Group C

Question 1

Given Michael’s age, which of the following is likely to be the most effective strategy for speech and language intervention?

A.Using structured play to address short-term goals
B.Facilitating Michael’s ability to self-monitor his speech
C.Instructing Michael’s parents in structured home exercises for their son
D.Introducing augmentative and alternative communication devices

Answer 1

Option (A) is correct. Toddlers and preschoolers respond better to games and play activities than to structured exercises.

Question 2

A 9-month-old child was observed during a speech-language evaluation. To express herself, the child occasionally touched her mother, gained eye contact, and then gestured toward an object. If the child’s development is normal, within the next month or so the child will begin to

A.use consistent sound and intonation patterns as signals for specific intentions
B.reach for objects that she desires
C.establish joint reference with her caretaker
D.use recognizable words and phrases to express her intentions

Answer 2

Option (A) is correct. In normal development, a child begins to use vocalizations to express specific intentions at around 10 months of age.

Question 3

For a patient with communication and swallowing disorders secondary to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a speech-language pathologist will most appropriately

A.serve only as a consultant to others who are directly involved in the patient’s care
B.provide treatment on a monthly basis
C.provide treatment only as prescribed by the patient’s physician
D.provide treatment in consultation with the patient’s primary-care physician or medical team

Answer 3

Option (D) is correct. Treatment in consultation with the patient’s primary-care physician or medical team would provide the information needed to determine the best management of the patient.

Question 4

An otolaryngologist has referred a 45-year-old man for voice treatment following medialization thyroplasty for a paralyzed vocal fold. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic strategy for the SLP to use?

A.Assisting the patient to produce a soft glottal attack
B.Digitally manipulation of the patient’s neck to reduce strap-muscle tension
C.Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attack
D.Employing techniques aimed at increasing airflow

Answer 4

Option (C) is correct. Medialization thyroplasty moves the paralyzed vocal fold closer to the mid-glottis to allow better compensation by the unaffected fold. Only the production of a hard glottal attack addresses the compensatory behavior.

Question 5

Compared with children who do not have language disorders, children with language disorders tend to

A.take more conversational turns
B.initiate topics and direct the flow of conversation more
C.ask fewer open-ended questions
D.initiate more indirect requests

Answer 5

Option (C) is correct. Children with language disorders tend to ask fewer open-ended questions than do children who are developing normally.

Question 6

Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities?

A.Athetosis
B.Spasticity
C.Hypotonia
D.Bulbar palsy

Answer 6

Option (A) is correct. Athetosis is a type of cerebral palsy that is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities.

Question 7

Intervention from an SLP for a nursing-home resident who is in a late stage of progressive dementia will most effectively focus on

A.conversational intelligibility
B.recall of salient vocabulary words
C.comprehension of social discourse
D.assisting in communication routines

Answer 7

Option (D) is correct. Intervention from an SLP for a nursing-home resident in a late stage of progressive dementia would most effectively focus on assisting the resident with daily communication functions.

Question 8

For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiring

A.use of the auxiliary verb “be” in the present progressive tense
B.use of the past-tense ending “-ed”
C.use of sentences with multiple negation
D.agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number

Answer 8

Option (D) is correct. The morphological feature listed is one in which African American Vernacular English (AAVE) does not differ from Standard American English (SAE).

Question 9

In the treatment of acute Wernicke’s aphasia, the initial focus should be on

A.encouraging self-monitoring of the adequacy of verbal output
B.increasing the rate of speech
C.improving the client’s ability to elaborate verbally
D.increasing the complexity of sentence structures

Answer 9

Option (A) is correct. Wernicke’s aphasia results in deficits related to the ability to recognize the adequacy of one’s verbal production.

Question 10

Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty learning to read has demonstrated that the treatment

A.is effective only for children from 4 to 8 years old
B.is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errors
C.is effective only when combined with a supplemental literacy program
D.might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities

Answer 10

Option (D) is correct. Intensive phonemic-awareness treatment programs are thought to improve reading by training children to better differentiate and process speech sounds. However, to date, research has not successfully separated the effects of intensive intervention, so no direct relationship has yet been proved.

Question 11

Which of the following would be most likely to help a client who has aphonia?

A.Development of phonation through coughing or throat clearing
B.Pairing the production of /s/ and /z/
C.Respiratory exercises
D.Easy initiation of phonation

Answer 11

Option (A) is correct. Development of phonation through coughing or throat clearing is an effective technique in the treatment of aphonia.

Question 12

A child with discourse problems is most likely to need remediation directed at which of the following?

A.Morphology
B.An initial lexicon
C.Gestural communication
D.Cohesive devices

Answer 12

Option (D) is correct. Cohesive devices, such as prenominal references, coordinating conjunctions, and conjunctive adverbs, are used to link clausal and sentential elements to form a coherent and unified message.

Question 13

n the treatment of voice disorders, the chewing technique is used to do which of the following?

A.Improve control of loudness
B.Increase pitch range during voice production
C.Increase air supply during voice production
D.Reduce tension in the laryngeal area

Answer 13

Option (D) is correct. The chewing technique is used to reduce muscular tension in the laryngeal area.

