GOS

Question 1

Exemption 11498 (10248 old) Allows us to:

Answer 1

C: Operate Temporarily without the certificates of registration or airworthiness on board

Question 2

10) CPS may never use an airport in class G airspace for an alternate.

Answer 2

B: False

Question 3

13) To determine Takeoff minimums, CPS uses:

Answer 3

C: The takeoff minimums published in the LIDO, but never less than 500/500/500 RVR

Question 4

14) At airports that do not operate ATC facilities and where it is not otherwise possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance. A Flight may take off and depart under VFR provided:

Answer 4

D: All the above

Question 5

15) Which type of instrument approach is approved by the Operations Specifications:

Answer 5

B: RNAV (based on an operating GPS)

Question 6

20) Where is the furthest point from an uncontrolled field where a CPS aircraft can cancel an IFR flight plan and land under VFR?

Answer 6

D: There is no distance requirement if the crew can maintain visual reference with the landing surface.

Question 7

29) To conduct terminal arrival VFR operations at a class C airport, with the lowest ceiling authorized as prescribed under FAR 91.155 to maintain the basic cloud clearance (assume pattern altitude 1500’ for transport aircraft)?

Answer 7

C: 2000

Question 8

30) Which of the following is not an approved alternate weather source of weather?

Answer 8

C: FISDL

Question 9

33) The following are valid acceptance criteria for ASAP reporting, except:

Answer 9

C: ASAP Report must be submitted in 72 hours

Question 10

39) A critical phase of flight is:

Answer 10

B: From engine start through climb out of 10,000’ MSL

Question 11

40) While making a turn on the ground, CPS pilots are required to clear the direction of the turn and to verbalize it. When airborne the direction also must either be clear visually (in VMC) or via TCAS (in IMC), but without verbalization.

Answer 11

A: True

Question 12

48) During critical phase of flight, one crewmember may leave his or her station for physiological needs.

Answer 12

B: False

Question 13

58) CPS flights must pass at least 5 miles (preferably upwind) from known thunderstorms, and not takeoff and land if a thunderstorm is occurring within the reported boundary (within 5 SM of the airport center).

Answer 13

B: False

Question 14

59) Alternate fuel consumption is based on ______ at long range cruise power settings.
59. Hold fuel computation is based on_ at holding airspeed. QUESTION CHANGED

Answer 14

B: A cruise altitude between 5,000’ MSL and FL200

B: 10,000’ MSL

Question 15

66) Which statement is true with regards to holdover times?

Answer 15

A: Once a holdover time is exceeded, pre-takeoff contamination check must be complete.

Question 16

68) Which of the following is required on the Dispatch Release?

Answer 16

A: Minimum Fuel

Question 17

71) All inoperative equipment listed in the MEL except NEFs are required to be listed on the Dispatch Release.

Answer 17

A: True

Question 18

72) If a takeoff alternate is required for takeoff, the alternate airport must be:

Answer 18

D: Within 1 hour from the departure point, at normal cruise speed, in still air, with one engine inoperative.

Question 19

76) An Alternate has been designated on a release. While examining the weather at the alternate, the PIC notices a TAF and RAMTAF available at the ETA. The TAF indicates a lower ceiling and visibility than the RAMTAF. According to the FOM, which forecast would you use.

Answer 19

A: TAF. The FOM states the more restrictive (lower) weather must be used to determine if an alternate is legal.

Question 20

83) An alternate airport is not required for dispatch if the destination weather forecast is for:

Answer 20

A: At least 2,000’ ceiling above the airport elevation and at least 3 miles visibility for at least one hour before and one hour after the ETA

Question 21

84) Dispatch under 17347 (3585) is allowed if, at your ETA:

17347 Changed question

Answer 21

C. The CONDITIONAL visibility is no less than 1∕2 that required for the approach at the destination, 1∕2 that hat required to designate an alternate and at or above alternate designation requirements for the 2 alternate. 8-17-2

Question 22

96) If the weather conditions at your departure airport are below the lowest

Answer 22

B: CPS policy requires the dispatch release to list a take off alternate 8-16-2

Question 23

105) The weather for a circling approach must be: a. At or above 1,000’ and 3 miles visibility

Answer 23

D. At or above 1,000’ and 3 miles, or the MDA and/or a higher visibility required of the published circling maneuver for the approach, whichever is higher. 9-12-1

Question 24

106) When planning to circle for landing, you notice the MDA is 1,100’ HAA. What altitude should you circle?

