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Gov't semester exam Flashcards

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1
Q

a system of rules that are enforced through social institutions to govern behavior.

A

law

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2
Q

a right that is believed to belong justifiably to every person.

A

human rights

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3
Q

the body of laws of a state or nation regulating ordinary private matters, as distinct from laws regulating criminal, political, or military matters.

A

civil law

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4
Q

A Criminal law or penal law is the body of law that relates to crime. It regulates social conduct and proscribes whatever is threatening, harmful, or otherwise endangering to the property, health, safety, and moral welfare of people

A

Criminal Law

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5
Q

a person, especially a public official, who institutes legal proceedings against someone.

A

prosecutor

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6
Q

It means that the federal government, in exercising any of the powers enumerated in the Constitution, must prevail over any conflicting or inconsistent state exercise of power.

A

Supremacy Clause

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7
Q

a constitutional right to reject a decision or proposal made by a law-making body.

A

veto

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8
Q

an individual, company, or institution sued or accused in a court of law.

A

defendant

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9
Q

a person who brings a case against another in a court of law.

A

plaintiff

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10
Q

a crime, typically one involving violence, regarded as more serious than a misdemeanor, and usually punishable by imprisonment for more than one year or by death.

A

felony

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11
Q

a non-indictable offense, regarded in the US (and formerly in the UK) as less serious than a felony.

A

misdemeanor

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12
Q

is the standard of evidence required to validate a criminal conviction in most adversarial legal systems. Generally, the prosecutor bears the burden of proof and is required to prove their version of events to this standard.

A

beyond reasonable doubt

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13
Q

a feeling of uncertainty or lack of conviction.

A

doubt

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14
Q

A standard of proof that must be met by a plaintiff if he or she is to win a civil action.

A

Preponderance of Evidence

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15
Q

a written law passed by a legislative body. A rule of an organization or institution.

A

statutes

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16
Q

not in accordance with a political constitution, especially the US Constitution, or with procedural rules.

A

unconstitutional

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17
Q

the federal principle or system of government. The principles of the Federalist Party.

A

federalism

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18
Q

a special right, advantage, or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group of people.

A

privileges

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19
Q

a moral or legal entitlement to have or obtain something or to act in a certain way.

A

rights

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20
Q

a writ requiring a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court, especially to secure the person’s release unless lawful grounds are shown for their detention.

A

habeas corpus

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21
Q

a form of written command in the name of a court or other legal authority to act, or abstain from acting, in some way.one’s power to enforce compliance or submission; one’s authority.

A

writ

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22
Q

The formal document by which the state sets out the claim that a person has committed a crime.

A

Indictment Definition

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23
Q

is a complete, ordered listing of all the items in a collection. The term is commonly used in mathematics and theoretical computer science (as well as applied computer science) to refer to a listing of all of the elements of a set.

A

enumeration

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24
Q

an extremely offensive word or expression.

A

obscenity

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25
Q

the action of damaging the good reputation of someone; slander or libel.

A

defamation

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26
Q

the action or crime of making a false spoken statement damaging to a person’s reputation.

A

slander

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27
Q

a published false statement that is damaging to a person’s reputation; a written defamation.

A

libel

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28
Q

the action of provoking unlawful behavior or urging someone to behave unlawfully

A

incitement

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29
Q

divide into four equal or corresponding parts, be stationed or lodged in a specified place.

A

quartered

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30
Q

the practice of officially examining books, movies, etc., and suppressing unacceptable parts.

A

censorship

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31
Q

a law that protects witnesses from revealing certain information, especially in court

A

shield law

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32
Q

a group of people gathered together in one place for a common purpose

A

assembly

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33
Q

is a place that has, by tradition or practice, been held out for general use by the public for speech-related purposes.

A

public forum

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34
Q

a formal written request, typically one signed by many people, appealing to authority with respect to a particular cause.

A

petition

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35
Q

the regular administration of the law, according to which no citizen may be denied his or her legal rights and all laws must conform to fundamental, accepted legal principles, as the right of the accused to confront his or her accusers.

A

due process

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36
Q

the action or state of setting someone or something apart from other people or things or being set apart.

A

segregation

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37
Q

the unjust or prejudicial treatment of different categories of people or things, especially on the grounds of race, age, or sex.

A

discrimination

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38
Q

set right (an undesirable situation).

A

remedy

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39
Q

the policy of favoring members of a disadvantaged group who suffer from discrimination within a culture.

A

affirmative action

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40
Q

an organized association of workers formed to protect and further their rights and interests; a labor union.

A

union

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41
Q

negotiation of wages and other conditions of employment by an organized body of employees.