Question 14

In terms of communication impairment, an adult with Alzheimer’s-type dementia tends to differ from an adult with aphasia associated with a CVA in that

A.repetition abilities are typically more seriously impaired in the adult with dementia
B.the adult with dementia generally experiences greater dysfluency
C.the adult with dementia is generally more aware of any disruptions in communication
D.the capacity of the adult with aphasia to make appropriate comments about recent events is generally better

Answer 14

Option (D) is correct. Adults with dementia typically have impaired short-term memory abilities. Adults with aphasia are more likely to recall recent events and consequently would be more likely to make appropriate comments about recent events when compared to those with dementia.

Question 15

An SLP is planning treatment for a 5-year-old child with multiple speech-production errors. The most effective strategy the clinician can use to treat the child is to

A.arrange error sounds by developmental pattern and correct them sound by sound
B.start with sounds the child can make and use them as bridges to error sounds
C.teach sounds in isolation, then use nonsense syllables, and then build to words
D.delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs

Answer 15

Option (D) is correct. The most efficient procedure for the child would be for the speech-language pathologist to define the phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs.

Question 16

A teacher asks the speech-language pathologist for advice regarding a child who talks excessively during class, rarely listens to instructions, and does work only intermittently. Attempts at alternative seating for the child have not been successful. Of the following, which is the most appropriate recommendation that the speech-language pathologist can provide to the teacher?

A.Have the school counselor consider working with the child and the parents on self-control and discipline
B.Put the child on a management system for classroom behavior
C.Refer the child for evaluation by members of the child-study team
D.Suggest remedial speech-language services for the child to improve the child’s interactive communication

Answer 16

Option (C) is correct. The child has a behavioral problem that should be evaluated for the purposes of identification and management planning.

Question 17

A disfluent 4-year-old child is referred to an SLP for assessment. Which of the following is most important for the SLP to consider in deciding whether the child is developmentally nonfluent or stuttering?

A.The length of time the child has been disfluent
B.The rate at which the child talks
C.The nature and frequency of the child’s disfluencies
D.The child’s comments to the clinician about the disfluencies

Answer 17

Option (C) is correct. The nature and frequency of the child’s repetitions will help distinguish between normal disfluency and the type of stuttering for which remediation is indicated.

Question 18

Which of the following provides the most important diagnostic information to an SLP making a differential diagnosis between childhood apraxia of speech and flaccid dysarthria in a child?

A.The child’s articulation performance at the sentence level
B.A history of the child’s development of chewing, eating, and swallowing
C.A history of the child’s language development
D.The child’s willingness to function in sociocommunicative events

Answer 18

Option (B) is correct. A child with childhood apraxia of speech does not have difficulties with chewing, eating, and swallowing, whereas a child with flaccid dysarthria is likely to have such difficulties.

Question 19

A speech-and-hearing clinic has recently opened, but referrals are slow in coming. Which of the following would be most appropriate and effective for the clinic’s director to do first?

A.Ask local hospitals to provide names of recent clients likely to need speech-language services
B.Identify and define the major consumer groups and referral sources, and develop a plan to reach them
C.Identify the weaknesses in the competition, and inform consumer groups and referral sources of the weaknesses
D.Wait for demand to increase on its own, because marketing speech-language services is against the ASHA Code of Ethics

Answer 19

Option (B) is correct. The clinical director of a new speech-and-hearing clinic would most appropriately prospect for referrals by identifying major consumer groups and creating a plan to contact them.

Question 20

Native speakers of a language possess several capacities or abilities that provide insight into their language competence. Sentences such as “Visiting friends can be a nuisance” are especially useful to test a person’s ability to

A.recognize syntactic ambiguity
B.interpret metaphoric language
C.distinguish homophones by means of syntactic cues
D.recognize a semantically anomalous sentence

Answer 20

Option (A) is correct. There are two ways to parse or interpret the structure of the sentence “Visiting friends can be a nuisance.” One interpretation is that it is bothersome to visit friends; the other is that friends who have come for a visit are bothersome. Therefore, this sentence would be appropriate as part of a test of a person’s ability to recognize syntactic ambiguity.

Question 21

A 6-year-old child produces [t] for /s/, [d] for /z/, [p] for /f/, and [b] for /v/. Intervention for this problem would target language at the level of

A.morphology
B.syntax
C.phonology
D.semantics

Answer 21

Option (C) is correct. The speech patterns described in the question stem all pertain to speech sound production. Phonology is the aspect of language that deals with speech sound production.

Question 22

correct-response rate of 51 percent on a two-choice picture-pointing task would most likely indicate which of the following?

A.A random pointing response
B.Successful intervention
C.Development of crucial discrimination skills by the client
D.Readiness to progress to a three-picture point tas

Answer 22

Option (A) is correct. If an individual is responding randomly on a two-choice task, then there should be no significant preponderance of correct responses over incorrect responses. A result of 51 percent represents such an expected pattern of random responses.

