GOS Flashcards
GOS questions
Exemption 11498 (10248 old) Allows us to:
C: Operate Temporarily without the certificates of registration or airworthiness on board
10) CPS may never use an airport in class G airspace for an alternate.
B: False
13) To determine Takeoff minimums, CPS uses:
C: The takeoff minimums published in the LIDO, but never less than 500/500/500 RVR
14) At airports that do not operate ATC facilities and where it is not otherwise possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance. A Flight may take off and depart under VFR provided:
D: All the above
15) Which type of instrument approach is approved by the Operations Specifications:
B: RNAV (based on an operating GPS)
20) Where is the furthest point from an uncontrolled field where a CPS aircraft can cancel an IFR flight plan and land under VFR?
D: There is no distance requirement if the crew can maintain visual reference with the landing surface.
29) To conduct terminal arrival VFR operations at a class C airport, with the lowest ceiling authorized as prescribed under FAR 91.155 to maintain the basic cloud clearance (assume pattern altitude 1500’ for transport aircraft)?
C: 2000
30) Which of the following is not an approved alternate weather source of weather?
C: FISDL
33) The following are valid acceptance criteria for ASAP reporting, except:
C: ASAP Report must be submitted in 72 hours
39) A critical phase of flight is:
B: From engine start through climb out of 10,000’ MSL
40) While making a turn on the ground, CPS pilots are required to clear the direction of the turn and to verbalize it. When airborne the direction also must either be clear visually (in VMC) or via TCAS (in IMC), but without verbalization.
A: True
48) During critical phase of flight, one crewmember may leave his or her station for physiological needs.
B: False
58) CPS flights must pass at least 5 miles (preferably upwind) from known thunderstorms, and not takeoff and land if a thunderstorm is occurring within the reported boundary (within 5 SM of the airport center).
B: False
59) Alternate fuel consumption is based on ______ at long range cruise power settings.
59. Hold fuel computation is based on_ at holding airspeed. QUESTION CHANGED
B: A cruise altitude between 5,000’ MSL and FL200
B: 10,000’ MSL
66) Which statement is true with regards to holdover times?
A: Once a holdover time is exceeded, pre-takeoff contamination check must be complete.
68) Which of the following is required on the Dispatch Release?
A: Minimum Fuel
71) All inoperative equipment listed in the MEL except NEFs are required to be listed on the Dispatch Release.
A: True
72) If a takeoff alternate is required for takeoff, the alternate airport must be:
D: Within 1 hour from the departure point, at normal cruise speed, in still air, with one engine inoperative.
76) An Alternate has been designated on a release. While examining the weather at the alternate, the PIC notices a TAF and RAMTAF available at the ETA. The TAF indicates a lower ceiling and visibility than the RAMTAF. According to the FOM, which forecast would you use.
A: TAF. The FOM states the more restrictive (lower) weather must be used to determine if an alternate is legal.
83) An alternate airport is not required for dispatch if the destination weather forecast is for:
A: At least 2,000’ ceiling above the airport elevation and at least 3 miles visibility for at least one hour before and one hour after the ETA
84) Dispatch under 17347 (3585) is allowed if, at your ETA:
17347 Changed question
C. The CONDITIONAL visibility is no less than 1∕2 that required for the approach at the destination, 1∕2 that hat required to designate an alternate and at or above alternate designation requirements for the 2 alternate. 8-17-2
96) If the weather conditions at your departure airport are below the lowest
B: CPS policy requires the dispatch release to list a take off alternate 8-16-2
105) The weather for a circling approach must be: a. At or above 1,000’ and 3 miles visibility
D. At or above 1,000’ and 3 miles, or the MDA and/or a higher visibility required of the published circling maneuver for the approach, whichever is higher. 9-12-1
106) When planning to circle for landing, you notice the MDA is 1,100’ HAA. What altitude should you circle?
C: 1,100’ HAA
107) CPS policy regarding landing criteria is that touchdown must occur within the first _______ feet or the first 1/3 of the runways or ALS, whichever is less.
D: 3,000’
122) Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is used at airports with landing minimums below 1,200’ RVR.
A. True
126) For a visual approach when an ILS is available, a pilot may descend below the glide slope between the outer marker and middle marker. True or False?
B. False
127) If an ILS is not available for a visual approach but the VASI is, the pilot must stay on the VASI glide path until lower is needed for landing in the touchdown zone. True or False?
A. True
128) After intercepting glideslope at the published glideslope intercept altitude, the tower states ”TDZ RVR 1,600”. What action is required, assuming the approach plate says RVR 18 or 1∕2?
D: The approach can be continued, but landing is only allowed if the flight crew
142) If a passenger was to lose consciousness due to an extreme illness and dies while on board an CPS aircraft, the flight may not depart until released by:
D: Local law enforcement or the coroner
148) You have been assigned to ferry an aircraft. What does the special flight permit allow you to do?
D: Both B&C
153) You should perform a VOR receiver accuracy check prior to the first flight of the day if it’s either the 1st or the 15th, or if the aircraft is being returned to service after not being in operation through either date.
A: True
154) An MEL is restrictive when:
D: All of the above
163) A condition that results in an intermittent CAS message or Pushbutton light, including flickering caution/warning lights, are to be considered possibly operating outside design parameters and therefore should be considered as a possible mechanical irregularity.
A: True
167) A difficulty seating a handicapped person has been referred to the CRO. What does CRO stand for?
B: Complaint Resolution Officer
168) Unaccompanied minors are 2 to 12.
B: False
170) CPS may not carry high-risk prisoners.
B: False
174) An animal carried in the cargo compartment of a Compass aircraft may only be carried in the aft cargo compartment.
B: False
181) What are the flight limitations after a crewmember donates blood?
C: 24 hours
184) According to FAR Part 117, each flight crewmember must have at least 30 consecutive hours off from all duty in any 168 consecutive hour period.
A: True
186) A CPS pilot may no be scheduled to fly more than ___ hours between required rest periods?
D: Either A or B, depending on duty-on time
187) You inadvertently left your pilot and medical certificate at home. They are current and the Company has a copy in the files:
B: You can fly your flight if you obtain a “Temporary Confirmation Document” from CPS or a Temporary Authorized fax from FAA
191) A PIC without 100 hours in 14 CFR Part 121 operations in the type of airplane they are operating (High Minimums PIC), may be dispatched and may fly CAT 1 approaches under exemption 10196 without adding 100ft and 1/2sm to minimums if:
D: All of the above
192) A PIC without 100 hours in 14 CFR Part 121 operations in the type of airplane they are operating (High Minimums PIC), and is flying an aircraft with a CAT II downgrade.
D: A&C
195) At which airport is a low-time SIC prohibited from performing a takeoff?
B: KDCA or KSAM
208) A carry-on bag weights _____ lbs. When stored under the seat?
C: 0 lbs
216) Basic VFR visibility requirements at night in class E airspace while cruising at 8,000’ are:
C: 3 miles
217) AT MSP, ground control clears you to taxi to Runway 12R. This clearance permits you to cross any active runway except for 12R.
B: False