A

collective bargaining

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42
Q

a refusal to work organized by a body of employees as a form of protest, typically in an attempt to gain a concession or concessions from their employer.

A

strike

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43
Q

a person stationed by a union or the like outside a factory, store, mine, etc., in order to dissuade or prevent workers or customers from entering it during a strike.

A

picketing

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44
Q

Alabama, Arizona, Arkansas, Kansas, Florida, Georgia, Idaho, Indiana, Iowa, Louisiana, Michigan, Mississippi, Nebraska, Nevada, North Carolina, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Carolina, South Dakota, Tennessee, Texas,Utah, Virginia, Wisconsin, and Wyoming.

A

right-to work states

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45
Q

means calling attention to wrongdoing that is occurring within an organization. Reporting wrongdoing or a violation of the law to the proper authorities.

A

whistle blowing

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46
Q

is a matter of agreement between an employer and an employee (or the employee’s representative). The Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) may be able to assist an employee who did not receive ________ benefits under their employer-sponsored plan.

A

severance pay

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47
Q

A source of income for workers who have lost their jobs through no fault of their own

A

unemployment insurance

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48
Q

this is gained by meeting the legal requirements of a national, state, or local government. A nation grants certain rights and privileges to its citizens

A

citizenship

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49
Q

the legal act or process by which a non-citizen in a country may acquire citizenship or nationality of that country.

A

naturalization

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50
Q

an endorsement on a passport indicating that the holder is allowed to enter, leave, or stay for a specified period of time in a country.

A

visa

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51
Q

when you get officially granted immigration benefits, which include permission to reside and take employment in the United States.

A

permanent resident

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52
Q

the protection granted by a nation to someone who has left their native country as a political refugee.

A

asylum

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53
Q

all the descendants of a common ancestor.

A

family

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54
Q

unity between two people

A

marriage

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55
Q

permission to do something

A

consent

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56
Q

the act of going through a marriage ceremony while already married to another person.

A

bigamy

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57
Q

exists in three specific forms: polygyny - wherein a man has multiple simultaneous wives; polyandry - wherein a woman has multiple simultaneous husbands; or group marriage - wherein the family unit consists of multiple husbands and multiple wives.

A

polygamy

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58
Q

the action or fact of adopting or being adopted.

A

adoption

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59
Q

is a complex series of procedures used to treat fertility or genetic problems and assist with the conception of a child. During IVF, mature eggs are collected (retrieved) from your ovaries and fertilized by sperm in a lab.

A

in vitro fertilization

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60
Q

a substitute, especially a person deputizing for another in a specific role or office.

A

surrogate

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61
Q

is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A _____ typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person’s property rights will be after the marriage.

A

prenup

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62
Q

live together and have a sexual relationship without being married.

A

cohabit

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63
Q

(especially in legal contexts) the state of being someone’s father.

A

patnernity

64
Q

the fact or process of being set free from legal, social, or political restrictions; liberation.

A

emancipation

65
Q

physical maltreatment or sexual molestation of a child.

A

child abuse

66
Q

is defined as a type of maltreatment related to the failure to provide needed, age-appropriate care. Unlike physical and sexual abuse, neglect is usually typified by an ongoing pattern of inadequate care and is readily observed by individuals in close contact with the child.

A

child neglect

67
Q

an adult who is sexually attracted to young children.

A

pedophile

68
Q

, “separate maintenance”, “divorce a mensa et thoro”, or “divorce from bed-and-board”) is a legal process by which a married couple may formalize a de facto

A

separation

69
Q

the act of annulling something.

A

annulment

70
Q

the legal dissolution of a marriage by a court or other competent body.

A

divorce

71
Q

a husband’s or wife’s court-ordered provision for a spouse after separation or divorce.

A

alimony

72
Q

A custodial parent is a parent who is given physical and/or legal custody of a child by court orde

A

custody

73
Q

is a system in which a minor has been placed into a ward, group home, or private home of a state-certified caregiver referred to as a “foster parent”. The placement of the child is usually arranged through the government or a social-service agency.

A

foster care

74
Q

intimate partner violence, battering or family violence) is a pattern of behavior which involves violence or other abuse by one person against another in a domestic setting, such as in marriage or cohabitation.

A

spousal abuse

75
Q

any government system that provides monetary assistance to people with an inadequate or no income.

A

social security

76
Q

is the federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease (permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or a transplant, sometimes called ESRD).

A

medicare

77
Q

A joint federal and state program that helps low-income individuals or families pay for the costs associated with long-term medical and custodial care, provided they qualify. Although largely funded by the federal government

A

medicaid

78
Q

systems network architecture

A

S.N.A

79
Q

a written or spoken agreement, especially one concerning employment, sales, or tenancy, that is intended to be enforceable by law.