Question 23

Ms. Lopez’s articulation errors consist of the following: f/v, ʃ/ʒ, and s/z. On the basis of these errors, the SLP should begin remediation that focuses on

A.manner
B.place
C.fricatives
D.voicing

Answer 23

Option (D) is correct. Ms. Lopez’s phonological errors are errors of voicing, as [f] is substituted for [v], [ʃ] for [ʒ], and [s] for [z].

Question 24

Control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone is most closely related to the activity of which of the following muscles?

A.Posterior cricoarytenoid
B.Lateral cricoarytenoid
C.Cricothyroid
D.Sternocleidomastoid

Answer 24

Option (C) is correct. The cricothyroid muscle has the greatest control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone by lengthening or tensing the vocal folds.

Question 25

A two-year-old child produces the following utterances during a play-based conversation with her mother.

Utterance Gloss/Child's Intended Meaning
No kitty It's not a kitty.
My doggie This toy dog is mine.
No goat It's not a goat.
Kitty house The cat is in the house.
Big kitty It's a big cat.
Doggie ball The dog pushed the ball.
Which of the following semantic-syntactic constructions does the child show evidence of using?

Select all that apply.

A.Disappearance
B.Denial
C.Possessor + possession
D.Attribute + entity
E.Agent + action

Answer 25

Options (B), (C), (D), and (E) are correct. Denial is shown through the utterance of “no kitty,” possessor + possession is shown through the utterance of “my doggie,” attribute + entity is shown through the utterance of “big kitty,” and agent + action is shown though the utterance of “doggie ball.”

Question 26

Which of the following areas needs to be evaluated first for a 5 year old who says [pun] for “spoon” and [top] for “soap”?

A.Auditory discrimination
B.Dialectal differences
C.Phonological system
D.Receptive language

Answer 26

Option (C) is correct. The error patterns described are phonological in nature (cluster reduction and stopping, specifically) and are not consistent with a deficit in language comprehension (receptive language), dialectal differences, or problems with auditory discrimination.

Question 27

Which of the following errors is likely to persist the longest in the speech of children who are learning Standard American English (SAE) as a first language and are following the normal developmental course for speech and language acquisition?

A.Assimilation
B.Consonant cluster reduction
C.Final-consonant deletion
D.Velar fronting

Answer 27

Option (B) is correct. Consonant cluster reduction is the most persistent of the normal developmental processes listed.

Question 28

For which of the following conditions is it most appropriate for the SLP to recommend that the patient’s primary-care physician refer the patient to a prosthodontist for construction of a palatal-lift appliance?

A.Submucous cleft palate
B.Unrepaired cleft of the secondary palate
C.Flaccid paralysis of the soft palate
D.Congenitally short palate

Answer 28

Option (C) is correct. Construction of a palatal-lift appliance is appropriate for a patient with flaccid paralysis characterized by an intact palate that does not function.

Question 29

Computer software that has been developed to facilitate speech and language treatment can best be used

A.in group sessions when the SLP’s caseload precludes working individually with clients
B.by clients in place of services that would otherwise be provided by an SLP
C.by clients under the direction of SLPs
D.when SLPs are unavailable

Answer 29

Option (C) is correct. Computer software and other aids are intended not to replace treatment sessions provided by an SLP but rather to enhance clients’ opportunities to improve their skills in relation to goals established by the clinician.

Question 30

The most serious limitation of employing imitation as an intervention strategy for children with a language impairment is that imitation

A.lacks communicative intention
B.relies on semantic knowledge
C.is clinician controlled
D.is contextualized speech

Answer 30

Option (A) is correct. The most serious shortcoming of imitation as an intervention strategy is that imitation is not an intentionally communicative act.

Question 31

Treatment for apraxia of speech most appropriately emphasizes

A.coordination of respiration with phonation and articulation
B.auditory discrimination, resonance, and respiration
C.auditory-visual stimulation, oral-motor repetition, and phonetic placement
D.rate of speech, range of movement, strength, and coordination of the oral mechanism

Answer 31

Option (C) is correct. Treatment for apraxia of speech appropriately emphasizes auditory-visual stimulation, oral-motor repetition, and phonetic placement.

Question 32

Which of the following is a typical symptom of cerebellar involvement?

A.Overshooting or undershooting an intended target
B.Rigidity during voluntary motions
C.Spasticity during involuntary action
D.Word-finding difficulty

Answer 32

Option (A) is correct. The overshooting or undershooting of an intended target is typical of individuals with deficits related to a lesion of the cerebellum.

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Question 33

To provide greater independence for a client who has a brain injury and is in a late stage of speech-language treatment, which of the following techniques is most appropriate?

A.Increasing memory-retention span
B.Using word-repetition drills
C.Teaching compensatory strategies
D.Training visual-perceptual skills

Answer 33

Option (C) is correct. Functional independence is a main goal for a client shortly before dismissal from treatment. It can be achieved by teaching compensatory strategies to minimize any remaining deficits.

Question 34

Following anoxic encephalopathy, clients are likely to experience the most significant long-term impairments in the area of

A.prosody
B.resonance
C.aphonia
D.memory

Answer 34

Option (D) is correct. Anoxic encephalopathy, or brain damage resulting from oxygen deprivation, typically leads to global impairment that affects memory. It is difficult to reverse the effects of memory loss, so the impairment is usually long-term.