoroscopic swallowing study that showed a limited duration of upper esophageal sphincter opening. The SLPS L P decides to employ an intervention plan that includes the Mendelsohn maneuver. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be effective in accomplishing this goal?
A.Completing a fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEESF E E S) to determine if the patient is performing the maneuver properly
B.Performing cervical auscultation (CAC A) to quantify improved swallowing with the maneuver
C.Using submental surface electromyography (sEMGs E M G) as biofeedback during attempts to perform the maneuver
D.Teaching the patient to use palpation of her neck and a mirror to help her master the maneuver
Option (C) is correct. Submental surface EMGE M G has been shown to improve acquisition of the Mendelsohn maneuver in some people though the maneuver itself is very difficult to learn.