A

contract

80
Q

careful thought, typically over a period of time.

A

consideration

81
Q

having the necessary ability, knowledge, or skill to do something successfully.

A

competent

82
Q

The act of signing for another person’s debt which involves a legal obligation made by the cosigner to make payment on the other person’s debt should that person default

A

cosign

83
Q

an act of breaking or failing to observe a law, agreement, or code of conduct.

A

breach

84
Q

wrongful or criminal deception intended to result in financial or personal gain.

A

fraud

85
Q

physical harm caused to something in such a way as to impair its value, usefulness, or normal function.

A

damages

86
Q

not right or reasonable.

A

unconscionable

87
Q

the revocation, cancellation, or repeal of a law, order, or agreement.

A

rescission

88
Q

the restoration of something lost or stolen to its proper owner.

A

restitution

89
Q

a written guarantee, issued to the purchaser of an article by its manufacturer, promising to repair or replace it if necessary within a specified period of time.

A

warranty

90
Q

medicine or treatment for a disease or injury.

A

remedy

91
Q

a statement that denies something, especially responsibility.

A

disclaimer

92
Q

the ability of a customer to obtain goods or services before payment, based on the trust that payment will be made in the future.

A

credit

93
Q

a person or company to whom money is owed.

A

creditor

94
Q

.

money paid regularly at a particular rate for the use of money lent, or for delaying the repayment of a debt.

A

interest

95
Q

The annual rate that is charged for borrowing (or made by investing), expressed as a single percentage number that represents the actual yearly cost of funds over the term of a loan. This includes any fees or additional costs associated with the transaction

A

apr

96
Q

the illegal action or practice of lending money at unreasonably high rates of interest.

A

usury

97
Q

the state of being completely lacking in a particular quality or value.

A

bakruptcy

98
Q

.

failure to fulfill an obligation, especially to repay a loan or appear in a court of law.

A

default

99
Q

a person or institution that owes a sum of money.

A

debtor

100
Q

a sum of money lent or invested on which interest is paid.

A

principal

101
Q

something pledged as security for repayment of a loan, to be forfeited in the event of a default.

A

collateral

102
Q

is a term used to denote a financial institution taking back an object that was either used as collateral or rented or leased.

A

repossesses

103
Q

a right to keep possession of property belonging to another person until a debt owed by that person is discharged.

A

lien

104
Q

a court order directing that money or property of a third party (usually wages paid by an employer) be seized to satisfy a debt owed by a debtor to a plaintiff creditor.

A

garnishment

105
Q

an extra part or extension that is or can be attached to something to perform a particular function.

A

attachment

106
Q

a name that describes someone’s position or job.

A

title

107
Q

a contract by which one party conveys land, property, services, etc., to another for a specified time, usually in return for a periodic payment.

A

lease

108
Q

the charging of real (or personal) property by a debtor to a creditor as security for a debt (especially one incurred by the purchase of the property), on the condition that it shall be returned on payment of the debt within a certain period.

A

mortgage

109
Q

a bond, deed, or other document kept in the custody of a third party, taking effect only when a specified condition has been fulfilled.

A

escrow

110
Q

the action of expelling someone, especially a tenant, from a property; expulsion.

A

eviction

111
Q

the judicial authorities of a country; judges collectively.

A

judiciary

112
Q

an earlier event or action that is regarded as an example or guide to be considered in subsequent similar circumstances.

A

precedent

113
Q

are spoken to a judge or appellate court by a lawyer (or parties when representing themselves) of the legal reasons why they should prevai

A

oral arguments

114
Q

A brief (Old French from Latin “brevis”, short) is a written legal document used in various legal adversarial systems that is presented to a court arguing why one party to a particular case should prevail. In England and Wales, the phrase refers to the papers given to a barrister when they are instructed.

A

written brief

115
Q

review by the US Supreme Court of the constitutional validity of a legislative act.

A

judicial review

116
Q

“to be informed of, or to be made certain in regard to”. It is also the name given to certain appellate proceedings for re-examination of actions of a trial court, or inferior appeals court.

A

writ of ceritori

117
Q

the official power to make legal decisions and judgments.

A

jurisdiction

118
Q

an impartial adviser, often voluntary, to a court of law in a particular case.

A

amicus curiae

119
Q

not interested or involved in politics.

A

apolitical

120
Q

a formal examination of evidence before a judge, and typically before a jury, in order to decide guilt in a case of criminal or civil proceedings.

A

trial

121
Q

(of an unofficial force) organized similarly to a military force.

A

paramilitary

122
Q

the available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.

A

evidence

123
Q

a person who publicly supports or recommends a particular cause or policy.