Answer 24

C: 1,100’ HAA

Question 25

107) CPS policy regarding landing criteria is that touchdown must occur within the first _______ feet or the first 1/3 of the runways or ALS, whichever is less.

Answer 25

D: 3,000’

Question 26

122) Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is used at airports with landing minimums below 1,200’ RVR.

Answer 26

A. True

Question 27

126) For a visual approach when an ILS is available, a pilot may descend below the glide slope between the outer marker and middle marker. True or False?

Answer 27

B. False

Question 28

127) If an ILS is not available for a visual approach but the VASI is, the pilot must stay on the VASI glide path until lower is needed for landing in the touchdown zone. True or False?

Answer 28

A. True

Question 29

128) After intercepting glideslope at the published glideslope intercept altitude, the tower states ”TDZ RVR 1,600”. What action is required, assuming the approach plate says RVR 18 or 1∕2?

Answer 29

D: The approach can be continued, but landing is only allowed if the flight crew

Question 30

142) If a passenger was to lose consciousness due to an extreme illness and dies while on board an CPS aircraft, the flight may not depart until released by:

Answer 30

D: Local law enforcement or the coroner

Question 31

148) You have been assigned to ferry an aircraft. What does the special flight permit allow you to do?

Answer 31

D: Both B&C

Question 32

153) You should perform a VOR receiver accuracy check prior to the first flight of the day if it’s either the 1st or the 15th, or if the aircraft is being returned to service after not being in operation through either date.

Answer 32

A: True

Question 33

154) An MEL is restrictive when:

Answer 33

D: All of the above

Question 34

163) A condition that results in an intermittent CAS message or Pushbutton light, including flickering caution/warning lights, are to be considered possibly operating outside design parameters and therefore should be considered as a possible mechanical irregularity.

Answer 34

A: True

Question 35

167) A difficulty seating a handicapped person has been referred to the CRO. What does CRO stand for?

Answer 35

B: Complaint Resolution Officer

Question 36

168) Unaccompanied minors are 2 to 12.

Answer 36

B: False

Question 37

170) CPS may not carry high-risk prisoners.

Answer 37

B: False

Question 38

174) An animal carried in the cargo compartment of a Compass aircraft may only be carried in the aft cargo compartment.

Answer 38

B: False

Question 39

181) What are the flight limitations after a crewmember donates blood?

Answer 39

C: 24 hours

Question 40

184) According to FAR Part 117, each flight crewmember must have at least 30 consecutive hours off from all duty in any 168 consecutive hour period.

Answer 40

A: True

Question 41

186) A CPS pilot may no be scheduled to fly more than ___ hours between required rest periods?

Answer 41

D: Either A or B, depending on duty-on time

Question 42

187) You inadvertently left your pilot and medical certificate at home. They are current and the Company has a copy in the files:

Answer 42

B: You can fly your flight if you obtain a “Temporary Confirmation Document” from CPS or a Temporary Authorized fax from FAA

Question 43

191) A PIC without 100 hours in 14 CFR Part 121 operations in the type of airplane they are operating (High Minimums PIC), may be dispatched and may fly CAT 1 approaches under exemption 10196 without adding 100ft and 1/2sm to minimums if:

Answer 43

D: All of the above

Question 44

192) A PIC without 100 hours in 14 CFR Part 121 operations in the type of airplane they are operating (High Minimums PIC), and is flying an aircraft with a CAT II downgrade.

Answer 44

D: A&C

Question 45

195) At which airport is a low-time SIC prohibited from performing a takeoff?

Answer 45

B: KDCA or KSAM

Question 46

208) A carry-on bag weights _____ lbs. When stored under the seat?

Answer 46

C: 0 lbs

Question 47

216) Basic VFR visibility requirements at night in class E airspace while cruising at 8,000’ are:

Answer 47

C: 3 miles

Question 48

217) AT MSP, ground control clears you to taxi to Runway 12R. This clearance permits you to cross any active runway except for 12R.

Answer 48

B: False