Gram-Positive Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

What primarily makes up a G-positive cell wall?

A

Peptidoglycan and techoic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two majors G-positive groups based on DNA?

A

Low and High GC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two subcategories of Low G-C pathogens?

A

Cocci

Bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the gram-positive cocci?

A

Staphyloccocus
-aureus

Streptococcus
-pyogenes (GAS)
-pneumoniae

E. Faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Gram-positive bacilli?(low G-C)

A

Bacillus Anthracis

Clostridium
-difficile

Listeria Monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the high G-C gram positive pathogens called?

A

Bacilli/Pleomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the High G-C bacilli/pleomorphics

A

C. Dip

Mycobacterium
-tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the perfect pathogen?

A

S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is Staph. Aureus such a good pathogen?

A

Survives on fomites and humans
tolerate of dessication, radiation, and heat
facultative anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 3 factors of Staph. Aureus contribute to its pathogenicity?

A

Structures enabling it to evade phagocytosis

Enzyme production

Toxin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What bacteria is the primary producer of the toxin that causes Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Staph. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Folliculitis

A

Superficial inflammation of hair follicle: S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Furuncle

A

Boil
hair follicle or sebaceous gland inflammation progresses into abscess or pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Carbuncle

A

Larger/deeper lesion created by aggregation of furuncles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Impetigo

A

Bubble-like swellings common in newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What bacterial infection is often mistaken for a spider bite?

A

Staph. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which bacteria causes Scalded Skin Syndrome? (mostly in newborns)

A

Staph. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can Staph. Aureus be treated with penicillin?

A

No- Resistant due to enzyme penicillinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of Low GC Gram-positives are facultative anaerobes?

A

Staph. Aureus
Strep. Pyogenes
Strep. Pneumoniae
E. Faecali

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What kind of hemolysis does S. Pneumoniae show?

A

Alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of hemolysis does S. Pyogenes show?

A

Beta
(group A streptococcus)

22
Q

What is the most serious streptococcal pathogen?

A

S. Pyogenes

23
Q

What surface antigens does S. Pyogenes produce as virulence factors?

A

C-carbs
Fimbriae
M-protein (resists phagocytosis)
Hyaluronic acid capsule- provokes no immune response
C5a protease

24
Q

What bacteria produces the pyrogenic extracellular toxin to induce fever and red rash?

A

S. Pyogenes

25
Q

Which bacteria produces Steptokinase, an extracellular enzyme that digests fibrin clots?

A

S. Pyogenes

26
Q

What is the only reservoir for S. Pyogenes?

A

Humans

27
Q

What is Sequelae and which bacteria does it refer to?

A

Sequelae: consequences of progressive infection
-Inapropriate immune response

S. Pyogenes

28
Q

How is s. pyogenes treated?

A

Penicillin

29
Q

Which bacteria causes 60-70% of all bacterial pneumonias?

A

S. Pneumoniae

30
Q

Which streptococcus strain is best known for having huge capsules as a virulence factor?

A

S. Pneumoniae

31
Q

Which bacteria is known to cause pneumonia and otitis media?

A

S. Pneumoniae

32
Q

Where do all enterococci live?

A

Intestinal tracts of animals

33
Q

What arrangement is E. Faecalis known for?

A

Short chains and pairs

34
Q

When does E. Faecalis cause disease?

A

If there is a compromised colon barrier

35
Q

E. Faecalis is an important cause of _______ infections

A

Nosocomial

36
Q

What is VRE?

A

Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus

37
Q

Which gram-positive (low GC) bacteria are endospore-forming?

A

Bacillus
Clostridium

38
Q

What are the oxygen requirements and primary habitat of Bacillus?

A

aerobic
Soil

39
Q

What are the oxygen requirements of Clostridium?

A

Anaerobic- only lives in anoxic tissue environments

-ingestion of toxin produced in an anaerobic environment

40
Q

How does C. Diff cause disease

A

intestinal dysbiosis

41
Q

What is the second most common intestinal disease?

A

C-Diff infection (CDI)

42
Q

What kind of diarrhea does a C. Diff infection cause?

A

Gasey
Low volume
long lasting

43
Q

C. Diff is a major cause of ______ in hospitals

A

Diarrhea

44
Q

What can cause the dysbiosis necessary for a C. Diff infection to start?

A

Antibiotic-associated colitis- broad spectrum antibiotics kill other bacteria and allow C. Diff to grow unchecked.

45
Q

What method is most effective for curing a C. Diff infection?

A

Fecal Material Transplant

46
Q

Is Listeria Monocytogenes spore-forming?

A

No

47
Q

How does Listeria M. avoid the humoral immune system?

A

Replicates within the cytoplasm of a body cell after inducing phagocytosis- hides within cells

48
Q

What is Listeriosis mostly associated with?

A

dairy, poultry, meat- during pregnancy

49
Q

What can listeria cause if it crosses the blood-brain barrier?

A

Meningitis

50
Q

Tuberculosis

A