A

advocate

124
Q

is a legal phrase that refers to a variety of procedures connected with jury trials. It originally referred to an oath taken by jurors to tell the truth

A

voir dire

125
Q

A retainer agreement is a work for hire contract. It falls between a one-time contract and full-time employment. Its distinguishing feature is that the employer pays in advance for work to be specified later

A

retainer

126
Q

is any fee for services provided where the fee is payable only if there is a favourable result. In the law, it is defined as a “fee charged for a lawyer’s services only if the lawsuit is successful or is favorably settled out of court.

A

contingency fee

127
Q

a special right, advantage, or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group of people.

A

privelage

128
Q

expel (a lawyer) from the Bar, so that they no longer have the right to practice law.

A

disbarred

129
Q

reasonable grounds (for making a search, pressing a charge, etc.).

A

probable cause

130
Q

an act of reserving accommodations, travel, etc., or of buying a ticket in advance.

A

booking

131
Q

the action of arraigning someone in court.

A

arraignment

132
Q

the temporary release of an accused person awaiting trial, sometimes on condition that a sum of money be lodged to guarantee their appearance in court.

A

bail

133
Q

is witness’s sworn out-of-court testimony. It used to gather information as part of the discovery process and, in limited circumstances, may be used at trial. The witness being deposed is called the “deponent.

A

deposition

134
Q

free (someone) from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty.

A

acquittal

135
Q

a formal charge or accusation of a serious crime.

A

indictment

136
Q

a plea by which a defendant in a criminal prosecution accepts conviction as though a guilty plea had been entered but does not admit guilt.

A

nolo contendere

137
Q

the compulsory disclosure, by a party to an action, of relevant documents referred to by the other party.

A

discovery

138
Q

is any agreement in a criminal case between the prosecutor and defendant whereby the defendant agrees to plead guilty to a particular charge in return for some concession from the prosecutor.

A

plea bargain

139
Q

Under penalty. A writ issued by a court commanding a person to appear, with penalties that attach for failure to comply.

A

subpoena

140
Q

is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers in the form of behavior that opposes or defies authority, justice, and dignity of the court.

A

contempt of the court

141
Q

An exemption from a duty or penalty. A permanent status, as for a diplomat, exempting one from being sued or prosecuted for certain actions. A special status, granted by a prosecutor, exempting a witness from being prosecuted for the acts to which he or she testifies.

A

immunity

142
Q

a jury is unable to reach a verdict and there must be a new trial with a new jury; 2) there is a serious procedural error or misconduct that would result in an unfair trial, and the judge adjourns the case without a decision on the merits and awards a new trial.

A

mistrial

143
Q

Retributive justice is a theory of justice that considers punishment, if proportionate, to be the best response to crime. When an offender breaks the law, justice requires that they forfeit something in return.

A

retribution

144
Q

A principle or objective of sentencing a person guilty of a crime which ensures that the punishment is sufficient to deter the guilty person, and others, from committing the same crime.

A

deterrence

145
Q

is the re-integration into society of a convicted person and the main objective of modern penal policy, to counter habitual offending, also known as criminal recidivism.

A

rehabilitation

146
Q

the restoration of something lost or stolen to its proper owner.

A

resitiution

147
Q

deprived of strength or power; debilitated.

A

incapacitation

148
Q

the legally authorized killing of someone as punishment for a crime.

A

capital punishment

149
Q

is any information or evidence presented to the court regarding the defendant or the circumstances of the crime that might result in reduced charges or a lesser sentence.

A

mitigating circumstances

150
Q

Factors that increases the severity or culpability of a criminal act, including, but not limited to, heinousness of the crime, lack of remorse, and prior conviction of another crime

A

aggravating circumstances

151
Q

the release of a prisoner temporarily (for a special purpose) or permanently before the completion of a sentence, on the promise of good behavior.

A

parole

152
Q

Definition. In most states, first-degree murder is defined as an unlawful killing that is both willful and premeditated, meaning that it was committed after planning or “lying in wait” for the victim.

A

first degree murder

153
Q

a non-premeditated killing, resulting from an assault in which death of the victim was a distinct possibility

A

second degree murder

154
Q

usually refers to an unintentional killing that results from recklessness or criminal negligence, or from an unlawful act that is a misdemeanor or low-level felony

A

unintentional manslaughter

155
Q

Voluntary manslaughter is commonly defined as an intentional killing in which the offender had no prior intent to kill, such as a killing that occurs in the “heat of passion.” The circumstances leading to the killing must be the kind that would cause a reasonable person to become emotionally or mentally disturbed; otherwise, the killing may be charged as a first-degree or second-degree murder

A

intentional manslaughter

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