Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

.Pathology 2 > Gram Negative Bacteria > Flashcards

Gram Negative Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ____

A

Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by respiratory droplets (nasopharynx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ is the most common cause of acute pyogenic meningitis in adolescents and young adults

A

Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of acute pyogenic meningitis in adolescents and young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe clinical features of meningitis

A
  • fever, headache, photophobia, cloudy consciousness, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity)
  • signs:
    • neck rigidity = pain in touching chin to chest
    • Kernig sign = pain when flexing leg (meninges)
    • Brudzinski sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the lab investigations in meningitis and other causes of meningitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the most common organism producing meningitis in neonates is _____

A

the most common organism producing meningitis in neonates is group B streptococci and E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the most common organism producing meningitis in adolescence and younger adults is _____

A

the most common organism producing meningitis in adolescents and younger adults is Neisseria meningtidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the most common organism producing meningitis in older adults is _____

A

the most common organism producing meningitis in older adults is Strep. pneumoniae and Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the most common organism producing chronic meningitis is _____

A

the most common organism producing chronic meningitis is mycobacterium tuberculosis and fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe meningococcemia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe what is seen in the image

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe what causes gonorrhea and the pathogenesis

A

caued by Neisseria gonorrhea (G-ve diplococci)

  • pathogenesis: organism invades mucosa surface using its pili and membrane proteins and causes inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the clinical features of gonorrhea in females

A
  • dysuria, vaginal discharge, intermenstrual bleeding
  • cervicitis, salpingitis (pelvic inflammatory disease) and peritonitis
  • if chronic → scarring of the fallopian tubes leading to infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the clinical features of gonorrhea in males

A
  • urethritis, epididymitis
  • mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria
  • oropharyngitis (oral sex)
  • proctitis (anal sex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe gonorrhea in the newborn

A
  • infection acquired during passage of the fetus through cervix during labor
  • purulent conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)
    • use of erythromycin/silver nitrate eye drops after birth can prevent it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the diagnosis of gonorrhea in males vs. females

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe the etiology of typhoid fever

A
  • salmonella typhi (G-ve rod)
  • salmonella paratyphi (predominate in travelers & those living in developed countries)
  • humans are the sole reservoir
17
Q

describe the pathogenesis of typhoid fever

A
  • acquired through ingestion (contaminated food and water)
  • enter the ileal wall and taken up by M-cells and engulfed by mononuclear cells in the lymphoid tissue (no lesions at this time) → enter blood stream → bacteremia (1st week)
18
Q

describe the spread of typhoid fever in the body

20
Q

describe the clinical features of enteric fever

21
Q

describe the complications of typhoid fever

22
Q

describe the mechanism of septic shock

23
Q

describe the etiology of urinary tract infections

A
  • etiology: E. coli (most common cause)
24
Q

describe the pathogenesis, clinical features and investigations of UTIs

A
  • pathogenesis:
    • most common in females
    • ascending infxns through the urethra
  • clinical features:
    • fever, dysuria, frequency, suprapubic, tenderness and cloudy urine
  • investigations:
    • CBC, urinalysis
25
Q

describe G-ve septicemia and clinical features

A
  • UTI is complicated by septicemia in this case
  • E. coli is the most common cause of G-ve sepsis
  • it is a natural commensal but pathogenic in some situations e.g.
    • immune deficiency and mucous membrane breakage
  • other causes of G-ve sepsis include:
    • H. influenza, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, Proteus and Serratia
  • clinical features:
    • high grade fever, DIC, hypotension → death
26
Q

rickettsia are obligate ____ bacteria

A

rickettsia are obligate intracellular bacteria

27
Q

based on rickettsial organisms, 3 different illnesses can occur:

A
  • epidemic typhus caused by R. prowazecki
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever caused by R. rickettsii
  • Q fever caused by Coxiella burnetti
28
Q

describe the etiology and vector of epidemic typhus

A
  • etiology: R. prowazeckii
    • small G-ve bacillus
    • spread by head and body lice
29
Q

describe the pathogenesis of epidemic typhus

A
  • skin penetration or nasal mucous membrane → blood stream → entered endothelial cells of small vessels in different organs, mainly the skin → endothelial proliferation and perivascular inflammation → vasculitis, thrombosis and hemorrhage
  • fibrin thrombi formed in capillaries
  • sparse lymph mononuclear cell response
30
Q

describe clinical features, investigations and complications of epidemic typhus

A
  • clinical features:
    • severe headaches, generalized aches and high fever
    • then maculopapular rash on the torso → extremities (centrifugal spread)
    • can cause pneumonia, hepatitis
    • CNS involvement (typhus nodule)
      • apaty, stupor, coma, death
    • if severe: necrosis or earlobes, scrotum, nose and finger
  • investigations:
    • immunofluorescence → demonstrate organism
    • Weil Felix test: antibodies cross-react with Proteus spp. antigen
  • complications:
    • interstitial pneumonia, myocarditis, encephalitis
31
Q

describe what is seen in the image

32
Q

describe the etiology and epidemiology of Rocky Moutain spotted fever

A
  • etiology:
    • Rickettsia rickettsii
    • small G-ve intracellular coccobacillus
    • spread by wood tick
  • epidemiology:
    • GOAT states: Georgia, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Tennessee
33
Q

describe the pathogenesis of RMSF

A
  • pathogenesis
    • centrifugal spread of rash (extremities → center)
    • incubation period ranges from 3-12 days
    • necrosis, hemorrhage, vasculitis and thrombosis
34
Q

describe the investigation and complications of RMSF

A
  • investigation
    • immunofluorescence on skin biopsy
  • complications:
    • interstitial pneumonia, interstitial myocarditis and DIC
35
Q

describe what is seen in the image

36
Q

describe the etiology of Q fever

A
  • etiology:
    • Coxiella burnetti
    • spread via respiratory droplet (air borne) from infected sheep and cattle
37
Q

describe the clinical features of Q fever

A
  • clinical features
    • pneumonia, liver, spleen, bone marrow
    • ring granuloma in liver biopsy = central fat, fibrinoid material, surrounded by epithelioid cells
    • skin rash is not common
  • investigation:
    • PCR, immunofluorescence, serology

.Pathology 2 (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions